Quiz #4 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true concerning feedforward control of movement?
    A) Feedforward control involves information from the sensory systems being compared to a reference signal.
    B) Feedforward control involves using previous experience to predict the
    consequences of the sensory information received.
    C) Feedforward control involves using visual or somatosensory systems when reacting to movement errors.
    D) Feedforward control consists of a short latency reflex.
A

B) Feedforward control involves using previous experience to predict the consequences of the sensory information received.

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2
Q
  1. How do hand movements influence smooth pursuit eye movements when following a target?
    A) There is a decrease in pursuit gain if the hand is also following the target.
    B) There is an increase in pursuit gain if the hand is also following the target.
    C) There is no change in pursuit gain if the hand is also following the target.
    D) There is an increase in latency for smooth pursuit if the hand is also following the
    target.
A

B) There is an increase in pursuit gain if the hand is also following the target.

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3
Q
3. In addition to sensory information, which of the following brain areas is important to the control of feedback and/or feedforward control during reach and grasp of an object?
A)    	Primary motor cortex
B)    	Cerebellum  
C)    	Posterior parietal lobe
D)    	Basal ganglia
A

B) Cerebellum page 481

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4
Q
4. Clients who are unable to learn to make an anticipatory postural adjustment for a novel task would most likely have a lesion in which brain area?
A)    	Parietal lobe
B)    	Cerebellum 
C)    	Temporal lobe
D)    	Brainstem
A

B) Cerebellum

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5
Q
5. A client presents with movement trajectories characterized by undershooting when moving slowly and decomposition of movement when reaching for a target. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A)    	Parkinson's disease
B)    	Cerebellar pathology 
C)    	Cerebral palsy
D)    	Parietal pathology
A

B) Cerebellar pathology

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6
Q

True or False: According to Umphred’s (2013) chapter on Inflammatory and Infectious Disorders of the Brain, aseptic (viral) meningitis refers to a nonpurulent inflammatory process confined to the meninges and choroid plexus usually caused by the contamination of the CSF with a viral agent, although other agents can trigger reactions. The symptoms are similar to acute bacterial meningitis (such as irritability, lethargy, and a severe headache), but typically less severe as cerebral function remains normal unless unusual complications occur.

A

True

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7
Q

Fill in the following blanks: “Clinical features of acute bacterial meningitis include 1)____, severe 2)______, altered 3)_______, convulsions (particularly in children), and 4)______ rigidity. Nuchal rigidity is indicative of an irritative lesion in the subarachnoid space. Signs of meningeal irritation are painful cervical 5)_____, the 6)_____ sign, the Brudzinski sign, and the jolt sign. … The acute infectious pathological condition could result in sequelae such as inflammatory or vascular involvement of the 7)_____ nerves or thrombosis of the 8)_____ veins.”

A

1) fever
2) headache
3) consciousness
4) nuchal
5) flexion
6) Kernig
7) cranial
8) meningeal

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8
Q

Fill in the following blanks: “An individual within the acute phase of meningitis or encephalitis or with residual neurologic dysfunction from these disorders may demonstrate signs and symptoms similar to those of generalized brain trauma, 1)____ disorder, or other identified abnormal neurological state. … In the acute phase the inflammatory process may result in impairments in arousal and 2)_____ that range from 3)________ to 4)______. … Perceptual and 5)______ impairments may be present, resulting in a variety of functional limitation and disabilities. Clients may have distortions in their perception of events as well as 6)______ problems. … In addition to alterations in mentation, the individual may demonstrate impaired affect such as 7)_____ or 8)__________ emotional responses to seemingly normal interactions.”

