Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MS-I SFM > Quiz 2 > Flashcards

Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

describe what occurs at the G2/M transition

A

activated cdc25 activates the CDK1/cyclinB complex
complex translocates to the nucleus to initiate formation of the mitotic spindle
activated anaphase promoting complex destroys CDK1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

RNA mutation that changes the amino acid resulting to either little to no effect on protein function or vastly different function

A

missense mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how does diphtheria toxin affect eukaryotic translation?

A

inactivates GTP bound EF-2, inhibiting ribosomal translocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

proteins sorted via the cytoplasmic pathway are destined for which locations?

A

cytosol, mitochondria, nucleus, peroxisome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what results from a pathologic increase of mast cells?where would this increase occur? what symptoms does this cause?

A

mastocytosis
mainly in the skin
itchiness, hives, anaphylactic shock caused by release of histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

t/f

NK cell receptors are not capable of generating immunologic memory

A

t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

stimulates cGMP phosphodiesterase
which ligands bind to this receptor and what effects do they have?

Gs
Gt
Gi
Gq

dopamine
histamine
norepinephrine
acetylcholine
epinephrine
light
A

Gt
light
vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what disease is an example of missense mutation?

sickle cell anemia
DMD

A

sickle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

protein is synthesized with a serine, lysine, and leucine attached. where is it headed and which pathway is it using to get there?

A

peroxisome

cytoplasmic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

plays a role in DNA binding

alkylating agents
intercalating agents
antimetabolites
mitostatic agents
platinum derivatives
A

platinum derivatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe the function and operation of Ras-dependent RTK pathways

A

Ras activated in consequence to ligand binding to RTK (Ras-GTP)
Changes in protein activity/gene expression achieved via the MAPK cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

induces a structural change capable of breaking DNA molecules

alkylating agents
intercalating agents
antimetabolites
mitostatic agents
platinum derivatives
A

intercalating agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

activates phospholipase C
which ligands bind to this receptor and what effects do they have?

Gs
Gt
Gi
Gq

dopamine
histamine
norepinephrine
acetylcholine
epinephrine
light
A

Cq
acetylcholine
bronchoconstriction
+salivary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

t/f

NK cells are antigen specific

A

f

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

increase in eosinophil count (>500 cells/uL)

A

eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PTM target
detects post translational modifications on proteins

northern
southern
eastern
western

A

eastern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

acetylation typically occurs on which amino acid residue?

A

lysine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how do clindamycin and erythromycin affect translation in bacteria?

A

bind to the 50s subunit of the ribosome, preventing translocation of the ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

protein leaves the golgi and is meant to be secreted. what would the translocation signal be for this protein?

A

tryptophan rich region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

protein is synthesized with an n-terminal hydrophobic alpha helix. where is it headed and which pathway is it using to get there?

A

mitochondria

cytoplasmic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

There were 46 camels in the desert. Everyone went number 2 when the Sun came up. After that, the Sun went down, and all but one had given a shit.

A

Cdk 4/6 :: Cyclin D :: G1
Cdk 2 :: Cyclin E :: G1-S
Cdk 2 :: Cyclin A :: S-G2
Cdk 1 :: Cyclin B :: G2-M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

RNA mutation that causes early termination

A

nonsense mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

NK cells undergo differentiation where?

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how does nitric oxide (NO) affect the GPCR?

A

activates guanylate cyclase directly

results in activation of cGMP = smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

can be structural analogs of purines or pyrimidines
block the synthesis of corresponding bases or folate analogs

alkylating agents
intercalating agents
antimetabolites
mitostatic agents
platinum derivatives
A

antimetabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

protein leaves the golgi apparatus with an apolar region near the n-terminus. where is it headed and what is this pathway called?

A

cell membrane

secretory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the result of cGMP phosphodiesterase inhibition? what drugs utilize this inhibition?

A

+cGMP
smooth muscle relaxation
vasodilation
ED drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

disulfide bond formation typically occurs between two of which amino acid residues?

