Quiz #6 Urinary Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse is caring for a school-age child who has acute glomerulonephritis with peripheral edema and is producing 35 mL of urine per hour. The nurse should place the client on which of the following diets?

A. Low-sodium, fluid-restricted.
B. Regular diet, no added salt.
C. Low-protein, low-potassium diet.
D. Low-carbohydrate, low-protein diet.

A

A. Low-sodium, fluid-restricted.

A low-sodium diet can help reduce fluid retention and swelling. Fluid restriction can also help manage fluid balance and prevent further complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about the process of continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. CAPD filters the client’s blood through an artificial device called a dialyzer.
B. CAPD is the dialysis treatment of choice for clients who have a history of abdominal surgery.
C. CAPD requires the client to follow fewer dietary and fluid restrictions than hemodialysis requires.
D. CAPD requires a rigid schedule of exchange times.

A

C. CAPD requires the client to follow fewer dietary and fluid restrictions than hemodialysis requires.

Rationale: CAPD’s advantages include fewer dietary and fluid restrictions as compared to hemodialysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has renal failure and an elevated phosphorus level. The provider instructed the client to take aluminum hydroxide 300 mg PO three times a daily. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse inform the client?

A. Constipation
B. Metallic taste
C. Headache
D. Muscle spasms

A

A. Constipation

Rational: Constipation is a common side effect of aluminum-based antacids. The nurse should instruct the client to increase fiber intake and that stool softeners or laxatives may be needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

** A 5 year old male is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. On assessment, you note mild edema predominately in the face and tea-colored urine. The patient’s blood pressure is 165/110, heart rate 95, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, and temperature 98.9 ‘F. In your nursing care plan, what nursing interventions will you include in this patient’s plan of care? (SATA)

A. Initiate and maintain a high sodium diet daily.
B. Monitor intake and output hourly.
C. Encourage patient to ambulate every 2 hours while awake.
D. Assess color of urine after every void.
E. Weigh patient every daily on a standing scale.
F. Encourage the patient to consume 4 L of fluid per day.

A

B, D, E

Patients with acute glomerulonephritis experience proteinuria and hematuria. In addition, they may experience mild edema (mainly in the face/eyes), hypertension, and in severe cases renal failure/oliguria. Therefore, it is very important the nurse monitors intake and output every hour, assesses color of urine, and weighs the patient every day on a standing scale. Option A is wrong because the patient should be consuming a LOW (not high) sodium diet. Option C is wrong because the patient should maintain bed rest until recovered due to experiencing hypertension. Option F is wrong because the patient will be on a fluid restriction…4 L is a lot of fluid to consume. It is generally 2 L or less of fluids per day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A nurse is assessing a client in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A. Hypomagnesemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Decreased creatinine level
D. Increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

A

B. Hyperkalemia

This choice is correct because hyperkalemia is a common finding in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. Hyperkalemia is a condition in which the serum potassium level is higher than normal (more than 5 mEq/L). It may be caused by reduced renal excretion of potassium due to decreased urine output (oliguria). It may cause symptoms such as muscle weakness, paresthesia, bradycardia, or cardiac arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is to begin receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to ensure proper dialysate exchange?

A. Maintain the client in a left lateral position during dialysis.
B. Monitor vital signs every 2 hours during the procedure.
C. Warm the dialysate solution prior to instillation.
D. Place the drainage bag above the level of the client’s abdomen.

A

C. Warm the dialysate solution prior to instillation.

Warming the dialysate solution prior to instillation is a standard practice in peritoneal dialysis. It helps to promote patient comfort and more efficient exchange of wastes and fluids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for four client. Which of the following clients has manifestations of acute kidney injury?

A. Hemoglobin 16 g/dL
B. BUN 15 mg/dL
C. Serum potassium 4.5 mEq/L
D. Serum creatinine 6 mg/dL

A

D. Serum creatinine 6 mg/dL

(This finding is above the expected reference range. The expected reference range for creatinine is 0.5 mg/dL to 1.3 mg/dL depending on the client’s gender and age. An elevated serum creatinine is a manifestation of impaired kidney function, such as with acute kidney injury.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A nurse is caring for a 44-year-old client who was admitted with an elevated temperature and abdominal pain.

Medical History:
The client reports “not feeling well” for 3 days. The client reports decreased appetite and generalized abdominal pain with nausea. No reports of vomiting or diarrhea. The client has a history of stage IV chronic kidney disease. The client currently completes continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) four times per day. Client lives alone and has 4 cats. Other pertinent history includes hypertension, diabetes, and neuropathy. Noncompliant with health care provider visits and follow-up.

