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Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

Stages of Medico-Legal Investigation

A
  1. Crime Scene Investigation
  2. Autopsy
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2
Q

conduct of processes, more particularly, the
recognition, handling, preservation and documentation of
physical evidence to include the identification and interview of
witnesses and the arrest of suspect/s at the crime scene

A

Crime scene investigation

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3
Q

place where the essential
ingredients of the criminal act took place

A

Crime scene

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4
Q

The area is blocked out in the form of a
rectangle. The searcher proceeds slowly at the same pace
along the path parallel to one side of the rectangle

A

Strip method

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5
Q

This search is a
modification of the strip search method. The searchers will
traverse first parallel to the base and then parallel to the
side.

A

Double Strip or Grid Method

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6
Q

The searchers follow each other in the path
in the spiral manner beginning from the center towards the
outside or vice versa.

A

Spiral method

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7
Q

The searchers gather at the center
and proceed outwards along radii or spokes.

A

Wheel/ray method

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8
Q

Whole area is divided into subdivisions or
quadrants and search is made in the individual quadrants.

A

Zone method

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9
Q

comprehensive study of a dead body,
performed by a trained physician employing recognized
dissection procedure and techniques

A

Autopsy

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10
Q

Kinds of Autopsy

A

a. Hospital or Non-official Autopsy
b. Medico-legal or Official Autopsy

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11
Q

When shall an Autopsy be Performed on a Dead Body

A

a. Whenever required by special laws;
b. Upon order of a competent court, a mayor and a provincial or
city fiscal;
c. Upon written request of police authorities;

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12
Q

Persons who are Authorized to Perform Autopsies and Dissections
The following are authorized to perform autopsies and dissections

A

a. Health Officers
b. Medical officers of law enforcement agencies; and
c. Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals.

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13
Q

after all efforts,
including gross and microscopic studies and toxicological
analyses, fail to reveal a cause of death

A

Negative autopsy

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14
Q

no cause of death is found on
account of imprudence, negligence, lack of skill or lack of
foresight of the examiner

A

Negligence autopsy

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15
Q

Animal
bites, injection marks, electrical necrosis may be overlooked in a
hasty external examination.

A

Failure to make a thorough external examination

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16
Q

Condition
of the organs, presence of air in pneumothorax or bubbles of air
in the circulatory system may remain unnoticed by the
pathologist.

A

Inadequate or improper internal examinations

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17
Q

Tissue blocks may not be
taken in the proper areas, poor preparation of the microscopic
slides and improper lighting during the process of examination
may lead to an erroneous interpretati

A

. Improper histological examination

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18
Q

qualitative
and quantitative determination of toxic materials or its
metabolites must be shown

A

. Lack of toxicological or other laboratory aids

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19
Q

The examiner must have had
vast experience in autopsy investigation and must have the
capacity to distinguish pathological changes in the body tissues

A

Pathologist incompetence

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20
Q

injury, disease or the
combination of both injury and disease responsible for initiating
the trend or physiological disturbance, brief or prolonged, which
produce the fatal termination. It may be immediate or proximate

A

Cause of death

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21
Q

explanation as to how the cause of
death came intobeing or how the cause of death arose

A

Manner of death

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22
Q

This applies to cases when trauma or disease kill quickly
that there is no opportunity for sequelae or complications to
develop.

A

Immediate (Primary) Cause of Death

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23
Q

An extensive brain laceration as a result of a vehicular
accident is an example of immediate cause of death.

A

Immediate (Primary) Cause of Death

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24
Q

The injury or disease was survived for a sufficiently
prolonged interval which permitted the development of serious
sequelae which actually caused the death. If a stab wound in the
abdomen later caused generalized peritonitis, then peritonitis is
the proximate cause of death.

A

The Proximate (Secondary) Cause of Death

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25
Q

This is death caused by a natural disease condition in the body. The disease may develop spontaneously, or it might have
been a consequence of physical injury inflicted prior to its
development. If a natural disease developed without the
intervention of the felonious acts of another person, no one can
be held responsible for the death

A

Natural death

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26
Q

Violent deaths are those due to injuries inflicted in the
body by some forms of outside force. The physical injury must be
the proximate cause of death.

A

Violent death

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27
Q

(1) That the victim at the time the physical injuries were inflicted
was in normal health.

(2) That the death may be expected from
physical injuries inflicted.