A

1) tumor
2) attention
3) non-responsiveness
4) agitation
5) cognitive
6) memory
7) hypersensitivity
8) exaggerated

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9
Q

Fill in the following blanks: According to O’Sullivan (2014) and lecture supplements, traumatic brain injuries (TBIs) are classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the 1)____________ which compiles a quantitative numeric score resulting in a subjective assignment according to the patient’s responses to the three specific activities of 2)______ Opening, Best 3)______ Response, and 4)____Response. The GCS has been extensively tested for interrater reliability with patients scoring a total of 5)____ are identified as having a coma and severe brain injuries, patients with moderate brain injuries score from 6)_____, and those with mild brain injuries score from 7)_____.

A

1) Glasgow Coma Scale
2) Eye
3) Motor
4) Verbal
5) 3 to 8
6) 9 to 12
7) 13-15

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10
Q

A patient who did not open his eyes to his name being spoken to him loudly, but did for a short period when pinched on the forearm; displayed an upper extremity flexion pattern, and makes only incomprehensible sounds – would be classified in the GCS as:

a) 9 – moderate brain injury
b) 6 – moderate brain injury
c) 7 – mild brain injury
d) 7 – severe brain injury
e) 7 – moderate brain injury

A

d) 7 – severe brain injury page 900

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11
Q

A patient with TBI opens his eyes when you enter the room and say his name, maintains his arms in flexion and his legs in extension, and is disoriented when speaking to you. His Glasgow Coma Scale is:

a) 8
b) 9
c) 10
d) 11

A

c) 10 page 900

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12
Q

According to O’Sullivan (2014) and lecture supplements, which of the following statements is NOT true with regard to intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A) Normal ICP is between 4 and 15 mm Hg.
B) Ventricular drainage can be used to treat elevated ICP.
C) Elevated ICP is treated by positioning the head elevated to approximately 30º.
D) Elevated ICP is treated with supine positioning and sedating medications.

A

D) Elevated ICP is treated with supine positioning and sedating medications.

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13
Q

According to O’Sullivan’s (2014) chapter on “Traumatic Brain Injury,” when working with a patient with TBI who is confused and agitated, the physical therapist should:
A) Restrain the patient at all times; safety is the number one priority.
B) Challenge the patient to learn new skills; the agitation is often the result of boredom.
C) Be prepared with numerous activities as the patient will have a limited attention span.
D) Vary the treatment every day; the patient responds best to change.

A

C) Be prepared with numerous activities as the patient will have a limited attention span.

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14
Q
  1. According to O’Sullivan’s (2014) chapter on “Traumatic Brain Injury,” which of the following is true with regard to positioning of patients with severe brain injuries and low response levels.
    A) Patients with severe brain injuries should not be positioned up in a wheelchair until they demonstrate good head control.
    B) Patients with severe brain injuries should be positioned in a standard wheelchair as soon as they are medically stable.
    C) Patients with severe brain injuries should be positioned up in a wheelchair as soon as medically stable, but may require a tilt-in-space for positioning and head support.
    D) Patients with severe brain injuries should be positioned up in a bedside chair, but not a wheelchair.
A

C) Patients with severe brain injuries should be positioned up in a wheelchair as soon as medically stable, but may require a tilt-in-space for positioning and head support.

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15
Q
  1. According to O’Sullivan’s (2014) chapter on “Traumatic Brain Injury,” which of the following is true with regard to the physical therapy examination of the confused and agitated patient?
    A) The physical therapy examination should be structured with an systematic examination of strength, active and passive ROM, and sensation.
    B) Physical therapy examination and intervention should be delayed until the patient is no longer agitated.
    C) The physical therapy examination may consist of primarily observation during functional activities until the patient is able to cooperate.
    D) The physical therapy examination should focus on cognitive skills, as this is the patient’s primary impairment at this point in recovery.
A

C) The physical therapy examination may consist of primarily observation during functional activities until the patient is able to cooperate. page 913

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16
Q

Match the appropriate response:The patient is in a deep sleep and usually completely unresponsive to stimuli.

a) VI. CONFUSED-APPROPRIATE
b) III. LOCALIZED RESPONSE
c) I. NO RESPONSE
d) II. GENERALIZED RESPONSE

A

c) I. NO RESPONSE

17
Q

Match the appropriate response: The patient follows simple directions consistently and shows some carryover for tasks such as self-care, but responses may be incorrect due to memory problems with past memory showing more depth than recent memory.

a) VI. CONFUSED-APPROPRIATE
b) III. LOCALIZED RESPONSE
c) I. NO RESPONSE
d) II. GENERALIZED RESPONSE

A

a) VI. CONFUSED-APPROPRIATE

18
Q

Match the appropriate response: The patient reacts inconsistently and nonpurposefully to stimuli in a non-specific manner which are often the same - such as physiological changes, gross body movements, and/or vocalization - regardless of stimulus presented.

a) VI. CONFUSED-APPROPRIATE
b) III. LOCALIZED RESPONSE
c) I. NO RESPONSE
d) II. GENERALIZED RESPONSE

A

d) II. GENERALIZED RESPONSE

19
Q

Match with the appropriate response: May follow simple commands such as closing eyes or squeezing hand in an inconsistent, delayed manner as they react more specifically, but inconsistently.

a) VI. CONFUSED-APPROPRIATE
b) III. LOCALIZED RESPONSE
c) I. NO RESPONSE
d) II. GENERALIZED RESPONSE

A

b) III. LOCALIZED RESPONSE

20
Q

Match with the appropriate response: The patient is able to respond to simple commands fairly consistently, however with increased complexity of commands responses are fragmented. The verbalization is often inappropriate and confabulatory.

a) VIII. PURPOSEFUL-APPROPRIATE
b) VII. AUTOMATIC-RESPONSE
c) V. CONFUSED-INAPPROPRIATE
d) IV. CONFUSED-AGITATED

A

c) V. CONFUSED-INAPPROPRIATE

21
Q

Match with the appropriate response: The patient shows carryover for new learning and needs no supervision once activities are learned, although may continue to show a decreased ability relative to premorbid status.

a) VIII. PURPOSEFUL-APPROPRIATE
b) VII. AUTOMATIC-RESPONSE
c) V. CONFUSED-INAPPROPRIATE
d) IV. CONFUSED-AGITATED

A

a) VIII. PURPOSEFUL-APPROPRIATE

22
Q

Match with the appropriate response: The patients behavior is bizarre and non-purposeful relative to the immediate environment although they are often in a heightened state of activity but cannot discriminate between inanimate and animate and objects. Verbalizations are frequently incoherent and/or inappropriate with confabulations.

a) VIII. PURPOSEFUL-APPROPRIATE
b) VII. AUTOMATIC-RESPONSE
c) V. CONFUSED-INAPPROPRIATE
d) IV. CONFUSED-AGITATED

A

d) IV. CONFUSED-AGITATED

23
Q

Match with the appropriate response: The patient appears appropriate and oriented and can go through a simple daily routine, but frequently ‘robot-like.’ They have minimal to no confusion, but have a shallow recall of activities and show no carryover for new learning.

a) VIII. PURPOSEFUL-APPROPRIATE
b) VII. AUTOMATIC-RESPONSE
c) V. CONFUSED-INAPPROPRIATE
d) IV. CONFUSED-AGITATED

A

b) VII. AUTOMATIC-RESPONSE

24
Q

According to Lundy-Ekman (2013), match each set of cerebellar signs and symptoms with the location of a lesion that would produce the signs and symptoms.
___1. Nystagmus, dysequilibrium, truncal ataxia
__ 2. Wide-based, staggering gait
__ 3. Dysarthria
__ 4. Dysdiadochokinesia, dysmetria, and action tremor
A) Vermis
B) Vestibulocerebellum
C) Cerebrocerebellum
D) Spinocerebellum

A

B 1. Nystagmus, dysequilibrium, truncal ataxia
A 2. Wide-based, staggering gait
C 3. Dysarthria
D 4. Dysdiadochokinesia, dysmetria, and action tremor