A. Creatinine 3.0 mg/dL (0.5 to 1.3 mg/dL)
B. Crackles throughout lungs
C. Nausea
D. Glucose 250 mg/dL
E. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL (12 to 18 g/dL)
F. No dialysis for 24 hr
G. Abdomen rigid with decreased bowel sounds
H. Potassium 7.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L)
I. WBC count 17,000/mm3
(Normal Finding: 5,000 to 10,000/mm³)

A

*B. Crackles throughout lungs
F. No dialysis for 24 hr
*G. Abdomen rigid with decreased bowel sounds
*H. Potassium 7.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L)
*I. WBC count 17,000/mm3

Rationales
B. Crackles throughout lungs
Rational: Clients who have chronic kidney disease are prone to fluid overload. This client has not had dialysis for 24 hr and is showing signs of fluid overload (crackles in lungs and 3+ edema of lower extremities); therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up.

F. No dialysis for 24 hr.
Rational: Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) is performed by the client with the infusion of exchanges of dialysate into the peritoneal cavity four times per day, seven days a week. With each exchange the dialysate remains in the abdomen for 4 to 8 hr. Since the client has not had dialysis for the last 24 hr, this finding requires immediate follow-up.

G. Abdomen rigid with decreased bowel sounds.
Rational: A rigid abdomen with decreased bowel sounds is indicative of peritonitis; therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up.

H. Potassium 7.0 mEq/L.
Rational: Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias; therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up.

I. WBC count 17,000/mm3.
Rational: Clients who have chronic kidney disease have altered immunity and are prone to infection. One of the most common complications of peritoneal dialysis is peritonitis. Elevated temperature and increased WBC count is indicative of infection; therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A nurse is assessing a client who has end-stage kidney disease and is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indiction that the client is experiencing fluid overload?

A

The client has a 5 lb weight gain since yesterday.

Rationale: (The nurse should identify that a gain of 2 lb per day is stable. A gain of more than 2 lb per day or 5 lb per week is an indication of fluid overload.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Chronic glomerulonephritis decreased lab value?

A

RBC?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the right forearm. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the teaching as a possible indication of venous insufficiency?

A. Cold and numbness distal to the fistula site
B. A raised red rash around the fistula site
C. Pain in the right arm proximal to the fistula site
D. Foul-smelling drainage from the fistula site

A

A. Cold and numbness distal to the fistula site

Pallor and numbness distal to the fistula site are possible indicators of venous insufficiency and should be immediately reported to the provider.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who reports to the clinic for laboratory tests. The client has an acute kidney injury caused by acute tubular necrosis and asks why their glomerular filtration rate (GFR) keeps decreasing. Which of the following pathophysiological changes occurring in the kidney should the nurse explain as the cause of the decrease?

A. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is injury to the renal tubular cells.
B. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is obstruction leading to the filtration system backing up and eventually shutting the kidneys down.
C. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because in?ammatory cells invade the already damaged kidneys.
D. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is a reduction of blood flow to the kidneys.

A

A. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is injury to the renal tubular cells.

Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is a condition where there is damage to the renal tubular cells, which can lead to a decrease in GFR. This is because the tubular cells are responsible for reabsorbing substances from the filtrate back into the blood. When these cells are injured, they cannot function properly, leading to a buildup of waste products and a decrease in GFR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse should plan to provide which of the following interventions?

A. Weigh the client daily
B. Encourage the client to drink 2 to 3 L of fluid per day.
C. Instruct the client to ambulate every 2 hr.
D. Obtain the client’s serum blood glucose

A

A. Weigh the client daily

The nurse can monitor fluid retention by weighing the client daily.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas values of a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following sets of values should the nurse expect?

a.) pH 7.25, HCO3- 19mEq/L, PACO2 30 mm Hg
b.) pH 7.30, HCO3 - 26 mEq/L, PACO2 50 mm Hg
c.) pH 7.50 7.50, HCO3-20 mEq/L, PaCO2 32 mm Hg
d.) pH 7.55, HCO3 - 30 mEq/L, PaCO2 31 mm Hg

A

a.) pH 7.25, HCO3- 19mEq/L, PACO2 30 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) & reports having shortness of breath & swelling in his lower extremities. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client has crackles in his lungs & elevated blood pressure. The nurse should suspect which of the following based on the client’s manifestations?

