Quiz 2 SUPP Flashcards

1
Q

What can happen despite adequate oxygenation?

A

Hypoventilation, hypercapnia and impending respiratory arrest can occur despite adequate oxygenation, particularly during the supplemental administration of O2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

During moderate or deep sedation what do we still have to monitor for?

A

continuously monitor for the presence of expired carbon dioxide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Parts of monitoring ventilation Continuously

A

Verify intubation of the trachea

Auscultate bilateral breath sounds

Observe chest excursion

Confirm presence of carbon dioxide in the expired gas.

Continuously monitor end-tidal carbon dioxide during controlled or assisted ventilation.

Use spirometry and ventilatory pressure monitors as indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does chest movement not do?

A

Chest movement does not confirm ventilation, just the attempt for spontaneous ventilation. Obstructed patient will still have chest movement.

Condensation in the airway device
Does not show adequacy

Presence of airway movement does not assure adequate gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Positioning for precordial stethoscope

A

Heavy bell-shaped piece of metal placed over the chest or suprasternal notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Two types of ETC02 sampling and what do we use today?

A

Mainstream/Non-diverting

Sidestream/Diverting- This is what we use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Normal/abnormal capnography waveforms

A

Slide 36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the other gas analyzers

A

Multiple gas analyzers:

Continual analysis of inhaled and exhaled
concentrations of respiratory and anesthetic gases.

Useful during inhalation anesthetic.

No contraindications to use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The SRNA as Clinical monitor of patient breathing: Slide 56:

What are the ongoing assessments used to evaluate?

A

Adequacy of patient’s airway

Depth of anesthesia

Titrate anesthetic agents to effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What doesn’t the ECG monitor do?

A

It is not a measure of heart function. You may have normal ECG complexes on the monitor with no effective cardiac output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which type of blockade also impairs thermoregulation?

A

Regional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is it harder to do in regards to thermoregulation?

A

Catch back up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fasciculations

A

Succs depolarizes and does not let go = fasciculationd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are Clinical considerations for evoked potentials?

A

Evoked potentials are altered by many variables other than neural damage.

General anesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

An unexpected increase in end-tidal CO2 is the most sensitive sign of what process?

A

Malignant Hyperthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of medications are associated with the highest risk of altering normothermia intraoperatively?

A

Gas Anesthetics

17
Q

What is the primary way to avoid hypothermia postoperatively?

A

Prevention

18
Q

What are the three main branches of thermoregulation?

A

Afferent sensing, central regulation, efferent response

19
Q

What can alter the central regulation threshold the most?

A

Patients under general anesthesia lose hypothalamus control

20
Q

If a patients MPAP is 18 mmHg, PAOP is 6 mmHg, and CO is 5 L/min, what is the PVR?

A

PVR=[(MPAP-PAOP) / CO] x 80

21
Q

Where is the correct place to draw from for an SVO2 reading?

A

Distal Port PAC

22
Q

A patient’s heart rate is 80 bpm and SV is 70ml/ beat. What is their cardiac output?

A

CO L/min = 80 X 70 → 5,600 ml or 5.6L

23
Q

A patient has aortic stenosis, what factor does this affect within cardiac output and what are our goals intraoperatively?

A

Afterload, they do NOT tolerate hypotension well. We must maintain SVR treat with alpha agonist and cardiac output.

24
Q

All of theses cause decrease in systemic vascular resistance except?

A

Hypovolemia

25
Which of the following is not a contraindication for TEE monitoring?
Poor Oral Dentition
26
Appearance of RWMA (regional wall motion abnormality) on TEE during surgery has been shown to be a more sensitive indicator for an MI.
True
27
What is the purpose of TEE monitoring?
a. Diagnosis of Cardiac Pathologies b. Real time movement of cardiac chambers and valves c. Assessment of hemodynamics d. All of the above
28
During a pre-operative assessment you see your patient had a pre-op TEE, which of the following ejection fractions would be most concerning for induction?
The lowest EF
29
List three risks associated with use of an A-line.
Infection Thrombus formation Hematoma Vasospasm
30
What is the most common cause of an overdampened arterial waveform?
Bent extremity
31
How often should blood pressure be checked during induction?
Every 1 minute according to Nagelhout | Every 5 minute is AANA standard
32
How big should a blood pressure cuff be in relation to extremity circumference?
40%
33
What is the name of the initial long upstroke in an arterial line waveform?
Anacrotic limb