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Oral Surgery > Quiz > Flashcards

Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

Most prevalent aerobic micro-organisms associated with odontogenic infections

A

Streptococci

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2
Q

An antibioma is:

A

A chronic inflammatory mass after prolonged antibiotic treatment alone

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3
Q

Organism typically associated with facial cellulitis

A

Group A Streptococci

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4
Q

What is fluctuance swelling?

A

Feeling of a fluid-filled balloon indicating an accumulation of pus in the underlying tissues

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5
Q

What is an indurated swelling?

A

Swelling that has the same firmness as a tightened muscle

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6
Q

Rate the most common to least common for odontogenic infections.
Aerobic, anaerobic, mixed

A

Mixed (60%) > Anaerobic (35%) > Aerobic (5%)

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7
Q

Osteoradionecrosis occurs most commonly at what dose and which arch?

A

Mandible at 65 Gy

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8
Q

The best restorations to restore teeth affected by caries after radiation are:

A

Amalgam and composites

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9
Q

What dose of radiation is safe to place implants after radiation therapy?

A

implants may be placed

> 45 Gy –> hyperbaric oxygen therapy before and after implant surgery

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10
Q

Should all impacted teeth be removed before irradiation?

A

No

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11
Q

What should be removed before irradiation?

A
  • All hopeless & questionable teeth
  • implants with questionable prognosis
  • root fragments and other bone pathologies.
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12
Q

What is the optimal time between extraction of teeth and radiation?

A

3 weeks

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13
Q

Chemotherapy drug that may present with constant, deep pain that is often bilateral and frequently mimics toothache (odontalgia):

A

Vincristine

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14
Q

What are the pathological features of osteoradionecrosis?

A
  • slow bone turnover rate
  • non-vital bone within radiation beam
  • resembles chronic suppurative osteomyelitis
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15
Q

Does risk of osteoradionecrosis diminish 10 years after radiotherapy?

A

No

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16
Q

After irradiation of the face and jaws, the underlying pathological event that leads to osteoradionecrosis is:

A

Endarteritis obliterans

17
Q

Risk factors of osteoradionecrosis:

A
  • exposure > 6000 cGy
  • posterior mandible exposed
  • poor dentition and oral hygiene
  • poor nutrition
  • smoking
  • ill-fitting prosthesis causing
  • chronic trauma
  • post-RT extraction
18
Q

What are the rationales for hyperbaric oxygen therapy?

A
  • increase blood-tissue oxygen gradient
  • stimulation of fibroblast proliferation, angiogenesis, collagen formation
  • bactericidal & bacteriostatic
19
Q

Symptoms of oral mucositis after radiation resolve typically after:

A

6 months

20
Q

The Bosker transmandibular implant is indicated for:

A

A patient with a markedly resorbed mandibular ridge

21
Q

When is surgery best taken if patient is on dialysis?

A

DAY AFTER dialysis tx (this allows the heparin to disappear, and then patient still has “fresh” blood

22
Q

Which LAs in moderate amounts are least likely to harm fetus?

A
  • Lidocaine

- Bupivacaine

23
Q

Which analgesics are least likely to harm fetus?

A
  • acetaminophen

- codeine

24
Q

Which antibiotics are least likely to harm a fetus?

A
  • penicillin

- cephalosporin

25
Q

A patient with angina should be given no more than 0.04 mg of epinephrine in local anaesthetic solution over a period of:

A

30 minutes

26
Q

List the components of antral regime.

A
  • Broad spectrum antibiotics (amoxicillin)
  • Nasal decongestant
  • Antihistamine or nasal inhalations
27
Q

A healthy adult has a platelet count in the range per microliter of blood):

A

150,000 to 400,000

28
Q

Platelet function is assessed by which laboratory test?

A

Bleeding time

29
Q

What is intermittent claudication?

A

Intermittent claudication arises due to vascular insufficiency, and manifests as severe pain in the calf muscles on exertion.It is typical of smokers.

30
Q

What is the MOA of warfarin?

A

Warfarin inhibits the vitamin K-dependent synthesis of biologically active forms of the calcium-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X.

31
Q

Who are patients at risk of adrenal insufficiency?

A

Those that take > 20mg daily for at least 2 weeks in the past year prior to surgery

32
Q

How do you handle adrenal insufficiency emergency situations?

A
  • administer oxygen

- administer hydrocortisone 100 mg IV (or IM)

33
Q

How to handle TIA (ie. temporary numbness of extremities, loss of vision)?

A
  • Termination of dental treatment
  • little can be done for patient other than reassurance
  • referral to physician
34
Q

Whereas cerebrovascular compromise from embolism develop slowly, ruptured vessel occurs quickly – ptn will have “the worst headache of their life”

A
  • monitor vital signs
  • call for medical assistance
  • Oxygen is contraindicated unless respiratory difficulty occurs
  • any narcotics the patient is on should be reversed
  • begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation if loss of consciousness
35
Q

What dose of epinephrine is given for severe anaphylaxis?

A

0.3 ml of 1:1,000

36
Q

Late manifestations of acute adrenal insufficiency:

A
  • vomiting
  • pain in the abdomen
  • mental confusion
37
Q

What is the regime for patients currently taking corticosteroids?

A

Double the dose of steroid on the day before, the day of, and the day after surgery

38
Q

What is the regime for patients who has received at least 20 mg of hydrocortisone for more than 2 weeks in the past year?

A

hydrocortisone 60 mg on the day before and morning of surgery, then 40 mg x 2 days, and finally 20 mg for 3 days thereafter

Oral Surgery (1 decks)

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