A

cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how do lipophilic signals transmit their messages to target cells? give an example of this type of signal (draw it out)

A

signal molecules diffuse directly across the membrane into the cell. Can attach to cytosolic receptors of nuclear receptors that activate various transcription factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how do Shiga toxin and ricin affect eukaryotic translation?

A

bind to 60s subunit and block entry of aminoacyl tRNA (elongation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what type of cell represents the most abundant population of spherical white cells?

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

key marker for NK cells?

A

CD56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are two ways the cell cycle can be arrested after DNA damage during G1 phase?

A

slow: p53 > p21 > (-) cdk4/6;cyclinD
fast: chk2 > (-) cdc25 > (-) cycE/cdk2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how does chloramphenicol affect translation in bacteria?

A

inhibits peptidyl transferanse, thus impairing peptide bond formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

protein leaves the golgi apparatus with mannose-6-phostphate attached. where is it headed and what is this pathway called?

A

lysosome

secretory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

type of signal that is transported via the blood. long distance, long lasting, freely diffusing. give an example of this signaling (draw it out)

A

endocrine

epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

protein target
measures amount of protein or antibody

northern
southern
eastern
western

A

western

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

DNA target
determines which restriction fragments are associated with a gene

northern
southern
eastern
western

A

southern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

type of signal where the signal binds to the signaling cell which also binds to the receptor of the targeted cell. give an example of this type of signaling (draw it out)

A 
juxtacrine
immune cells (MHC complex)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

RNA mutation that does not change the amino acid

A

silent mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

elevated WBC count (>11000 cells/uL) is known as? what is the most common form of this condition?

A

leukocytosis

neutrophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

expansion of CAG repeats
abnormal protein folding, aggregation leading to selective death of cells in basal ganglia

Alzheimer’s
Parkinson’s
Huntington’s
Crutzfeldt-Jacob

A

huntingon’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

monocytes arise from myeloid precursor cells where?

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

describe the primary function of myeloid DCs (mDCs)

A

antigen presentation to T-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

describe how receptor tyrosine kinases work

A

ligand binds to ECD, causing RTK dimerization
tyrosine residues in ICD phosphorylated
SH2 domain of Grb2 binds to the phosphotyrosines
triggers phosphorylation of protein targets (RAS-dependent/RAS-independent)

46
Q

what is the signal to return back to the ER? what amino acids are in this sequence?

A

KDEL

lysine, aspartate, glutamate, leucine

47
Q

describe the primary function of mast cells, basophils and eosinophils

A

helminthe response

allergic response

48
Q

how does cholera affect the GPCR? which subtype of GPCR is affected?

A

keeps the Gs alpha subunit activated (GTP bound)
results in constant adenylate cyclase stimulation = cAMP over production
opens Cl- channels = loss of electrolytes/water = diarrhea

49
Q

plaques formed by misfolding/aggregation of amyloid beta peptide (AB)

Alzheimer’s
Parkinson’s
Huntington’s
Crutzfeldt-Jacob

A

Alzheimer’s

50
Q

how do hydrophilic signals transmit their messages to target cells? give an example of this type of signal (draw it out)

A

bind to surface receptors that trigger cascade events within the cell via second messengers which have various targets
insulin, glucagon, epinephrine

51
Q

type of signal that targets neighboring cells of a different type. local and short lived. give an example of this type of signaling (draw it out)

A

paracrine

testosterone

52
Q

what is the restriction point during the cell cycle, describe what happens that makes this such an irreversible step.

A

G1>S phase transition
Rb is bound to E2F during G1 phase
hyperphosphorylation of Rb/E2F by cyclin/cdk complex E/2 causes E2F release
E2F triggers release of more E2F and more cyclin E production, creating a positive amplification loop

53
Q

proteins sorted via the secretory pathway are destined for which locations?

A

ER, lysosomes, plasma membrane, secretion

54
Q

what is the function of cdc25 in the cell cycle? how does it achieve this function?

A

activates cyclin/cdk complexes by dephosphorylating two of the three phosphorylated sites on the complex

55
Q

glycosylation typically occurs on which parts amino acid residues?

A

serine (o-linked)
threonine (o-linked)
asparagine (n-linked)

56
Q

one or two additions or deletions would result in which sort of RNA mutation?