A.) Hypovolemia
B.) Hypervolemia
C.) Hyperkalemia
D.) Hyponatremia

A

B.) Hypervolemia

A client who has ESKD experiences excess fluid volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A nurse is caring for a client immediately following hemodialysis treatment. For which of the following manifestations will the nurse administer a PRN dose of phenytoin?

A. Headache, restlessness
B. Decreased blood pressure, rapid pulse
C. Muscle cramps, chest heaviness
D. Pain and tingling at the access site

A

A. Headache, restlessness

Headache and restlessness. (Headache and restlessness are manifestations of disequilibrium syndrome, which occurs during or after hemodialysis due to the rapid shift of fluids, pH, and osmolarity between fluid and blood that occurs.. This condition can cause cerebral edema leading to seizures and coma, and a PRN dose of the anticonvulsant phenytoin should be administered.)

17
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about limiting foods that are high in potassium. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

A

tomatoes, bananas, raisins

18
Q

A nurse is caring for a client receiving hemodialysis.
Medical History:
Client has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, and hemodialysis with Arteriovenous fistula.

A nurse is caring for a client who has received hemodialysis. Which of the following assessment findings require follow-up?

A. Vital signs
B. Weight
C. Blood glucose level
D. Presence of bruit and thrill
E. Lung sounds
F. AV fistula site assessment

A

E. Lung sounds
F. AV fistula site assessment

Rational: When analyzing cues, it is appropriate to follow up with the lung and AV fistula site assessments. There has been in a change in the client’s lung sounds accompanied by a non-productive cough. The client experienced an episode of nausea with emesis at 1600 the evening prior and could have aspirated or may be retaining fluid related to decreased kidney function. The nurse should assess the site further for evidence of bleeding due to the use of anticoagulants during dialysis.

19
Q

Sodium-restricted diet need for further teaching

A
  • “I can still drink 3-4 carbonated drinks daily.
20
Q

A nurse is teaching a client about self-administered peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A. “The fluid from my abdomen will be clear or slightly yellow.”
B. “The catheter can become infected even with sterile precautions.”
C. “The microwave in my kitchen can warm the solution before I use it.”
D. “The volume of the output solution should be greater than the input solution.”

A

C. “The microwave in my kitchen can warm the solution before I use it.”

Rational: It is dangerous to use a microwave to heat dialysate because microwaves heat unevenly, and the dialysate can be much hotter than it initially appears. It is recommended that dialysate be warmed using dry heat, such as a heating pad. Warming the dialysate in water is also discouraged as this can introduce non-sterile water into the ports of the dialysate bag.

21
Q

A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD).The nurse should instruct the client to limit which of the following nutrients? (Select all that apply.)

A. Protein
B. Calcium
C. Calories
D. Phosphorous
E. Sodium

A

A. Protein
Rational: A client who has CKD should restrict protein intake to prevent uremia that can develop as a result of the kidneys’ inability to remove the waste products of protein.

D. Phosphorous
Rational: A client who has CKD is at risk for hyperphosphatemia due to a reduction in excretion of phosphorous by the kidneys.

E. Sodium
Rational: A client who has CKD is at risk for hypernatremia, edema, and hypertension due to sodium retention.

22
Q

A nurse is monitoring an older adult female client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) for the development of an acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as indicating an increased risk of AKI?

A. Magnesium 2.5 mEq/L
B. Serum osmolality 290 mOsm/kg H2O
C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL
D. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL

A

D. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL

This is correct because serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL is an elevated value and indicates an increased risk of AKI. Creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the kidneys. The normal range for serum creatinine is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL for women and 0.7 to 1.3 mg/dL for men. An increase in serum creatinine indicates a decrease in kidney function and glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

23
Q

ESKD pt w low serum calcium is at risk for what?

A

Seizures

24
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations of peritonitis?

A. Increased urinary output
B. Bradycardia
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

A

C. Nausea and vomiting

Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms of peritonitis and should be monitored in clients

25
Q

A nurse is preparing to obtain a daily weight from a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement?

A. Use any available scale to weigh the client.
B. Balance the scale at minus two before weighing the client.
C. Obtain the weight each day at a time most convenient for the client.
D. Weigh the client after he has voided.

A

D. Weigh the client after he has voided.

Rational: The nurse should have the client void before obtaining a daily weight.

26
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage renal disease (ESRD). Which of the following are expected findings? (Select all that apply).

A. Bone pain
B. Slurred speech
C. Hypotension
D. Pruritus
E. Bradypnea.

A

A. Bone pain
B. Slurred speech
D. Pruritus

Rationales:
A. Bone pain can occur in ESRD due to mineral and bone disorders associated with chronic kidney disease.
B. Slurred speech can be seen in ESRD patients with uremic encephalopathy.
D. Pruritus is a common symptom if ESRD, often due to accumulation of uremic toxins.

27
Q

A nurse is discussing lab values associated with the renal system with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the values?

A. Potassium levels are increased in clients who have polyuria.
B. Specific gravity is decreased in clients who have hypovolemia.
C. BUN is decreased in clients who have dehydration.
D. Creatinine levels are increased in clients who have acute kidney injury

A

D. Creatinine levels are increased in clients who have acute kidney injury.

Rational: Increased creatinine levels are associated with renal failure.

28
Q

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data of a client following a hemodialysis treatment. The nurse should expect to find a decrease in which of the following laboratory values?

a. RBC
b. WBC
c. albumin
d. potassium

A

d. potassium

Potassium levels are reduced by the process of diffusion during dialysis.

29
Q
  1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD) and states she has heartburn. The provider prescribes aluminum hydroxide. The client asks, “Why can’t I just take the antacid magaldrate my husband has a home?” The nurse explains to the client that aluminum hydroxide is the preferred antacid because it lowers which of the following?

A. Serum potassium levels
B. Serum magnesium levels
C. Serum calcium levels
D. Serum phosphorus levels

A

D. Serum phosphorus levels

(Aluminum-based formulas are also a phosphate binder, helping to lower serum phosphorus levels in clients who have CKD.)

30
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new arteriovenous graft in his left forearm. which of the following techniques should the nurse use to assess the patency of this graft?

A. Measure the client’s blood pressure to ensure it is higher in the left arm than the right.
B. Check the brachial and radial pulses of the left arm simultaneously.
C. Auscultate the site for a bruit.
D. Auscultate the antecubital fossa using a Doppler stethoscope.

A

C. Auscultate the site for a bruit.

Rational: The nurse should auscultate the AV graft site for the presence of a bruit or palpate the site for a thrill every 4 hr to assess for blood flow.

31
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who has acute kidney injury about dietary sources of potassium. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for clarification?

A. “I will enjoy eating cantaloupe for my morning snack.”
B. “I can easily add baked potatoes to my diet.”
C. “Eating yogurt will be a new experience.”
D. “Adding pecans will be a change I can readily make.”

A

D. “Adding pecans will be a change I can readily make.”

(pecans are low in potassium)

32
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is undergoing initial peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the provider?

A. Report of discomfort during dialysate inflow
B. Blood-tinged dialysate outflow
C. Dialysate leakage during inflow
D. Purulent dialysate outflow

A

D. Purulent dialysate outflow

Rational: Peritonitis is an inflammation of the peritoneum and a major complication of peritoneal dialysis. Manifestations of peritonitis include cloudy dialysate outflow, fever, nausea, and vomiting. If untreated, the client can become severely ill, progressing to bacterial septicemia and hypovolemic shock. Peritonitis can be prevented with meticulous site care. The nurse and client should wear a mask when accessing the catheter. Strict aseptic technique should be used when connecting and disconnecting the catheter.

33
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who has acute kidney disease about fluid restrictions. Which of the following statements by the client should the nurse identify as understanding of the teaching?

1) “I should consume most of the fluid during the evening.
“2) “I will make a list of my favorite beverages.”
3) “I will put beverages in large containers to give the appearance of drinking a lot.”
4) “I will not add ice cream to the amount of fluid intake.”

A

“2) “I will make a list of my favorite beverages.”

34
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who has CKD and a new prescription for epoetin alfa. the nurse should instruct the client to increase dietary intake of which of the following substances.

A. Iron
B. Protein
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

A

A. Iron

Rational: Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form of erythropoietin, a substance produced by the kidneys that stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. Increased iron is needed for the production of hemoglobin and red blood cells by the bone marrow.

35
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney failure about planning a low-protein diet. The client states, “Why do I have to be concerned about protein?” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

A. “A low-protein diet reduces the risk for uremia.”
B. “A low-protein diet reduces the risk for edema.”
C. “A low -protein diet will reduce the risk for hyperkalemia.”
D. “A low-protein diet will increase the nitrogenous wastes in the blood.”

A

A. “A low-protein diet reduces the risk for uremia.”

Rational: Urea is a waste product of protein breakdown and can accumulate in clients who have kidney failure, causing uremia.