Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what measures visual acuity, what does it measure, and what CN

A

CN II (optic nerve)
measures central vision
Snellen chart- 20 feet away

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2
Q

***normal changes older adults

A

wrinkling, decreased turgor, less hair on the head (fine), more coarse hair on eyebrows/in nose, droopy eyebrows, loss angle of jaw definition, larger pores, decreased senses (smell, taste, hearing)

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3
Q

***HAs

A

tension= frontal, band-like, dull throb
migraine= unilateral, pulsating, throbbing, n/v, photophobia
sinus HA
cluster= unilateral, behind an eye, severe burning, tearing or nasal drainage

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4
Q

what do the fractions mean in visual acuity testing

A

numerator= distances of the patient from the chart (20 feet away)
denominator= distance average eye can read the line
smaller the fraction, worse the vision
legal blindness= vision can’t be corrected to better than 20/200

ex: 20/200 means the patient can read at 20 feet what the average person can read at 200 feet

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5
Q

***how to test near vision

A

Each eye separately w/ handheld card like Rosenbaum Pocket Vision Screener
35cm/14 inch from eyes

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6
Q

how to test peripheral vision, what do abnormalities indicate

A

through confrontation test
sit 1m/3ft away, NP and pt cover opposite eyes and NP holds up # of fingers in each visual field

only significant if abnormal. Can indicate: stroke, retinal detachment, optic neuropathy, pituitary tumor, compression at optic chiasm, central retinal vascular occlusion

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7
Q

how to perform external eye exam

A

systematic manner, begin with appendages (eyebrows/surrounding tissue) and move inward

only inspect upper tarsal conjunctivae if concerned about foreign body

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8
Q

cobblestoning on conjuctivae

A

allergic or infectious conjunctivitis

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9
Q

cornea assessment

A

shine light, should be no blood vessels
sensitivity controlled by CN V tested with cotton tip to cornea & pt should blink (also tests CN VII facial nerve)

decreased corneal sensitivity= DM, HSV, herpes zoster, conquence of trigeminal neuralgia or ocular surgery

corneal arcus= lipids around cornea= lipid disorder < 40 y/o, common in > 60 y/o

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10
Q

miosis vs mydriasis

A

miosis= pupil constriction < 2mm. ex Opioid use

mydriasis= pupil dilation > 6mm. ex stimulant use

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11
Q

how to test for afferent pupillary defect and what it means

A

swinging flashlight test; second pupil should only slightly dilate when light crossing over then should constrict like opposite eye

if second pupil continues to dilate, afferent pupillary defect present AKA Marcus-Gunn pupil

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12
Q

testing for accommodation

A

pupils dilate w/ distant object (10cm) constrict as moves closer and eyes will converge together
*only of dx importance if defect in pupillary response to light

failure to respond to light but retaining constriction w/ accommodation seen in DM or syphilis

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13
Q

extraocular eye movements

A

controlled by CN III (oculomotor) IV (trochlear) VI (abducens) and 6 muscles

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14
Q

***strabismus

A

corneal light reflex test (look at light with both eyes then object) if fail do cover-uncover test

strabismus= cross eyed, eyes don’t line up
and referral to ophthalmologist

exotropic= outward away from nose
esotropic= inward toward nose

may have poor or double vision

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15
Q

**opthalmoscopic/fundoscopic exam

A

**how to stand and where to look: To exam the patient’s RIGHT eye, hold the ophthalmoscope in your RIGHT hand and use your RIGHT eye to look through the instrument.

inspects optic disc, arteries, veins, retina

needs pupil dilation so dim room; hold 12 inches away then move to 6 inches

red reflex first= light illuminates retina. Absence can mean cataract or hemorrhage

should NOT see discrete areas of light/dark pigment

may see venous pulsations

disc margin sharp well defined yellow to creamy pink color varies w/ race

move closer to eye, vessels seen 3-5 cm away

myopic (constriction)= use minus/red lens

hyperopic= use plus lens

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16
Q

normal disc margin w/ ophth. exam

A

well define and sharp, yellow to creamy pink but darker in darker skinned people

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17
Q

***retinal abnormalities

A

myelinated retinal nerve fibers= white area continuous w/ optic disc; no physiologic significance

papilledema= loss of definition of optic margin. Caused by increased ICP

glaucomatous optic nerve head cupping= raised disc margins w/ lowered central area; intraocular pressure, peripheral visual fields are constricted

From review:
**cotton wool spots= ill-defined yellow areas caused by infarction of nerve layer of retina; Vascular disease from HTN or DM
- arterial narrowing
- **Retinal arteriovenous nicking (AV nicking; hypertension/hypertensive retinopathy and cardiovascular diseases such as stroke)
-copper wiring
-disc edema

