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CCC Quiz 3 > QUIZ 3 > Flashcards

QUIZ 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Joint operations are based around Unified action which is made of

A
  • US joint forces
  • Multinational forces
  • Intergovernmental organization
  • Private sector and others
  • NGO
  • US gov Department and agencies
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2
Q

Joint aspects of warfare include:

A 
•	Traditional 
 - - Nation states fight
 - - Populace are not belligerents
 - - Results = win, lose, or stalemate
•	Irregular warfare
 - - State and non-state actors
 - - Protracted conflicts
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3
Q

Traditional principals of war + (legitimacy, perseverance, restraint) =

A

= principles of joint operations

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4
Q

Traditional principals of war

A
  • Mass
  • Objective
  • Unity of command
  • Security
  • Economy of force
  • Maneuver
  • Offensive
  • Surprise
  • Simplicity
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5
Q

The joint levels of war

A
  • Strategic - ends
  • Operational level - ways
  • Tactical level - means
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6
Q

Joint levels of wars: what are Ends (Strategic)

A

Ends: Strategic level involves national policy and theater strategy

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7
Q

Joint levels of wars: what are Ways (Operational level)

A

Ways: Operational level involves campaigns and major operations

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8
Q

Joint levels of wars: what are Means (tactical level)

A

Means: Tactical level involves battles, engagements, small unit and crew actions

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9
Q

who runs the various joint levels of war?

  • Strategic
  • Operational level
  • tactical level
A

Strategic level run by: president, sec def, CJCS, Combatant commanders
Operational level is run by Joint task force commanders, CORPS
Tactical level is run by Division, Brigades, Battalions, small units

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10
Q

What are the combatantant commands?

A
  • Africa command
  • Central command
  • Cyber command
  • European command
  • Indo-pacific command
  • Northern command
  • Southern command
  • Special operations command
  • Strategic command
  • Transportation command
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11
Q

Joint tasks forces are organized to:

A
  • Accomplish missions with specific limited objectives and which do not require centralized control of logistics.
  • JTF may have a geographical functional basis
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12
Q

what is the role of EAB med units?

A

EAB med units: provide roles of care greater than what is available organically in a BCT and or same level role of care to non-BCT units w/o organic med assets

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13
Q

EAB units: Medical Command DS: level and purpose

A

Medical Command (DS) – one per theater 2 star command

  • Regional and strategically focused
  • ID and eval health care requirements
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14
Q

EAB units: Medical Brigade (support) : level and purpose

A

Medical Brigade (support) – one per 2-6 subordinate BN or like units such as CHS or hospital center – COL command

  • C2 for all assigned and attached units
  • EAB AHS support to tactical commanders
  • Composition is METT-C driven
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15
Q

EAB units: Medical Battalion (Multifunctional) : level and purpose

A

Medical Battalion (Multifunctional) – one per 3-6 subordinate company/detachment sized unit – LTC command

  • Subordinate to MEDBDE (SPT)
  • EAB AHS support to tactical commanders
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16
Q

BSMC vs MCAS

A
  • BSMC: brigade support Medical Company
    o 8/10 medical functions (no vet or hospitalization)
    oo Role is to provide medical care to BCT
  • MCAS: medical company area support
    o 6/10 medical functions (no vet, hospitalizations, PVNT med, medlog)
    oo Role is to support/augment other elements
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17
Q

define MEDEVAC

A

MEDEVAC: multifaceted mission, accomplished by combining air and ground evac platforms under GENEVA with dedicated markings

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18
Q

Goals of MEDEVAC:

A
  • Minimize mortality
  • Continuum of care
  • Force multiplier
  • Builds morale
  • En route medical care
  • Economy of force
  • Connectivity of the AHS
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19
Q

what is CSAR:

A

CSAR: combat search and rescure

  • TTP’S performed by air force and navy to recover pax from hostile environment
  • Armed aircraft and NOT protected under Geneva convention
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20
Q

waht is CASEVAC:

A

CASEVAC: evac w nonstandard platform

- No red cross – no Geneva protection

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21
Q

what are the MEDEVAC planning considerations?