A

frameshift

57
Q

protein is synthesized with a region with basic followed by hydrophobic amino acids. where is it headed and which pathway is it using to get there?

A

ER

secretory

58
Q

what are the primary roles of macrophages recruited by inflammatory events?

A

mediating inflammatory response

repairing collateral damage

59
Q

cooperates with the Rb protein

p21
p27
p16

A

p16

60
Q

patient with I-cell disease presents with accumulation of lysosomal enzymes in the plasma. this is due to defective tagging with which signaling region?

A

mannose-6-phosphate

61
Q

describe how a GPCR functions (draw it out)

A

ligand binds to ECD
conformational change in GPCR
ICD activates G-protein on the alpha subunit (GDP —> GTP)
activated G-alpha separates and activated or inhibits effector molecule
effector molecule produces secondary messengers

62
Q

key markers for B cells?

A

CD19

CD20

63
Q

how does tetracycline affect translation in bacteria

A

binds to the 30s subunit of the ribosome, blocking entry of tRNA, thus impairing elongation

64
Q

describe the primary function of plasmacytoid DCs (pDCs)

A

IFN-production

65
Q

RNA target
measures size and quantities of mRNA (gene expression)

northern
southern
eastern
western

A

northern

66
Q

aggregation of alpha-synuclein protein (deposit as Lewy bodes in dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra)
symptoms arise d/t lack of available dopamine

Alzheimer’s
Parkinson’s
Huntington’s
Crutzfeldt-Jacob

A

parkinson’s

67
Q

where are mast cells differentiated?

A

in the tissue

68
Q

inhibit tubulin synthesis

alkylating agents
intercalating agents
antimetabolites
mitostatic agents
platinum derivatives
A

mitostatic agents

69
Q

type of signal where secreting cells also express receptors for the signal. give an example of this type of signaling (draw it out)

A

autocrine

interleukin-1 (chemokines)

70
Q

hyperphosphorylation of Tau

Alzheimer’s
Parkinson’s
Huntington’s
Crutzfeldt-Jacob

A

Alzheimer’s

71
Q

why should patients taking nitroglycerine and nitrates NOT take drugs that inhibit cGMP PDE? what are examples of these drugs?

A

nitroglycerine and nitrates decompose to form NO which acts to help lower BP.
cGMP PDE inhibition results in accumulation of cGMP, which causes vasodilation and smooth muscle reaction
this combination could cause deadly drop in BP

72
Q

what are the two main differences between mast cells and basophils?

A

mast cells are bigger

basophils circulate in the blood, mature mast cells only exist in tissues

73
Q

induced by p53 tumor suppressor
cell-cycle arrest after DNA damage

p21
p27
p16

A

p21

74
Q

this receptor stimulates adenylate cylclase
which ligands bind to this receptor and what effects do they have?

Gs
Gt
Gi
Gq

dopamine
histamine
norepinephrine
acetylcholine
epinephrine
light
A 
Gs
1) epinephrine
relaxation of smooth muscle (bronchial and intestinal)
constriction of cardiac muscle
\+glycolysis
\+TAG breakdown
\+glycogenolysis
2) histamine
bronchoconstriction and allergy symptoms
75
Q

crosslinks DNA chains
denaturing DNA macromolecules

alkylating agents
intercalating agents
antimetabolites
mitostatic agents
platinum derivatives
A

alkylating agents

76
Q

how does the pertussis affect the GPCR? which subtype of GPCR is affected?

A

prevents the Gi-alpha subunit from being activated
results in decreased inhibition of adenylate cyclase = overproduction of cAMP
loss of fluids in airway epithelial cells an excessive mucous production

77
Q

describe the stages of carcinogenesis

A

initiation>promotion>progression

78
Q

how does cyclohexamide affect eukaryotic translation?

A

prevents peptide bond formation

79
Q

what disease is an example of frameshift mutation?

sickle cell anemia
DMD

A

DMD

80
Q

protein is synthesized with a lysine and arginine rich region. where is it headed and which pathway is it using to get there?