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18
Q

hemorrhages in retina

A

disc margin= poorly controlled or undx glaucoma
dot hemorrhages= microaneurysms in diabetic retinopathy

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19
Q

HTN retinopathy

A

mild= retinal arteriolar narrowing, arteriovenous nicking, opacity (copper wiring) of arteriolar wall; mod risk of stroke, coronary heart disease, death

mod= hemorrhage, cotton wool spots, hard exudates, microaneurysms; strong risk stroke cognitive decline, death

malignant/severe= above signs plus optic disc edema/papilledema; strong risk of death, NEEDS rapid BP lowering

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20
Q

**psuedostrabismus

A

**BABIES, Asian or native american

false appearance of strabismus caused by flattened nasal bridge or epicanthal folds in babies. Disappears by age 1.
Corneal light reflex can distinguish. *Asymmetric light reflex indicates true strabismus

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21
Q

visual acuity for child

A

use LEA or HOTV at 4 y/o
stand 10 feet away up to 5 y/o and 10 or 20ft 6 y/o and older
test both eyes first

visual acuity should be:
36-47 months old= 20/50 or better
48-59 months= 20/40
60 months (5 y/o) and up= 20/30

photoscreening is alternative for children 3-6 y/o

specialist if falls outside normal range OR if individual eyes have two-line difference

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22
Q

diabetic retinopathy (proliferative and non-proliferative)

A

PROLIFERATIVE
dot hemorrhages or microaneurysms and presence of hard and soft exudates
asx or blurred vision, distortion, visual acuity loss in more advanced

ophthalmoscope= balloon-like sacs on BV, blots of hemorrhages on retina, tiny yellow patched hard exudates, cotton-wool spots * (soft exudates)

NONPROLIFERATIVE
development new vessels d/t anoxic stimulation. Bleeding major cause blindness

asx or floaters, burred vision, progressive visual acuity loss, hemorrhage

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23
Q

***cataracts

A

opacity in lens
central with aging
blurry vision, faded colors, lights too bright, halo around lights, poor night vision/double vision, freq. prescription changes

old age, *** biggest= DM, smoking, obesity, sun exposure (UV light)

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24
Q

children’s ear predisposed to what and why

A

middle ear effusion
adenoids occlude eustachian tube interfered w/ aeration of middle ear

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25
Q

sensorineural hearing loss

A

occurs first w/ high frequency sounds (speech and localization of sounds)

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26
Q

***otoscope eval adult and over age of 3

A

head toward opposite shoulder, auricle upward and back
should see: min cerumen, pink color, hairs in outer third, no odor/lesions/discharge/foreign body

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27
Q

normal TM

A

translucent, pearly gray, visible landmarks, no perforations. Conical contour with concavity at umbo

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28
Q

bulging TM

A

more conical, loss body landmarks, distorted light reflex

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29
Q

Hearing eval

A

CN VIII
whispered voice=occlude non tested ear, stand behind to side arms length exhale full and say 3-6 letters and numbers. Should repeat > 50%. Very good to detect in age 50-70 y/o

Weber and Rinne tests

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30
Q

***Weber test

A

***Conductive and sensorineural hearing test

assesses unilateral hearing loss
place base vibrating tuning fork midline on head- can hear equally or one ear better?
if unequal, repeat occluding each ear. Should hear BEST in occluded ear

shouldn’t have lateralization

conductive hearing loss= sound heard better in affected ear

sensorineural hearing loss= sound lateralizes to better ear

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31
Q

***rinne test

A

**Strike fork ONCE Put on mastoid bone (hear for lesser amount of time) bring up to ear and hear air conduction should hear for longer
**
looks at JUST conductive hearing loss

distinguish if hears better by ear or bone conduction
air conduction SHOULD be heard longer than bone 2:1 aka heard twice as long (rinne positive)

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32
Q

***cocaine use signs in nose

A

rhinorrhea, hyperemia, edema nasal mucosa, white powder on hairs

long term= scabs, decrease smell/taste, septum perforation, chronic congestion, nosebleeds, chronic sniffling

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33
Q

allergy signs in nose

A

bluish gray or pale pink turbinates, swollen boggy

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34
Q

***otoscope eval in infant

A

pull auricle down and back
TM not conical until > 3 months so diffuse light reflex, limited mobility, dullness, opacity of pink/red TM

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35
Q

hearing test in children

A

whisper behind them, meaningful words (ex spongebob) they should turn toward. No rinne/weber until can follow instructions 3-4 y/o