A

MEDEVAC Planning considerations

  • M: mission integration and support of ground forces (tactical support)
  • E: estimate of casualties and roles of care
  • D: dedicated assets by type, location, and capability
  • E: evacuation routes (air/ground)
  • V: verify all units understands the MEDEVAC plan
  • A: AXP, CCP, HLZ
  • C: commo plan (PACE)
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22
Q

who establishes the theater evacuation policy?

A
  • Established by the SEC DEF with advice from Joint Chief of Staff
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23
Q

what does the theater evacuation policy establish?

A
  • Establishes: length in days of max period of non-effectiveness that pts may be held w/in theater
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24
Q

intra vs inter theater evacuation?

A

Intra-theater evac – within the theater

Inter-theater evac – outside of the theater

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25
Q

who is the approval authority for air medevac?

A

Evac – medical authority for launch is approved by the Surgeon cell (or PECC) – determines air or ground;

Air evac requires launch authority from the TF Aviation commander – tracking mission, crew concerns, air threat, weather

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26
Q

core competencies of SOF?

A
  • Special warfare: long duration operations in denied areas – train, advise and assist host nation and build indigenous warfighting capacity
  • Surgical strike: unilateral, scalable, direction action
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27
Q

what does ARSOF offer during LSCO operations?

A
  1. Provide SOF/Indigenous intel to support maneuver
  2. Integrate IO efforts with CFLCC
  3. Support Population resource control efforts
  4. Conduct disruption/sabotage in deep area
  5. Conduct counter-SOF operations and precision strike against enemy networks
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28
Q

what are the principles of training?

A
  • train as you fight
  • train to standard
  • train to sustain
  • train to maintain
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29
Q

what is the commanders role in training?

A
  • Develop and communicate clear vision
  • Personally engage in training
  • Demand that training standards are achieved
  • Foster a pos training culture
  • Limit training distractions
  • Enforce top down/bottom up approach
  • Meld leader and Soldier training into collective tx event
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30
Q

what is the leaders role in training?

A
  • Mentor subordinate leaders
  • Guide subordinate leaders
  • Challenge subordinate’s knowledge and skills
  • Develop cohesive and effective teams
  • Ensure quality tx occurs so that training standards are achieved
  • Officers: responsible for collective tx
  • NCO’s responsible for Soldier Tx
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31
Q

roles of leaders in training

A
  • commanders manage training
  • Officers: collective training and leader training
  • NCO’s: Soldier training and Leader training
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32
Q

what is the TLP process?

A

the process planning at the company level and below

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33
Q

what are the TLP planning factors?

A
  1. Receive the mission
  2. Issue the warno
  3. Make a tentative plan
  4. Initiate movement
  5. Conduct recon
  6. Complete the plan
  7. Supervise and refine
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34
Q

MDMP and TLPs common planning concepts:

A
  1. Prepare the UTP calendar
  2. Time management cycle
  3. Higher unit training event
  4. Unit training event
  5. ID TRNG OBJ for each TRN event
  6. Backward planning using C-W-R methodology
  7. Consider the training environment
  8. Program time for subordinate units to train
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35
Q

8 step training model:

A
  1. Plan the training event
  2. Train and certify leaders
  3. Recon training sites
  4. Issue the event OPORD
  5. Rehearse
  6. Execute the training
  7. Conduct an AAR
  8. Conduct retraining
    Do it all again
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36
Q

MDMP steps

A
  1. Receipt of the mission
    a. Gather supporting references and tx resources
  2. Mission analysis
    a. OE
    b. METs to train
    c. Tx readiness issue
    d. Long range planning horizon
  3. COA development
  4. COA analysis (war game)
  5. COA comparison
  6. COA approval
  7. Orders production, dissemination and transition
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37
Q

Mission analysis is conducted by the unit commander to:

A
  • Understand the guidance given by higher commander
  • Determine how the unit can best support guidance
  • Initiate collaborative and parallel planning processes w/in the command
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38
Q

Mission analysis identifies:

A
  • The collective tasks on which a unit should focus its training
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39
Q

Analysis of training: the commander should:

A
  • ID and understand potential OEs
  • Determine the METs to train
  • Assess the METs to train
  • ID the long-range planning horizon
  • ID training readiness issues
  • Conduct back brief to higher commander
  • Issue WARNORD
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40
Q

Operational environment: Static definition

A
  • Operational variables needed to stimulate mission variables that are fixed through the units execution of task
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41
Q

Operational environment: dynamic definition

A
  • Operational variables and treat TTP for assigned counter task that change in response to the execution of friendly force tasks
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42
Q

Operational environment: complex definition

A
  • Min 4: terrain, time, military (threat), and social (population) or more operational variables
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43
Q

Operational environment: single threat

A
  • Conventional force, irregular force, criminal element, or terrorist
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44
Q

Operational environment: Hybrid

A
  • Diverse and dynamic combination of conventional forces, irregular force, terrorist forces and criminal elements unified to achieve mutually benefitting effects
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45
Q

what does MET stand for?

A

MET: Mission Essential Tasks

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46
Q

types of METs

A
  • Specified tasks (warnord)
  • Implied tasks
  • Essential tasks
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47
Q

TOE vs TDA

A
  • TOE units: proponent developed

- TDA units: commander develop MET

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48
Q

What is a T and EO:

A

document system for Army’s standards of collective tasks, provide evaluators w criteria, even planning resources etc

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49
Q

What is the long-range planning horizon?

A
  • A long range planning horizon covers a unit’s overarching training plan over an extended time (years)
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50
Q

When developing COAs each COA must be:

A
  • Feasible
  • Acceptable (worth the cost)
  • Suitable
  • Distinguishable (not similar to other COA)
  • Complete (no clear gaps)
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51
Q

What is a UTP calendar?

A

Visually defines the time available to train

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52
Q

Training tool for planners when planning UTP calander?

A

CATS planning tool

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53
Q

Green amber red cycle:

A
  • Green: deployable and high level training
  • Amber: individual education and training, maintenance
  • Red: leave, down time, individual task proficiency
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54
Q

What is a training objective?

A
  • A statement that descries the desired outcome of a training activity in the unit
  • Describes the purpose for each training event
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55
Q

How do you ID training objectives?

A

Task, conditions, standards and desired training proficiency

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56
Q

What is the gold standard for training?

A

Live training: field conditions using tactical equipment (gold standard)

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57
Q

What are the type of training?

A
  • Live training
  • virtual training: simulators
  • constructive training: computer models STAFFEX
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58
Q

what are BTE and ITE?

A

BTE vs ITE : blended training environment vs integrated training environment
BTE: unit tx concurrently w/in 2+ training environments, lacks sophisticated integrating technologies that allow different environments
ITE: consistent and continuous LVC training environments to stimulate mission command info systems, uses correlated terrain database

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59
Q

The staff analyzes COAs to:

A 
Identify:
- major resources that require coordination
possible resource shortcomings
- De-conflict scheduling issues
- Decisive points for the CDR
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60
Q

What is the best starting point to understand the resources needed to train the METS?

A

CATS

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61
Q

What provide additional detail regarding resource requirements to train specific collective tasks?

A

T and EOs

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62
Q

Common technique for COA comparison

A

Decision matrix – id strength and weaknesses and help ID highest probability of success

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63
Q

What is briefied in the training briefing?

A
  • Brigade CDR training focus
  • Operational environment
  • BN training guidance
  • Concept of operations
    • Decisive, shaping operations
  • Assessment plans
  • Key resources required to train
  • Training risk (time/resources to train)
  • Training challenges
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64
Q

Where do you get the conditions and standards for Army training?

A

The T and EO document

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65
Q

What are the ratings on T and EO document?

A

T (fully trainied): complete task proficiency
T- (Trained: advanced task proficiency (80%)
P (practiced): basic task proficiency (65-80%)
P- (marginally practiced): limited task proficiency (51-80%)
U (untrained): cannot perform task (less than 50%)

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66
Q

What should training objectives include?