A

nucleus

cytoplasmic

81
Q

where does the development and maturation of B-cells occur?

A

bone marrow and spleen

82
Q

what is the role of CDK1/cyclin B during the cell cycle? what activates it? what stops its activity?

A

initiates mitotic spindle assembly
CDC25
activated anaphase promoting complex.

83
Q

deficient WBC count (<4000 cells/uL) is known as? what is the most common form of this condition?

A

leukopenia

neutropenia

84
Q

cell arrest in response to growth suppressors (TGF-B) and in contact inhibition and differentiation

p21
p27
p16

A

p27

85
Q

inhibits adenylate cyclase
which ligands bind to this receptor and what effects do they have?

Gs
Gt
Gi
Gq

dopamine
histamine
norepinephrine
acetylcholine
epinephrine
light
A 
Gi
1) epinephrine/norepinephrine
constriction of smooth muscle
2) dopamine
increased HR
86
Q

where does the development and maturation of T-cells occur?

A

thymus

87
Q

what is the primary function of NK cells? how exactly do they achieve this function?

A

recognize self vs non-self

great for finding cancer

88
Q

misfolding of prion proteins

Alzheimer’s
Parkinson’s
Huntington’s
Crutzfeldt-Jacob

A

Crutzfeldt-jacob

89
Q

what is the typical neutrophil lifespan once released in the blood? how about after entering inflammatory tissues?

A

a few days tops

1-2 days

90
Q

phosphorylation typically occurs on which parts of which amino acids?

A

OH
serine
threonine
tyrosine

91
Q

how does streptomycin affect translation in bacteria?

A

binds to the 30s subunit of the ribosome, inhibiting initiation of translation

92
Q

key markers for T cells?

A

CD3
CD4
CD8

93
Q

what is the primary purpose of neutrophils?

A

phagocytes

inflammatory response

94
Q

which TLRs are endosomal?

A

3, 7, 8, 9

95
Q

which TLRs recognize extracellular pathogens?

A

1, 2, 4, 5, 6

96
Q

what is the most important transcription factor for inflammation?

A

NF-KB

97
Q

which TLR signaling pathways are mediated by MyD88?

A

all but TLR3

98
Q

which TLRs are specific for bacteria?

A

1, 2, 4, 5, 9

99
Q

which TLRs are specific for viruses?

A
      1. 9
100
Q

which TLRs are specific for fungi?

A

2, 6

101
Q

which TLR can recognize both bacteria and viruses?

A

9

102
Q

which TLR can recognize both fungi and bacteria?

A

2

103
Q

deficiency in MyD88 and IRAK4 would lead to what clinical presentation?

A

susceptibility to viral and bacterial infections

104
Q

describe the role of the NLR (nod-like receptor) and which molecules mediate this response?

A

secretion of proinflammatory cytokines (IL-1/IL-18)
NLR + adaptor + inactive caspase-1 (x6) = inflammasome
active caspase-1 activates IL-1/IL-18

105
Q

describe the significance of fMet

A

a typical PAMP

a constituent of prokaryotes but not eukaryotes

106
Q

particularly specialized to serve functions that amplify or suppress innate or acquired immune responses

macrophages
neutrophils
eosinophils
mast cells
dendritic cells
A

mast cells

107
Q

trigger extravasation of neutrophils and monocytes. (what do these cells do?)

macrophages
neutrophils
eosinophils
mast cells
dendritic cells
A

mast cells
neutrophils = phagocytosis and inflammatory response
monocytes = macrophage differentiation = repair of inflammatory collateral damage

108
Q

c-reactive protein (CRP) and serum amyloid A (SAA) are used to detect what?

A

inflammation

109
Q

patients bloodwork returns with high CRP. what is this indicative of?

A

inflammation

110
Q

what is the function of type I interferons?

A

block viral replication within host cells

activate NK cells to increase cytotoxicity of infected cellsss

111
Q

describe the actions of NK cells

A

killing infected host cells

secrete IFN-gamma (recruits macrophages)

112
Q

describe the expresstion of MHC/HLA alleles

A

codominance

MS-I SFM (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions