Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following cell types are involved in humoral immunity?

A

A: B lymphocytes are involved in the humoral immune response. T lymphocytes are involved in cellular immunity.

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2
Q

A public health nurse is preparing an educational campaign to address a recent local increase in the incidence of HIV infection. The nurse should prioritize what intervention?

A

A: Educational programs that focus on control and prevention

Until an effective vaccine is developed, preventing HIV by eliminating and reducing risk behaviors is essential. Educational interventions are the primary means by which behaviors can be influenced. Screening is appropriate, but education is paramount. Enhancing immune function does not prevent HIV infection. Ineffective use of standard precautions applies to very few cases of HIV infection.

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3
Q

The nurse is revising a client’s plan of care. What is an example of an expected client outcome?

A

A: The client will have the ability to climb a flight of stairs without experiencing difficulty in breathing.

The expected outcome needs to be precise and measurable, not general; otherwise, measurement could be generalized. The ability to climb a flight of stairs without experiencing difficulty in breathing is measurable. An expectation of stable blood pressure is not measurable. Purchasing a pair of glasses or attending weekday church is not specific.

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4
Q

Based on the nurse’s base knowledge of primary immunodeficiencies, how would the nurse complete this statement? Primary immunodeficiencies:

A

A: develop early in life after protection from maternal antibodies decreases.

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5
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer an antiretroviral medication to a client who is positive for HIV. The nurse identifies the drug as a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI). What drug will the nurse administer?

A

A: Lamivudine

Lamivudine (Epivir) is an antiretroviral agent that belongs to the class of NRTIs. Delavirdine (Rescriptor), etravirine (Intelence), and nevirapine (Viramune) are examples of non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs).

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6
Q

The nurse is developing a health-promotion program at a company in which many employees are women in their 20s and 30s. For this population, the nurse plans to include information about:

A

A: Parenting issues

Young adults in their reproductive years want information about parenting issues. Values training is geared more for adolescents. Information about bone-density screening and mammography are for older women.

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7
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who wants to quit smoking. The client tells the nurse he has thrown out all of his cigarettes. Which stage is the client in, according to the transtheoretical model of change?

A

A: Action

The client is in the action stage of the transtheoretical model of change because this is the stage where the client takes decision action—in this case, the client throws away cigarettes in order to stop smoking. The precontemplative stage is when the client does not express a desire to change. The contemplative stage is when the client only begins to think about change.

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8
Q

The nurse is obtaining the medical history of a client with Crohn’s disease. What medication would the nurse include when asking about what medications the client has taken for suppression of the inflammatory and immune response?

A

A: Corticosteroids

The nurse obtains a history of immunizations, recent and past infectious diseases, and recent exposure to infectious diseases. The nurse reviews the client’s drug history because certain drugs, such as corticosteroids, suppress the inflammatory and immune responses. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication does not suppress the inflammatory and immune responses of Crohn’s disease. An ACE-I prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and does not suppress the inflammatory or immune response. Diuretics also do not suppress the immune response but help reduce excess fluid from the kidneys.

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9
Q

The nurse notes that an older adult was treated for a wound infection and pneumonia within the last 6 months. Which factor will the nurse attribute to this client’s illnesses?

A

A: Immunosenescence

Immunosenescence is the term for age-related changes in the immune system. These changes have been linked to the increased rates of illness and mortality in older adults, and an increased incidence of infections. There is no evidence that polypharmacy has caused an increase in infections in the older adult. The development of infections is not directly linked to vitamin intake or self-care activities.

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10
Q

T-cell and B-cell lymphocytes are the primary participants in the immune response. What do they do?

A

T-cell and B-cell lymphocytes distinguish harmful substances and ignore those natural and unique to a person.

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11
Q

Which phase of the process of patient teaching ends when the strategies have been completed and when the client’s responses to the actions have been recorded?

A

A: Implementation

The implementation phase ends when the teaching strategies have been completed and when the patient’s responses to the actions have been recorded. Assessment in the teaching-learning process is directed toward the systematic collection of data about the client’s learning needs and readiness to learn, as well as the family’s learning needs. Planning has to do with specifying the expected outcomes and assigning priorities to the diagnoses. Evaluation determines how effectively the client has responded to teaching and to what extent the goals have been achieved.

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12
Q

A client with AIDS has become forgetful with a limited attention span, decreased ability to concentrate, and delusional thinking. What condition is represented by these symptoms?

A

A: AIDS dementia complex (ADC)

ADC, a neurologic condition, causes the degeneration of the brain, especially in areas that affect mood, cognition, and motor functions. Such clients exhibit forgetfulness, limited attention span, decreased ability to concentrate, and delusional thinking. DSP is characterized by abnormal sensations, such as burning and numbness in the feet and later in the hands. Candidiasis is a yeast infection that may develop in the oral, pharyngeal, esophageal, or vaginal cavities or in the folds of the skin. CMV infects the choroid and retinal layers of the eye, leading to blindness, and can also cause ulcers in the esophagus, colitis, diarrhea, pneumonia, and encephalitis.

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13
Q

Which assessment should be completed if immune dysfunction is suspected in the neurosensory system?

A

A: Ataxia

Ataxia should be assessed when immune dysfunction in the neurosensory system is suspected. Hematuria, discharge, and frequency of and burning upon urination are associated with the genitourinary system.

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14
Q

A community health nurse is preparing learning materials for an upcoming public seminar for adults. What factors will the nurse consider, based on applying concepts of adult learning readiness? Select all that apply.

A

A:
1) Culture
2) Personal values
3) Physical status
4) Emotional status

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15
Q

A nursing instructor is giving a lecture on the immune system. The instructor’s discussion on phagocytosis will include:

A

A: neutrophils and monocytes.

Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytes, cells that perform phagocytosis.

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16
Q

The nurse is aware that the phagocytic immune response, one of the body’s responses to invasion, involves the ability of cells to ingest foreign particles. Which of the following engulfs and destroys invading agents?

A

A: Macrophages

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17
Q

A client with ataxia-telangiectasia is admitted to the unit. The nurse caring for the client would expect to see what included in the treatment regimen?

A

A: IV gamma globulin administration

Treatment for ataxia-telangiectasia includes IV gamma globulin, antimicrobial therapy, and bone marrow transplantation. It does not include platelet administration, factor VIII administration, or thymus grafting.

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18
Q

A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) comes to the clinic reporting difficulty swallowing. The client says, “It hurts so much when I swallow.” Inspection reveals creamy white patches in the client’s mouth. What will the nurse suspect?

A

A: Candidiasis

The client’s complaints and physical examination suggest oral candidiasis. Wasting syndrome involves involuntary weight loss greater than 10% of the client’s baseline body weight and either chronic diarrhea for more than 10 days or chronic weakness and documented intermittent or constant fever in the absence of any concurrent illness that could explain these findings. Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungal infection that affects the neurologic system. Clostridium difficile is a common cause of chronic diarrhea in clients with AIDS.

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19
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with multiple sclerosis. Client education about the disease process includes which explanation about the cause of the disorder?

A

A: The immune system recognizes one’s own tissues as “foreign.”

The immune system’s recognition of one’s own tissues as “foreign” rather than self is the basis of many autoimmune disorders, including multiple sclerosis. When regulatory mechanisms fail to halt the immune response or excess cytokines are produced, pathology occurs (e.g., allergies, hypersensitivity).

20
Q

Which of the following is the first barrier method that can be controlled by the woman?

A

A: Female condom

The female condom has the distinction of being the first barrier method that can be controlled by the woman. The IUD may increase the risk for HIV transmission through an inflammatory foreign body response. The female condom is as effective in preventing pregnancy as other barrier methods, such as the diaphragm and the male condom. Birth control pills are not a barrier method.

21
Q

Which immunity type becomes active as a result of infection by a specific microorganism?

A

A: naturally acquired active immunity

Naturally acquired active immunity occurs as a direct result of an infection by a specific microorganism.

22
Q

A client has begun to suffer from rheumatoid arthritis and is being assessed for disorders of the immune system. The client works as an aide at a facility that cares for children infected with AIDS. What is the most important factor related to the client’s assessment?

A

A: The client’s use of other drugs

The nurse needs to review the client’s drug history. This data will help to assess the client’s susceptibility to illness because certain past illnesses and drugs, such as corticosteroids, suppress the inflammatory and immune responses. The client’s age, home environment, and diet do not have any major implications during assessment because they do not indicate susceptibility to illness.

23
Q

The body has several mechanisms to fight disease, one of which is sending chemical messengers. The messengers released by lymphocytes, monocytes, and macrophages have differing roles in the immune response. Which messenger enables cells to resist viral replication and slow viral replication?

A

A: interferons

Interferons are chemicals that primarily protect cells from viral invasion. They enable cells to resist viral infection and slow viral replication. They have been used as adjunctive therapy in the treatment of AIDS. Interferons also have been used to treat some forms of cancer such as leukemia because they stimulate NK cell activity. Interferon is administered parenterally because digestive enzymes destroy its protein structure.

24
Q

More than 50% of individuals with this disease develop pernicious anemia:

A

A: Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

25
Q

A client with AIDS is admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea and dehydration. The physician suspects an infection with Cryptosporidium. What type of specimen should be collected to confirm this diagnosis?

A

A: Stool specimen for ova and parasites

A stool specimen for ova and parasites will give a definitive diagnosis. The organism is spread by the fecal-oral route from contaminated water, food, or human or animal waste. Those infected can lose from 10 to 20 L of fluid per day. Losing this magnitude of fluid quickly leads to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

26
Q

Which of the following is accurate regarding wellness? Select all that apply.

A

1) One tries to maximize one’s own health.
2) It requires a conscious commitment.
3) It is the result of adopting lifestyle behaviors for the attainment of one’s highest potential.

27
Q

A client will be receiving a hepatitis B vaccination series prior to employment in a dialysis center. What type of immunity will this provide?

A

A: Artificially acquired active immunity

Artificially acquired immunity is obtained by receiving a killed or weakened microorganism or toxoid. Passive immunity develops when ready-made antibodies are given to a susceptible person. The antibodies provide immediate but short-lived protection from the invading antigen. Newborns receive passive immunity to some diseases for which their mothers have manufactured antibodies. Naturally acquired active immunity occurs as a direct result of infection by a specific microorganism. An example is the immunity to measles that develops after the initial infection . Not all invading microorganisms produce a response that gives lifelong immunity. There is not a type of immunity called forced immunity.

28
Q

A client with AIDS has been tested for cytomegalovirus (CMV) with positive titers. What severe complication should the nurse be alert for with cytomegalovirus?

A

A: blindness

29
Q

A nurse is monitoring the client’s progression of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What debilitating gastrointestinal condition found in up to 90% of all AIDS clients should the nurse be aware of?

A

A: Chronic diarrhea

Chronic diarrhea is believed related to the direct effect of HIV on cells lining the intestine. Although all gastrointestinal manifestations of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) can be debilitating, the most devastating is chronic diarrhea. It can cause profound weight loss and severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

30
Q

Which action would be incorporated in a teaching strategy for a hearing-impaired client?

A

Use of slow, directed, and deliberate speech

31
Q

A client has undergone diagnostic testing for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) using the enzyme immunoassay (EIA) test. The results are positive and the nurse prepares the client for additional testing to confirm seropositivity. The nurse would prepare the client for which test?

A

A: Western blot assay

A positive EIA test indicates seropositivity. To confirm this, a Western blot assay would be done. The OraSure test uses saliva to perform an EIA test. The p24 antigen test and nucleic acid sequence-based amplification test are used to test viral load and evaluate response to treatment. However, the reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) and nucleic acid sequence-based tests have replaced the p24 antigen test. The RT-PCR tests may be used to confirm a positive EIA result.

32
Q

During a hospital room teaching session about a new medication, the client’s friends arrive for a visit. Which action will the nurse take?

A

A: Inform the client that teaching will resume later.

33
Q

HIV is harbored within which type of cell?

A

A: Lymphocyte

Because HIV is harbored within lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell, any exposure to infected blood results in significant risk of infection. HIV infection is not harbored in platelets, erythrocytes, or nerve cells.

34
Q

A client suspected of having human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) has blood drawn for a screening test. What is the first test generally run to see if a client is, indeed, HIV positive?

A

A: Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

The ELISA test, an initial HIV screening test, is positive when there are sufficient HIV antibodies; it also is positive when there are antibodies from other infectious diseases. If the ELISA is positive twice then the Western Blot test is run. A CBC and a Schick test are not screening tests for HIV.

35
Q

Kaposi sarcoma (KS) is diagnosed through:

A

A: biopsy.

36
Q

What is the function of the thymus gland?

A

A: Programs T lymphocytes to become regulator or effector T cells

The thymus gland is located in the neck below the thyroid gland. It extends into the thorax behind the top of the sternum. The thymus gland produces lymphocytes during fetal development. It may be the embryonic origin of other lymphoid structures such as the spleen and lymph nodes. After birth, the thymus gland programs T lymphocytes to become regulator or effector T cells. The thymus gland becomes smaller during adolescence but retains some activity throughout the life cycle. The other options are incorrect.

37
Q

A client who is HIV positive is receiving highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) that includes a protease inhibitor (PI). The client comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Assessment reveals lipoatrophy of the face and arms. The client states, “I’m thinking the side effects of the drug are worse than the disease. Look what’s happening to me.” The nurse would most likely identify which nursing diagnosis as the priority?

A

Disturbed body image related to loss of fat in the face and arms

38
Q

A client is given a dose of ketorolac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug for complaints of abdominal pain. Ten minutes after receiving the medication, the client’s eyes, lips, and face begin to swell, and the nurse hears stridor. What priority measure should the nurse prepare to do?

A

A: Administer epinephrine.

Anaphylaxis is a rapid and profound type I hypersensitivity response. A massive release of histamine causes vasodilation; increased capillary permeability; angioneurotic edema (acute swelling of the face, neck, lips, larynx, hands, feet, genitals, and internal organs); hypotension; and bronchoconstriction. A nurse must administer 0.2 mg of epinephrine subcutaneously to a client experiencing a severe allergic reaction. It is outside of the nurse’s practice to intubate a client. Performing an ECG and assessing the vital signs delays the treatment of the client and can have negative outcomes.

39
Q

The nursing instructor is discussing hypersensitivity responses with a clinical group. What allergic reaction(s) would the nursing instructor talk about? Select all that apply.

A

1) Cytotoxic
2) Atopic
3) Immune complex

40
Q

A child is brought to the clinic with a rash and is subsequently diagnosed with measles. The parent reports also having had measles as a young child. What type of immunity to measles develops after the initial infection?

A

Naturally acquired active immunity

41
Q

Which of the following protective responses begin with the B lymphocytes?

A

A: Humoral

42
Q

There are major differences between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies. Select the most accurate statement the nurse would use to explain the cause of a secondary immunodeficiency.

A

“Your immune system was most likely affected by an underlying disease process.”

43
Q

Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to document for a client with ataxia-telangiectasis?

A

A: Vascular lesions

44
Q

A nurse is preparing to give a client an infusion of gamma globulin. The nurse knows to stop the infusion if the client experiences which symptoms? Select all that apply.

A

1) Flank pain
2) Shaking chills
3) Tightness in the chest

45
Q

The nurse is caring for a client recovering from a major burn. Burns affect the immune system by causing a loss of large amounts of which of the following?

A

A: Serum, which depletes the body’s store of immunoglobulins

Major burns cause impaired skin integrity and compromise the body’s first line of defense. Loss of large amounts of serum occurs with burn injuries and depletes the body of essential proteins, including immunoglobulins. Loss of serum or plasma does not deplete the body of catecholamines (adrenal gland), calcitonin (thyroid gland), or glucagon (pancreas).

46
Q

There are many goals for health teaching. Which of the following is the primary goal of family and patient education?

A

A: Improve patient outcomes