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36
Q

***cobblestoning

A

conjunctiva= conjunctivitis
back of throat= PND, erythema with it

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37
Q

***Tonsil grading

A

0 to 4+
surgically removed to touching each other > 75% of oropharynx

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38
Q

***ruptured TM

A

sharp pain, bloody or yellow discharge, tinnitus, hearing loss

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39
Q

***what sound made when laryngeal obstruction

A

stridor

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40
Q

***what age infant turn head to sounds

A

4-6 months

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41
Q

***diaphragmatic excursion

A

purpose= looking for symmetry and how far lungs can expand so looking for difference in size

normal 5-6 cm
increased= concerned about pleural effusion

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42
Q

*** normal respiratory to HR ratio

A

1:4

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43
Q

***percussion of lungs

A

patient sitting up with arms on something or folded leaning forward to increase surface size of lung fields

dull sounds= pneumonia or pleural effusion (not air filled) or a mass

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44
Q

***sequence of lung exam on infants

A

NO percussion and listen first because they may cry

45
Q

***age related change in older adults with lungs

A

as you age decreased diaphragmatic excursion bc lose elasticity in lungs

46
Q

***Tactile fremitus - how to do and what’s increased/decreased

A

You have increased tactile fremitus over consolidation (fluid or mass; more vibration when it has something to vibrate off of), and you would have decreased air movement so decreased/absent breath sounds

decreased tactile fremitus= increased air so ex emphysema, less vibration bc nothing to vibrate against

vibration on chest wall. Posterior approach, put hands on shoulder blades, have them say 99, and move hands down symmetrically

47
Q

***Non respiratory disorders that change RR

A

sepsis or shock
opioids or OD
brainstem CVA
fever
myasthenia gravis
metabolic acidosis (up RR)/alkalosis (down RR)

48
Q

*** how to test for bronchophony

A

listen while patient repeats 99, should sound muffled

abnormal= not muffled then there’s consolidation (pleural effusion, pneumonia, etc)

**type of pectoriloquy, which is when voice transmission through lung structures is heard with a higher resonance. That’s why it should be muffled

49
Q

***how to test for egophony

A

listen while they say “e”
normal= hear “e”
abnormal= if changes to an “a” means consolidation

50
Q

***crackles vs rhonchi

A

auscultate before/after cough, rhonchi will clear after cough crackles will not

51
Q

***Sequence for CV exam

A

1 inspect

2 palpate for PMI
3 auscultate
NO percussion

52
Q

***stethescope

A

bell= low pitch
diaphragm= high pitch

53
Q

***Why feel for PMI and what does it mean if there’s a displacement

A

PMI= point of max impulse where feel heart beat most; looking for left ventricle hypertrophy

displacement= significant CHF or HTN, left ventricle enlarges (hypertrophy) which displaces it

54
Q

***Heave aka lift

A

Abnormal large beating of heart…Going to be felt at the left stern edge. And it’s gonna indicate RIGHT ventricular hypertrophy. If you feel a heave which is going to be an abnormal or large beating of the heart.

55
Q

***JVD

A

So increase jugular Venus distension or increase Jdp above 3 cm causing jugular Venus distension is gonna indicate that there is some sort of cause for RIGHT sided heart failure.

56
Q

***S1 S2 what do they mean

A

S1= start systole closure of AV (mitral & tricuspid) It’s gonna be a low pitch sound, and you’re gonna hear it best at the apex.

S2= end of systole, start of diastole, higher pitch and shorter, closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves

57
Q

***murmurs

A

more serious= diastolic (S2)
less serious (S1)= systolic because not associated with ventricular, diastolic filling

58
Q

***aortic stenosis vs aortic insufficiency

A

stenosis= systolic murmur, left 2nd intercostal, harsh murmur

insufficiency/regurgitation= diastolic murmur still heard in left 2nd intercostal space, soft murmur.

59
Q

***mitral regurgitation

A

heard best at apex (5th intercostal midclavicular line) heard all the way across systole

S3- left sided (systolic) heart failure and is associated with severe mitral regurgitation, a low ejection fraction, restrictive diastolic filling

60
Q

***mitral stenosis

A

diastolic murmur, low pitched, best at apex (5th intercostal midclavicular line)

61
Q

***grading of murmurs

A

1-6
grade 1= barely audible
grade 6= loud (hear without stethoscope), feel thrill, and visible

62
Q

***best way to hear murmur

A
  • changing positions sitting or squatting to standing
  • left lateral to hear mitral murmur
63
Q

***normal JVP range

A

3cm above sternal angle
6-8cm above atrium
< 9 cm
anything above 9cm = JVD

64
Q

***causes of edema (non cardiac)

A

kidney failure
electrolytes
infection
DVT

65
Q

***bruit

A

turbulent blood flow= stenosis

66
Q

***reynaud’s vs arterial disease

A

reynaud’s= episodic, gets better. Lack of blood flow, loss of pulse, fingers white/blue d/t cold exposure. Most at risk are middle aged women

arterial= doesn’t improve; risk factors PVD and smoking

67
Q

***venous vs arterial

A

venous= dependent swelling, worse as day goes on, can be unilateral

arterial= intermittent claudication (pain with walking) worse at night better in am, worse after exercise better with rest. Skin color changes, non healing wounds, diminished pulses