A

Clear, measurable and achievable training objectives are essential to achieving proficiency and quality training

67
Q

Where can you find operational environment information that can be used for building training event?

A

ATN army training network has info

68
Q

Commanders should vary aspects of the training environment to enhance the training effect . what are some options for this?

A
  • Role players
  • Limited visibility
  • Varied terrain and enemy
  • Unfamiliar training areas
69
Q

How do commanders gain true assessment of capabilities?

A
  • Tough, realistic conditions

- Commanders gain true assessment of their units ability to perform task given tough, realistic conditions

70
Q

Where can you find ideas for the resources need for training?

A

CATS: combined arms training strategies and historical data are start points for identifying resources

71
Q

What is T week?

A
  • The week of execution

- Planners use this method to backwards plan and ensure that all resources etc are achieved at appropriate times

72
Q

Using the Training OPORD the commander identifies?

A
  • Tasks to be trained
  • Training objectives
  • Clear mission statement
  • The scope of training
  • How training will be conducted
73
Q

Who is the certifying official for trainer certification?

A

The commander

74
Q

Types of AARs

A

Formal reviews –

  • internal or external COC
  • prepare for it
  • scheduled

Informal reviews –

  • internal COC
  • simple
  • held at tx site
75
Q

what are the AAR organization techniques?

A
  1. By chronologic order of events
  2. By warfighting functions
  3. By key events
76
Q

How do commanders assess training?

A
  • Evaluations: performance of tasks measured against established standards (TandEO)
  • Assessments: allow LDRS and CDRs to take into account objective and subjective nature of training and develop an overall assessment of the outcomes
77
Q

What is H2F

A

H2F is an enterprise-wide system that combines all aspects of physical and non-physical human performance optimization under a single governance to enable commanders to improve Solder health and fitness for combat

78
Q

What are the aspects of H2F (the pentagon picture)

A
  1. Mental readiness
  2. Sleep readiness
  3. Nutritional readiness
  4. Physical readiness
  5. Spiritual readiness
79
Q

Zones of H2F facilities

A 
Zone 0 – prep/warmup area
Zone 1 – resistance traing
Zone 2 – accessory training
Zone 3 – work capacity/agility training 
Rehabilitation and cognitive performance area
Admin/classroom/team room
80
Q

Planning defintion

A

Planning is the art and science of understanding a situation, envisioning a desired future, and laying out a desired way to bring that future about

81
Q

What does planning synchronize?

A

Actions of forces in time, space and purpose to achieve objectives and accomplish missions

82
Q

What is the result of planning?

A

Results in a Plan or Order – a directive for future action

83
Q

A plan or order is issued by a commander to?

A

To Subordinates which allows them to communicate their understanding of the situation and their visualization of the operation

84
Q

Planning is imperfect, you cannt accurately predict what people will do, so what is the point?

A

The process of planning results in improved situational awareness that facilitates future decision making

85
Q

What is the object of planning? What is it not?

A

Not to eliminate uncertainty but to develop a framework for the action in the midst of such uncertainty

86
Q

Effective planning includes (key components)

A
  • Identifying decision points
  • Developing branch plans
  • sequela associated with the decisions
87
Q

why do task-organize the force and prioritizing efforts?

A
  • The act of configuring and operating force, support staff or sustainment package of certain size and composition to meet a unique task
88
Q

what are the types of army planning methodologies?

A
  • Army Design
  • MDMP
  • TLP’s
89
Q

Army planning methodologies: Amy Design steps

A
  • Frame an operational environment
  • Frame the problem
  • Develop operational approach to solve the problem
  • Develop the plan
90
Q

Army planning methodologies: MDMP steps

A
  • Receipt of mission
  • Mission analysis
  • COA development
  • COA analysis
  • COA approval
  • Orders production, dissemination and transition
91
Q

Army planning methodologies: TLP steps

A
  • Receive the mission
  • Issue the WARNO
  • Make a tentative plan
  • Initiate movement
  • Conduct reconnaissance
  • Complete the plan
  • Issue the plan
  • Supervise and refine
92
Q

Army planning methodologies: When do you use the Army design methodology?

A
  • Ill structured problems that are complex, non-linear and dynamic
93
Q

Army planning methodologies: the army design methodology results in?

A
  • Improved understanding of the OE, a problem statement, initial CDRs intent and the Operational Approach
94
Q

Army Planning methodologies: what are TLPs used for?

A
  • Medium and well-structure problems
95
Q

Army Planning methodologies: what do TLPs result in?

A
  • Effective and efficient use of available time to issue orders and execute tactical operation
96
Q

When are TLP’s used?

A
  • Company-level and small units – they lack staffs so they use TLPs
97
Q

What does MDMP provide?

A
  • Facilitates collaborative planning
  • Drives preparation (MVNT, IC)
  • Provides details for the operational approach
98
Q

MDMP: the iterative planning methodology is used to?

A
  • Understated the situation and mission
  • Develop a COA
  • Produce an operation plan or order
99
Q

Medical treatment planning considerations

A
  • What units provide role 1, role 2
  • What troop med facilities are available in relation to troop concentration
  • Medical ROE
  • Security available?
100
Q

Medical evac planning considerations

A
  • Enemy’s most likely COA and weather
  • MEDEVAC running estimate
  • Expected areas of patient density
  • Available of evac resources
  • Road networks etc
  • MEDROE
  • Security
  • Lines of drift
  • CASEVAC augmentation
101
Q

Who establishes the theater evacuation policy timeline?

A
  • Established by SECDEF with recommendation by theater CDR
102
Q

Where does time start with the theater evacuation policy?

A
  • Time starts at the role 3
103
Q

What is the theater evacuation policy?

A
  • Establishes the length in days of the maximum period of non-effectiveness (hospitalization and convalescence) that patients may be held w/in theater for tx
104
Q

MDMP step 1: receipt of mission

Purpose of receipt of mission step

A
  • Alerts all participants of pending planning requirements
  • Enables staff to determine time requirements and planning approach
  • Informs CDR to proceed with ADM or abbreviate MDMP
105
Q

When do commanders initiate MDMP?

A
  • Upon receipt or in anticipation of MDMP
106
Q

Receipt of mission process:

A
  • Alert the staff and key participants
  • Gather tools
  • Update running estimates
  • Conduct initial assessment
  • Issue CDRs internal guidance
  • Issue warno
107
Q

What is a “running estimate”?

A
  • The continuous assessment of the current situation used to determine the current operation is proceeding according to the CDRs intent and if planned future operations are supportable
108
Q

What are some elements of running estimate?

A
  • Friendly status
  • TASK (specified, implied, essential)
  • Facts
  • Assumptions
  • Risk
  • Constraints/shortfalls
  • RFIs
  • Recommendations
  • Enemy Capabilities
  • Civil considerations
109
Q

What determines the detail in which the commander and staff can plain?

A
  • Time (1/3, 2/3 rule)
110
Q

what at a minimum needs to be in the WARNORD?

A
  • Type of operation
  • General location
  • Initial timeline
  • Movement or information collection to initiate
111
Q

Purpose of mission analysis:

A
  • Since no amount of subsequent planning can solve an insufficiently understood problem, mission analysis is the most important step in MDMP
112
Q

Mission analysis guides us to:

A
  • Better understand the situation and problem
  • ID what command must accomplish
  • Determine where and when it must be done
  • The WHY of the mission
113
Q

Mission analysis: input

A
  • Higher HQ plan/order
  • Higher HQ intelligence and knowledge products
  • Knowledge products from other organizations
  • Updated running estimates
  • Design concept (if design precedes mission analysis)
114
Q

Mission analysis: process

A
  • Analyze HQ plan/order
  • Perform IPB
    determine specified, implied, essential tasks
  • Review assets/constraints
  • Id critical facts and assumptions
  • Risk management
  • CCIR and EEFIs
  • Develop initial themes and messages
  • Purpose problem statement
  • Mission statement
  • CDRs intent
  • COA
  • WARNO
115
Q

Mission analysis: output

A
  • Approved problem statement
  • Approved mission statement
  • Initial CDR intent
  • Initial CCIRs and EEFIs
  • Commanders planning guidance
  • Updated IPB products and running estimates
  • Assumptions
  • COA evaluation criteria
  • WARNO 2

i dont know about you but this brings back really bad memories

116
Q

What is IPB?

A
  • Intelligence preparation of the battlefield
117
Q

What is the purpose of IPB

A
  • Id critical gaps in CDRs knowledge of OE

- Collaboration with other staff sections

118
Q

IPB collaboration with the staff will result in (products):

A
  • Initial PIR
  • Complete MCOO
  • List HVTs
  • Event template and matrices
119
Q

IPB process

A
  • define the OE
  • describe the environmental effects of the operation
  • evaluate the threat
  • determine the COA
120
Q

What is MCOO?

A
  • Modified Combined Obstacle Overlay – natural and manmade obstacles
121
Q

Cyberspace network identifiers

A
  • Red: enemy/adversary network
  • Grey: neutral network
  • Blue: friendly force network
122
Q

Where are specified tasks found?

A
  • Primarily found it Paragraph 2 and 3 of higher orders

- Some are in paragraph 4 and 5 and also some in the annexes

123
Q

Essential tasks are:

A
  • Always included in the units mission statement
  • Can be specified or implied
  • No fail requirement
124
Q

BPT vs O/O mission?

A

BPT: be prepared to - generally a contingency

O/O: on orders - mission at an unspecified time, has a trigger

125
Q

What is a constraint?

A
  • A restriction placed on the CDR by higher command

- Will dictate action or inaction thus restriction freedom of action

126
Q

Where are constraints found in the OPORD?

A
  • Paragraph 3 and the annexes

- May also be verbal

127
Q

Facts vs assumptions

A
  • Facts don’t care about feeling; JK keep reading
  • Fact: statement of truth concerning operational and mission variables
  • Assumption: supposition of current/future events – assumed to be true
128
Q

Categories of assumptions

A
  • Credible assumptions – should guide feelings
  • Uncertain assumptions – should be researched further
  • Vulnerable assumptions – should be reconsidered
129
Q

How is the risk assessment documented?

A
  • Recorded on DD 2977
130
Q

Who is responsible for making the risk assessment?

A
  • Each staff produces the risk assessment associated w their WfF
  • the CDR is overall responsible for assuming the risk
131
Q

characteristics of CCIR and EEFI?

A
  • Specified by CDR for a specific operation
  • Applies only to the CDR who specifies it
  • Time sensitive and will change with conditions
132
Q

What is ICP?

A
  • Information collection plan

- sets reconnaissance, surveillance and intelligence operations in motion

133
Q

Where is the ICP located in the OPORD?

A
  • Annex L
134
Q

Who is responsible for the ICP?

A
  • S3 is responsible for the plan

- S2 is responsible for management tools

135
Q

What is a proposed mission statement?

A

developed by the COS or XO

  • 1 or more essential tasks that focus the what and the why
  • Will include a verb (tactical task)
136
Q

What is the purpose of the mission analysis briefing?

A
  • Informs the CDR fo the results of the staff’s analysis of the situation
  • The staff builds a shared understanding which enables the CDR to provide guidance for the COA development
137
Q

What are the 8 steps to COA development process?

A
  • Assess relative combat power
  • Generate options
  • Array forces
  • Develop broad concept
  • Assign hq
  • Prepare COA statements and sketches
  • Conduct COA briefing
  • Select or modify COAs for continued analysis
138
Q

COA development process: statements vs sketches

A
  • Statement: HOW the unit will accomplish mission – brief expression of how combat arms concept will be conducted
    o Describes the mission, intent, decisive operation, shaping operation and sustaining operations
  • Sketch: picture of the movement and maneuver aspects of the concept – including position of forces
139
Q

AHS concept of support (COS) should include

A
  • Maneuver plan
  • HSS/FHP assets available
  • Statement and sketch
  • 10 medical functions
  • Time distance analysis (air/ground)
  • Casualty estimate
  • Shortfalls
140
Q

Medical combat power is a combination of?

