Quiz 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Abduction

A

moving away from midline of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Adduction

A

moving toward midline of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

toes point up toward ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Plantar flexion

A

toes point away from ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pronation

A

face down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Supination

A

face up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is one side effects of steroids? What do steroids do to osteoclast function?

A

decreased bone density
steroids double the activity of osteoclast function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do ligaments connect?

A

bone to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do tendons connect?

A

bone to muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the difference between a sprain and a strain?

A

sprain = ligament
strain = tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

compression of the median nerve (using wrist alot)

unilateral numbness and tingling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Tinel’s Sign?

A

percussion over the median nerve = sharp pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

bone to bone contact during movement = pain and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe pain with osteoarthritis vs rheumatoid arthritis

A

OA: pain improves w/ rest
RA: pain improves w/ activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why are both obesity and being an athlete risk factors for OA?

A

both putting stress on weight bearing joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are assessment findings for OA?

A

HBC (distal to proximal)
Heberden’s node
Bouchard’s node
CMC joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

autoimmune disease
inflammation of joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the tx for RA?

A

DMARDs (methotrexate)
heat or warm baths
physical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What should one monitor when taking DMARDs?

A

opportunistic infections bc drug is immunosuppressant
- fever
- unexplained cough (tuberculosis)
- skin and oral lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are assessment findings of RA?

A

Baker’s cyst - flare up - (behind knee or elbow)
ulnar deviation (late sign)
synovitis in PIP joints
swan neck deformity of joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

trauma or casts creates pressure – muscle inflames – muscle dies bc no perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 5Ps of neuromuscular assessment for compartment syndrome?

A

Pain - out of proportion to injury
Paresthesia
Pulse - late sign - no pulse
Pallor
Paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can be done to tx compartment syndrome?

A

fasciotomy

cutting into muscle so muscle can expand

can’t stitch – pack it instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is rhabdomyolysis?

A

breakdown of skeletal muscle from injury, exercise, or muscle contraction

skeletal muscle breaks down–myoglobin in bloodstream–harmful to kidneys–untreated leads to acute kidney injury and/or renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the assessment findings of rhabdomyolysis?

A

fatigue
malaise
oliguria (decreased urine)
confusion
agitation
tea-colored urine

26
Q

Why is a geriatric patient at risk for rhabdomyolysis after a fall?

A

if found down for days = no water being drank

27
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

hunched back (upper spine)

28
Q

What is lordosis?

A

inward curvature of lower spine

29
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

lateral curvature of spine

tx: brace or sx

30
Q

What is gout?

A

gouty arthritis

attack of pain, inflammation, tenderness of joint

bc of uric acid crystal deposits into joint cavity from high uric acid levels in blood

31
Q

How is gout treated?

A

chronic gout: allopurinol (hard on kidneys)
acute gout: PO steroids, NSAIDs, colchicine

32
Q

What are the assessment findings of gout?

A

pain
tenderness
redness/warmth
limited ROM
high purine diet (rich person’s diet)

33
Q

What is important to remember when treating post op patients?

A

pain and trauma from sx can increase serum blood glucose

34
Q

What is Buck’s traction? When is it done?

A

weight pulls leg straight
before sx

35
Q

What are considerations for post-op THA pts?

A

avoid bending hip past 90 degrees
no crossing legs
no making figure 4s
abduction pillow

36
Q

What is Cauda Equina Syndrome?

A

bilateral lower extremity pain, weakness, and sensory/motor deficits

bladder/bowel incontinence (hallmark symptoms)

emergency bc if left untreated = permanent

37
Q

What is used after a total knee arthroplasty? What should one be cautious when using?

A

CPM machine (continuous passive motion machine)

cautious: deep tissue injury or pressure injuries
- make sure areas are padded

38
Q

What is a hemovac drain?

A

pulls blood out of joint to prevent hemarthrosis which can lead to hematoma

39
Q

What are used after a total shoulder arthroplasty?

A

Donjoy or shoulder sling

40
Q

What is phantom limb pain? What is the tx?

A

pain in area where there is a missing limb

tx: mirror therapy (helps brain come to terms)

41
Q

What is an external fixator? How is it cleaned?

A

pins and screws above and below fracture to provide stabilization

clean around pins

42
Q

What is a laminectomy?

A

removes lamina to decompress the spine

43
Q

What is a spinal fusion?

A

joining to or more vertebrae to relieve pain/discomfort

44
Q

What is a discectomy?

A

removal of herniated disc to relieve pressure on compressed nerve

45
Q

What are nursing considerations for post op spine sx pts?

A

dural tear = pt lies flat 12-24 hrs
logrolling to prevent twisting spine
always have brace before getting out of bed

46
Q

Cranial nerve II

A

2
optic nerve (vision)

47
Q

Cranial nerve V

A

5
trochlear nerve (chew)

48
Q

Cranial nerve VII

A

7
facial (smiling)

49
Q

Cranial nerve IX
Cranial nerve X

A

9 glossopharyngeal
10 vagus

(swallow)

50
Q

What is a cerebrovascular accident? What are the types?

A

stroke

Hemorrhagic stroke (build up of pressure)
- intracerebral hemorrhage
- subarachnoid hemorrhage

Ischemic stroke
- thrombotic stroke (caused by atherosclerosis)
- embolic stroke (screen for smoking - afib)
- watershed stroke

51
Q

What medications are used to prevent CVA?

A

heparin
enoxaparin
lovenox

52
Q

Why does taking birth control put a pt at risk for a clot?

A

estrogen increases clotting factors

53
Q

What electrolyte imbalances cause deep tendon reflexes?

A

calcium and magnesium

hyper: hyporeflexia
hypo: hyperreflexia

54
Q

What gait is seen in cerebral palsy?

A

scissored gait

55
Q

What is foot drop?

A

peroneal nerve injury, happens after hip or knee sx

can be seen in bed bound pts

56
Q

What is menigitis?

A

inflammation of membranes in brain

s/s: nuchal rigidity, fever, pain, photophobia, N/V

dx: lumbar puncture

precautions: droplet

57
Q

How can you test for menigitis?

A

assess neck mobility
Brudzinski’s sign: knees come up when neck is up
Kernig’s sign: pain when legs straight

58
Q

Describe epidural and subdural hematoma

A

epidural: above dura mater (fast bleed)
subdural: below dura mater (slow bleed)

59
Q

What is a consequence with increased intracranial pressure?

A

brain death
- anisocoria
- pupils blown

60
Q

How can ICP be decreased?

A

craniectomy (skull flap taken to relieve pressure)
hypertonic IV fluids - 3% NaCl