Quiz 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of the motility test?

A

To determine whether bacteria are motile (can move)

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2
Q

Why do we have a low percentage of agar in the motility test?

A

Semi-solid for detection of motility

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3
Q

What is the substrate in the motility test?

A

Triphenyltetrazolium chloride (TTC)

  • Detects bacterial growth - show us where the bacteria grows
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4
Q

What is the enzyme in the motility test?

A

Various endoenzymes
- Function as reductase to reduce TTC
- Reductase found in all bacteria

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5
Q

What is the reduced form of TTC?

A

Formazan

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6
Q

What is a positive and negative in the motility test?

A

Positive: fuzzy appearance migrating away from the stab line

Negative: growth only along stab line
- Able to grow where inoculated but not motile away from stab line

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7
Q

What is the purpose of the nitrate reduction test?

A

To determine whether bacteria can use nitrate (NO3) as the final electron acceptor during anaerobic respiration

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8
Q

What is the substrate of the nitrate reduction test?

A

Nitrate no3-

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9
Q

What is the enzyme used in the nitrate reduction test?

A

Nitrate reductase

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10
Q

What is the product of the nitrate reduction test?

A

Nitrite no2-

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11
Q

What are the reagents used in the nitrate reduction test to detect nitrite and what color does it turn for a positive test?

A

Reagents A and B
- Turns red

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12
Q

What is ammonification?

A

The production of ammonium

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13
Q

What is denitrification?

A

Loss of biologically available nitrogen; occurs by release of nitrogenous gases

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14
Q

What is the one true negative in the nitrate reduction test?

A

Turns red after zinc is added
- Reducing agent that reduces any remaining nitrate into nitrite

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15
Q

What is the function of zinc in the nitrate reduction test?

A

A reducing agent, will cause nitrate to gain electrons
- If turns red, bacteria don’t use nitrate
- If remains clear, full reduction of nitrate occurred by bacteria

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16
Q

What is an acidophile?

A

Grows best at low pH

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17
Q

What is a neutrophile?

A

Grows best at neutral pH

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18
Q

What is an alkaliphile?

A

Grows best at high pH

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19
Q

What does osmotolerant mean?

A

Grows at a range of salt concentrations

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20
Q

Where do psychrophiles grow?

A

Grow below freezing and optimally in refrigerator but not at room temperature

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21
Q

Where do psychrotrophs grow

A

Grow in refrigerator and room temperature but not at human body temperature

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22
Q

Where do mesophiles grow?

A

Grow at room temperature and body temperature and a little above body temperature

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23
Q

Where do thermophiles grow?

A

Not at body temperature but above 40 to 80 degrees

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24
Q

Where do extreme thermophiles grow?

A

Boiling temperatures

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25
Q

What is an example of a psychrotroph?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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26
Q

What is the purpose of the steam sterilization?

A

To determine if the autoclave is working properly to sterilize instruments, media,etc

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27
Q

What are the minimum operating conditions for the steam sterilization test?

A

120 degrees celsius for 15 minutes at 15 PSI

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28
Q

What is in the kilit ampule?

A

Bacillus stearothermophilus endospores
- heat resistant organism

Bromocresol purple - pH indicator
Purple = alkaline
Yellow = acidic

Glucose - fermentation
- If organism survives, it will ferment glucose and produce acidic products

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29
Q

What would a sterile and non-sterile solution look like?

A

Not sterile = yellow
- Acidic meaning glucose was fermented by bacteria

Sterile = purple
- Alkaline meaning glucose was not fermented and organism died in autoclave

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30
Q

What is the purpose of the kirby bauer method (disk diffusion)

A

To perform a culture and antibiotic sensitivity test on an organism

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31
Q

How is the Kirby bauer method a standardized test?

A

Uses a mueller-hinton agar

pH = 7.2-7.4

Soft agar for diffusion

4mm in depth (lateral diffusion)

Plates incubated at 37 degrees celsius

Incubate for 18 hours

Amount of drug

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32
Q

What is being measured for the readout for the kirby bauer?

A

Zone of inhibition - clear to clear
- Measured in mm

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33
Q

What are the 3 levels of susceptibility?

A

Sensitive = a normal dose of an antibiotic is effective

Intermediate = a higher than normal dose of an antibiotic is required

Resistant = no acceptable dose of antibiotic is effective

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34
Q

Are all bacteria found within the clear area around the disks dead? T/F

A

No this would be false

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35
Q

Are gram negative or gram positive bacteria more resistant to antibiotics?

A

Gram negative

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36
Q

Which organisms are most resistant to least resistance?

A

Prions
Endospores of bacteria
Mycobacteria
Cysts of protozoa
Vegetative protozoa
Gram-negative bacteria
Fungi, including most fungal spores
Viruses without envelopes
Gram positive bacteria
Viruses with lipid envelopes

37
Q

What is a broad spectrum drug?

A

Kills or inhibits both gram + and gram - bacteria

38
Q

What is a narrow spectrum drug?

A

Kills or inhibits ONLY specific types of bacteria, like only gram + bacteria

39
Q

What is drug synergy?

A

two drugs display greater effectiveness together than either drug alone

40
Q

What is the purpose of the membrane filter technique?

A

To test a water sample for the presence of coliform bacteria (presumptive test)

41
Q

What does presumptive mean?

A

Results or data that has a high confidence (>95%) of accuracy

42
Q

What is a coliform?

A

Gram - rod bacteria that ferment lactose to produce acid and gas

43
Q

Why is the presence of coliforms a problem in water?

A

Coliforms are an indicator of sewage/fecal contamination that may contain pathogens (viruses, worms, protozoans, etc)

44
Q

How big are the pores in the grid on the membrane filter and how is this relevant to bacteria?

A

Pores are 0.45 micrometers in size

Most bacteria are 1-5 micrometers in size
- Bacteria would be stuck on filter and would not pass through

45
Q

What is the purpose of the multiple tube fermentation lauryl tryptose broth?

A

To test a water sample for the presence of coliform bacteria (confirmatory test)
- Confirm if water contains coliforms

46
Q

What are the selective ingredients in the LTB broth?

A

Sodium lauryl sulfate
- Inhibits gram + growth

47
Q

What are the differential ingredients in the LTB broth?

48
Q

What is a positive and negative in the LTB broth?

A

Positive: growth/turbidity + gas
Negative: no growth or growth + no gas

49
Q

What ingredients are differential in the BGLB broth?

50
Q

What ingredients are selective in the BGLB broth?

A

Oxgall -bile (gallbladder of ox)

  • Brilliant green dye
51
Q

What is a positive and negative in the BGLB?

A

Positive: growth and gas produced
Negative: no growth or growth + no gas

52
Q

What is the purpose of multiple tube fermentation endo agar?

A

To test a water sample for the presence of coliform bacteria (presumptive test)

53
Q

What are the selective ingredients in the endo agar?

A

Sodium sulfite and basic fuchsin
- Inhibit gram + but promote gram - growth

54
Q

What are the differential ingredients in the endo agar?

55
Q

What is the final electron acceptor in alcohol fermentation?

A

Acetaldehyde

56
Q

What is a selective medium?

A

Inhibits certain types of organisms from growing, while allowing the growth of other types

57
Q

What is a differential medium?

A

Used to differentiate closely related bacteria species (for example, changes color based on differences in bacterial metabolism)

58
Q

What does a green metallic sheen mean on the endo agar?

A

Gram - bacteria grew

Darkened with acetaldehyde and turned metallic green with low pH - rapid fermenter of lactose

Presumptive E. coli

59
Q

What does a dark pink/red mean on the endo agar?

A

Gram - bacteria grew

Darkened with acetaldehyde and did NOT turn metallic green
- pH did not lower
- Slow fermenter of lactose

Presumptive klebsiella pneumoniae (pneumonia)

60
Q

What does a light pink/colorless mean on the endo agar?

A

Gram - bacteria grew

Did NOT darken with acetaldehyde
- Did not ferment lactose
- Used peptones

Presumptive salmonella typhi (typhoid fever) or shigella dysenteriae (shigellosis)

61
Q

Entamoeba histolytica - disease it causes

A

Amebic dysentery
- Diarrhea

62
Q

Entamoeba histolytica - infective stage and mode of transmission

A

Transmitted through fecal and oral route

  • Quadranucloate cyst (infections)
  • Ingestion (hatches in small intestine)
63
Q

Entamoeba histolytica - mode of motility

64
Q

Entamoeba histolytica - symptoms

A

Bloody diarrhea (penetrate lining of intestine and causes ulcers)

65
Q

Entamoeba histolytica - treatment

A

Metronidazole

66
Q

Entamoeba histolytica - method of diagnosis

A
  • Some people are asymptomatic carriers (only 10-20% of infected people)
  • Stool sample to look for cysts or trophs
67
Q

Entamoeba histolytica - stages in the life cycle

A

Cysts - up to 4 nuclei
Trophs - 8 trophs

68
Q

Balantidium coli - disease it causes

A

Balantidiosis
- diarrhea

69
Q

Balantidium coli - infective stage and mode of transmission

A

Fecal and oral transmission
- Eating contaminated food or drinking water

70
Q

Balantidium coli - mode of motility

71
Q

Balantidium coli - symptoms

A

Often asymptomatic but can have bloody diarrhea, weight loss, stomach pain, etc.

72
Q

Balantidium coli - treatment

A

metronidazole

73
Q

Balantidium coli - method of diagnosis

A

Stool sample looking for trophs or cysts in stool sample

74
Q

Balantidium coli - stages in the life cycle

A

Cyst - kidney shaped nuclei
Troph - oval

75
Q

Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) - disease it causes

A

Giardiasis
- Backpacker’s diarrhea

76
Q

Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) - infective stage and mode of transmission

A

Beavers are carriers and shed cysts in the water during a bowel movement
- Backpacker’s drink untreated wilderness water

77
Q

Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) - mode of motility

78
Q

Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) - symptoms

A

Watery diarrhea, fatigue, nausea, flatulence, weakness, weight loss, and abdominal cramps

79
Q

Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) - treatment

A

metronidazole

80
Q

Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) - method of diagnosis

A

Stool sample to verify cysts and trophs

81
Q

Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) - stages in the life cycle (cysts, troph, etc)

A

cysts - up to 4 nuclei
Troph - 2 nuclei + 4 pairs of flagella

82
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis - disease it causes

A

Trichnomiasis (STI)

83
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis - infective stage and mode of transmission

A

Sexually transmitted infection

84
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis - mode of motility

85
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis - symptoms

A

Many people asymptomatic

Itching, burning, redness, discomfort w/ urination, change in vaginal discharge

86
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis - treatment

A

metronidazole

87
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis - method of diagnosis

A

Molecular testing and wet mount of discharge fluid to look for troph

88
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis - stages in the life cycle

A

Troph - large nucleus w/ 4 flagella