A
  • Treatment capacity
  • Evac capacity
  • FHP (fore health protection)
141
Q

What is war-gaming?

A
  • A disciplined process with rules and steps that allows staffs to visualize and analyze the operation – conducted by phases
142
Q

COA analysis war gaming should review?

A
  • Friendly, enemy, and civilian

- Action; Reaction; Counteraction

143
Q

What is the 8 step process of coa analysis?

A
  • Gather tools
  • List friendly forces
  • List assumptions
  • List known critical events and decision points
  • Select war-gaming method
  • Select technique to record and display results
  • War-game the operation and assess the results
  • Conduct a war-game briefing (optional)
144
Q

What are critical events? What do they include?

A
  • Events that directly influence mission accomplishment

- Include trigger events, significant actions or decisions, complicated actions that require study, and essential tasks

145
Q

What are decision points?

A
  • Points in space and time when the commander or staff anticipates making a key decision concerning a specific COA
146
Q

What are the war-gaming methods?

A
  • Belt (preferred):looks at belts, correlates with time
  • Avenue-in-depth: focuses on avenue of approach begins with decisive operation
  • Box: detailed analysis of critical area (time restricted planning)
147
Q

What are the common types of recording results of war-gaming (action 6 of coa analysis)

A
  • Synchronization matrix: allow staff to synchronize the coa across time, space and purpose
  • Sketch note: uses brief notes concerning critical locations or task and purpose
148
Q

What is the MC technique for comparing COAs?

A
  • Decision matrix
149
Q

How does a decision matrix work for coa comparison?

A
  • Criteria are assigned, weights are assigned to the criteria
  • Weights are determined by COS or XO
  • Each COA is assessed
  • Lowest number wins
150
Q

Besides having the lowest number on the decision matrix COA must also be?

A
  • Feasible
151
Q

What is the next step after decision brief approval?

A
  • WARNO – updated with the new plan
152
Q

Difference between reconciliation and crosswalk?

A
  • Reconciliation: makes sure the order agrees with itself, ds discrepancies or gaps
  • Crosswalk: makes sure the plan works with higher HQs order – ids discrepancies or gaps
153
Q

Final action in the “plan and order development” process?

A
  • Approval by commander
154
Q

What happens after plan is approved by CDR?

A
  • Once approval is reached, it is disseminated. Subordinates acknowledge receipt and conduct confirmation briefing.
155
Q

Which annexes are medical planners responsible for?

A
  • Annex E (protection) and Annex F (sustainment)
156
Q

how are command posts organized?

A
  • command post cell
  • functional cell: within the CP, has the WFF in it
  • integration cells: organized by planning horizon
157
Q

how are the staffs structured?

A 
coordinating staff (G/S shops)
special staff (air, EO etc) 
personal staff (surgeon, Chaplin etc)
158
Q

what are the rehearsal types?

A
  • confirmation brief
  • back brief (MDMP process)
  • combine arms rehearsal (maneuver units)
  • support rehearsal (one or more related systems)
  • battle drill/SOP rehearsal: ensure all elements understand
159
Q

what are the rehersal types?

A

one or more of these:

  • full dress
  • key leader
  • terrain model
  • sketch map
  • map
  • network
160
Q

when do you develop a FRAGORD?

A

when there is a change in the OPORD

161
Q

what is RDSP?

A

rapid decision-making synchronization process

162
Q

what are the RDSP steps

A

(rapid decision-making synchronization process)

  • unexpected opportunity/ID variance (variation of the plan)
  • develop a response
  • refine and validate
  • implement
  • execution
  • end state
163
Q

what are the basic principles of LOAC (law of armed conflict)

A

military necessity
unnecessary suffering or humanity
discrimination or distinction
proportionality

164
Q

what are the sources of the law of armed conflict?

A

the Geneva convention
the Hague convention
other international treaties

CCC Quiz 3 (1 decks)

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