68
Q

***normal hemodynamic changes in pregnancy

A

increased blood volume= increase stroke volume/CO, edema

69
Q

*** tetrology of fallot

A

pulmonic valve stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic shift, and you’re typically going to have right ventricular hypertrophy

objective= parasternal heave, systolic murmur

70
Q

*** venous hum in a child

A

benign

71
Q

***breast exam

A

normal to notice a lump during menses and a couple days after
risk for cancer= genetic, early menarche, no children, obesity, early menopause, prev. radiation, high density breast tissue

breast exam= patient should be laying w/ arms over head, both breasts simultaneously
dimpling almost always means cancer

72
Q

***normal breast changes in pregnancy

A

increased vascular pattern

73
Q

***mammograms

A

start age 45

74
Q

***SE mastectomy

A

lymphedema (swelling)

75
Q

***gynecomastia

A

abnormal increased breast tissue in boys/men caused by low testosterone

76
Q

***GI exam sequence

A

inspect, auscultate, palpation, percussion

77
Q

***parestalsis

A

controlled by autonomic nervous system

78
Q

***small bowel obstruction

A

high pitched, hyperactive

79
Q

***peritonitis

A

no bowel sounds

80
Q

***decreased bowel sounds

A

constipation, ileus

81
Q

***increased bowel sounds

A

hungry, diarrhea

82
Q

***colon cancer sx

A

blood in stool, change in bowel pattern, pain, inability to fully evacuate

83
Q

***percussion of liver

A

< 12 cm= normal
scratch test if someone is obese
flex knees to relieve pressure if they’re tense

84
Q

***Cushings

A

buffalo hump, moon face, purple straie

85
Q

***GI pregnancy

A

change in bowel pattern, reflux

86
Q

*** cirrhosis of liver sx

A

jaundice, spider angioma, gynecomastia, palmar erythema

87
Q

***friction rub

A

sounds like high pitched grating sound WITH inspiration
peritonitis, inflammation, infection

88
Q

***concern for aneurysm

A

prominent lateral to umbilicus pulsation

89
Q

***appendicitis

A

Rovsing sign is rebound pain elicited in the right lower quadrant with palpation pressure in the left lower quadrant

Psoas sign is assessed by having the patient lie supine and placing your hand just above the knee. Ask the patient to lift the right leg against resistance of your hand. This motion causes friction of the psoas muscle over the inflamed appendix, causing pain.

To assess for the obturator sign, position the patient supine with their right knee bent and leg bent at the hip. Rotate the leg internally at the hip, causing the internal obturator muscle to stretch providing indirect pressure over the appendix.

McBurney point = point tenderness located in the center of the right lower quadrant, approximately 3-4cm towards the midline from the iliac spine.

90
Q

***CVA tenderness

A

pyelonephritis

91
Q

***congenital anomoly of GI

A

meckle diverticulum

92
Q

***acites

A

inspect- full and shiny
percussion- dull instead of tympanic

93
Q

***menopause

A

no menses for 12 months

94
Q

***correct way to insert vaginal speculum

A

correct size, lubricate, speculum and introitus (entrance of vagina) down

95
Q

**what specimen send out first for vaginal specimen collection

A

pap smear sends off first

96
Q

**STD testing, what kind of cells for BV

A

clue cells

97
Q

**first pelvic exam

A

21 y/o if NOT sexually active, before if is sexually active

98
Q

***early sign pregnancy

A

chadwick sign, bluish or purplish discoloration of the labia, vulva, vaginal tissue, fullness/increased blood flow to cervix, occurs at 4 weeks

99
Q

***how to assess fetal positioning

A

leopold maneuver

100
Q

**risk factor testicular cancer

A

1 undescended or delayed testicles (cryptorchidism)

family hx
HSV

101
Q

**best position for inguinal hernia

A

bear down, cough, or stand
palpate upward along vas defferens

102
Q

**subjective findings Peronie disease

A

bending of erection, painful erections

103
Q

**cause of testicular pain

A

testicular torsion most concerning

104
Q

**transillumination of testes

A

fluid vs solid

105
Q

no percussion in infants

A

-

106
Q

tumor on lung exam

A

dull where expect resonant
absent/decreased breath sounds

107
Q

tactile fremitus with emphysema

A

decreased

108
Q

percussion with pneumonia or pleural effusion

A

dull instead of tympanic

109
Q
A