(3) That death ensued within a reasonable time

A

Violent death elements

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28
Q

Death due to misadventure or accident. An accident is
something that happens outside the sway of our will, and
although it comes about through some act of will, lies beyond
bounds of human foreseeable consequences.

A

Accidental death

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29
Q

exempted from criminal liability

A

(a) A person is performing a lawful act
(b) He performed it with due care
(c) He caused injury to another by mere accident
(d) He is without fault and with no intention of causing it

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30
Q

Death due to reckless imprudence, negligence, lack of skill or
lack of foresight

A

Negligent death

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31
Q

death occurred due
to the recklessness of someone, he may be charge of?

A

Homicide

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32
Q

Suicide is the act of intentionally causing one’s own death.

A

Suicidal death

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33
Q

any person who shall assist another to commit suicide
shall suffer the penalty of?

A

Prision mayor

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34
Q

such person lends his
assistance to another to the extent of doing the killing himself, he
shall suffer the penalty of?

A

Reclusion temporal

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35
Q

practice of painlessly putting to
death a person suffering from some incurable disease

A

Euthanasia or mercy killing

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36
Q

Any person who shall kill his father, mother, or child,
whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his ascendants or
descendants, or his spouse, shall be of?

A

Parricidal death

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37
Q

Infanticide is the killing of a child less than 3 days old

A

Infanticidal Death

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38
Q

If the offender is the father, mother or legitimate
ascendant, the crime is?

A

Infanticide

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39
Q

Victim that is not yet viable

A

Abortion

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40
Q

Victim that is viable

A

Infanticide

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41
Q

Any person who, not falling within the provisions of
Article 246 shall kill another, shall be guilty of murder and shall
be punished by reclusion temporal in its maximum period to
death, if committed with any of the following attendant

A

Murder

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42
Q

Scoffing or outraging includes

A

(i) dismembering the corpse by cutting off the head
(ii) urinating on it
(iii) putting it on a sack and throwing the sack in a garbage
pit
(iv) stripping if off the clothes

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43
Q

Any person who, not falling within the provisions of
article 246 shall kill another without the attendance of any of the
circumstances enumerated in the provision of Art. 248 or
Revised Penal Code (Murder), shall be deemed guilty of homicide
and be punished by reclusion temporal

A

Homicidal death/homicide

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44
Q

Elements of homicide

A

a) That a person was killed
(b) That the accused killed him without any justifying
circumstances.
(c) There is the intention on the part of the offender to kill the
victim and such presumption can be inferred from the death of
the victim
(d) That the killing does not fall under the definition of the crime of
murder, parricide or infanticide.

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45
Q

Tumultuous affray exists hen at least?

A

4 persons

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46
Q

Any legally married person who, having surprised his
spouse in the act of committing sexual intercourse with another
person, shall kill any of them or both of them in the act or
immediately thereafter, or shall inflict upon them any serious
physical injury, shall suffer the penalty of destierro.

A

Death or physical injury inflicted under excemptional circumstances

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47
Q

If death or serious physical injuries resulted, the accused
will be imposed the penalty of?

A

Destierro

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48
Q

Modern methods in the execution of death sentences have
abandoned inhuman, cruel and barbarous means. Executions by
garroting, decapitation by means ofthe guillotine and by drowning
which were common during the medieval days are no longer
practiced. The statutes of all countries state the legal procedure
for the execution of death penalties. The constitution, like that of
the Philippines, imposes certain limitations to the law-making

A

Judicial death

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49
Q

A person is made to sit on a chair made of electrical
conducting materials with straps of electrodes on both wrists,
ankles, and head. An alternating current voltage of more than
1,500 volts is put on until the convict dies

A

Death by electrocution

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50
Q

The convict is made to stand in an elevated collapsible
flatform with a black hood on the head, a noose made of rope
around the neck and the other end of which is fixed in an elevated
structure above the head. Without the knowledge of the convict,
the flatform suddenly collapses which causes the sudden
suspension of the body and tightening of the noose around the
neck. Death may be due to asphyxia or injury of the cervical
portion of the spinal cord.

A

Death by hanging

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51
Q

Execution by firing squad by the used of fire arm. Capital punishment common in military in world war.

A

Death by musketry

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52
Q

The convict is enclosed in a compartment and an
obnoxious or asphyxiating gas is introduced. The most common
gas used is carbon monoxide. The convict will not be removed
from the gas chamber unless he is pronounced dead by the
penitentiary physician.

A

Death by gas chamber

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53
Q

above-mentioned Judicial Deaths are no longer
applicable in the Philippines since the imposition of Death penalty
was already abolished by Republic Act No?

A

9346

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54
Q

Intentional or deliberate application of
the means to shorten the life of a person. It may be done with or
without the consent or knowledge of the person. Active
euthanasia on demand is the putting to death of a person in
compliance with the wishes of the person (patient) to shorten his
sufferings

A

Active Euthanasia

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55
Q

There is absence of the application of
the means to accelerate death but the natural course of the
disease is allowed to have its way to extinguish the life of a
person. Consequently, the concept of orthothanasia and
dysthanasia was adopted.

A

Passive euthanasia

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56
Q

When an incurably ill person is allowed to
die a natural death without the application of any operation or
treatment procedure.

A

Orthothanasia

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57
Q

When there is an attempt to extend the life
span of a person by the use of extraordinary treatments without
which the patient would have died earlier.

A

Dysthanasia

58
Q

It is the deprivation of a regular and constant supply of
food and water.

A

Death from starvation

59
Q

It happens when the necessary food has been suddenly and
completely withheld from a person.

A

Acute starvation

60
Q

It happens when there is a gradual or deficient supply of
food.

A

Chronic starvation

61
Q

the impairment of the body structure or
function caused by the outside force. It is the effect of some form
of stimulus to the body. The effect of the application of force is
the production of woun

A

Injury

62
Q

It is a break or the dissolution in the continuity of the skin
or tissues of the living body.

A

Wound

63
Q

Wound which when inflicted is capable of causing death
immediately after infliction or shortly thereafter.

A

Mortal/fatal would

64
Q

Wound when inflicted will not endangers one’s life

A

Non-Mortal/Non-Fatal Wound

65
Q

an injury in the substance of the skin,
discoloration of the surface due to extravasation of blood. This
is due to the application of a blunt instrument

A

Contusion wound

66
Q

this is the extravasation of blood in the
newly formed cavity. This is due to the application of a blunt
instrument.

A

Hematoma wound

67
Q

tearing of the skin due to forcible contact of
blunt instrument.

A

Lacerated wound

68
Q

wound produced on the body by sharp edge
instrument.

A

Incised wound

69
Q

wound produced on the body by sharppointed instrument

A

Punctured wound

70
Q

wound brought about by change of atmospheric
pressure

A

Barotrauma

71
Q

wound brought about by heat or
cold

A

Frostbite, burns or scald

72
Q

wound brought about by
chemical explosion

A

Gunshot or shrapnel wound

73
Q

layers of skin torn off completely or only flap of skin
remains

A

Avulsion

74
Q

wound characterized by the removal of the
superficial layer of the skin brought by friction against a hard,
rough object.

A

Abrasion

75
Q

wound which involves the outer layer of
the skin

A

Superficial wound

76
Q

wound involves the inner structure beyond the
layers of the skin.

A

Deep wound

77
Q

one in which the wounding
agent enters the body but did not come out or the
mere piercing of a solid organ or tissue of the body.

A

Penetrating wound

78
Q

When the wounding agent
produces communication between the inner and
outer portion of the hollow organs

A

Perforating wound

79
Q

Physical injury which is located at the site
of the application of force.

A

Coup injury

80
Q

Physical injury found opposite the
site of the application force.

A

Contre coup injury

81
Q

Physical injury located at
the site and also opposite the site of application of force.

A

Coup Contre-Coup Injury

82
Q

Physical injury located
not at the site nor opposite the site of the application of
force but in some areas offering the least resistance to
the force applied.

A

Locus minoris resistencia

83
Q

Physical injury involving a greater area
of the body beyond the site of the application of force. It has
not only the wide area of injury but also the varied types of
injury.

A

Extensive injury

84
Q

Wound which is the result of a
person’s instinctive reaction of self-protection.
Injuries suffered by a person to avoid or repel
potential injury contemplated by the aggressor.

A

Defense wound

85
Q

wound produced by the shape of
the instrument or object reflected in the body

A

Patterned wound

86
Q

self-inflicted wound is a
wound produced on oneself. As distinguished from
suicide, the person has no intention to end his life

A

Self inflicted wound

87
Q

condition of a female who has not
experienced sexual intercourse and whose genital organs have
not been altered by carnal connection.

A

Virginity

88
Q

The state of not knowing the nature of sexual life and not
having experienced sexual relation. Moral virginity applies to
children below the age of puberty and whose sex organs and
secondary sex characters are not yet developed.

A

Moral virginity

89
Q

condition whereby a woman is conscious of the nature
of the sexual life but has not experienced sexual intercourse. The
term applies to women who have reached sexual maturity but
have not experienced sexual intercourse.

A

Physical virginity

90
Q

A condition wherein the hymen is intact with the edges
distinct and regular and the opening small to barely admit the tip
of the smallest finger of the examiner

A

True physical virginity

91
Q

condition wherein the hymen is unruptured, but the
orifice is wide and elastic to admit two or more fingers of the
examiner with a lesser degree of resistance. The hymen may be
laxed and distensible and may have previous sexual relation

A

False physical virginity

92
Q

This term refers to a condition of a woman who permits
any form of sexual liberties as long as they abstain from rupturing
the hymen by sexual act

A

Demi virginity

93
Q

This is not actually virginity because the woman had one
or more sexual intercourse with another man but had not borne
a child yet.

A

Virgo intacta

94
Q

Defloration is the laceration or rupture of the hymen as a
result of sexual intercourse

A

Defloration

95
Q

Sexual desire towards the opposite sex. This is a normal
sexual behavior, socially and medically acceptable

A

Heterosexual

96
Q

Sexual desire towards the same sex.

A

Homosexual

97
Q

Sexual desire towards an immature person

A

Infantosexual

98
Q

form of sexual perversion wherein a person has the
compulsive desire to have sexual intercourse with a child of
either sex. Children of various ages participate in sexual
activities, like fellatio, cunnilingus, fondling with sex organs,
or anal sexual intercourse. Usually committed by a
homosexual, between a man and a boy the latter being a
passive partner

A

Pedophilia

99
Q

Sexual desire towards animals.

A

Bestosexual

100
Q

It is a form of “self-abuse” or “solitary vice” carried without
the cooperation of another person.

A

Auto sexual

101
Q

The person deliberately resorts to some mechanical
means of producing sexual excitement with or without orgasm

A

Conscious type

102
Q

Sexual desire with elder person

A

Gerontophilia

103
Q

sexual perversion characterized by erotic desire or
actual sexual intercourse with a corpse.

A

Necrophilia

104
Q

Sexual relations between persons who, by reason of blood
relationship cannot legally marry

A

Incest

105
Q

Excessive sexual desire of men to
intercourse.

A

Satyriasis

106
Q

Strong sexual feeling of women.
They are commonly called “hot” or “fighter”. Both
satyriasis and nymphomania are general expression
of compulsive neurosis.

A

Nymphomania

107
Q

Absence of sexual desire or arousal
during sexual act in women.

A

Sexual anethesia

108
Q

Painful sexual act in women

A

Dyspareunia

109
Q

Painful spasm of the vagina during sexual
act

A

Vaginisimus

110
Q

Weakening of sexual feeling in the elderly

A

Old age

111
Q

The use of the mouth as a way of sexual gratification

A

Oralism

112
Q

The female agent receives the
penis of a man into her mouth and by friction with the
lips and tongue coupled with the act of sucking
initiates orgasm.

A

Fellatio (Irrumation

113
Q

Sexual gratification is attained by licking
or sucking the external female genitalia

A

Cunnilingus

114
Q

form of sexual perversion
wherein a person derives excitement by licking the
anus of another person of either sex

A

Anilism (anilingus)

115
Q

Pain or cruel act as a factor for gratification

A

Sado-masochism (Algolagnia)

116
Q

sexual deviation associated specifically
with the act of whipping or being whipped.

A

Flagellation

117
Q

form of sexual perversion in which the infliction of pain on another is necessary or
sometimes the sole factor in sexual enjoyment.

A

Sadism

118
Q

The pain and
humiliation from the opposite sex is the primary factor
for sexual gratification.

A

Masochism

119
Q

form of sexual perversion wherein the real or fantasied
presence of an object or bodily part is necessary for sexual
stimulation and/or gratification

A

Fetishism

120
Q

Where particular portions of the anatomy,
such as the breasts, or buttocks are the target of interest
for sexual stimulation.

A

Anatomic

121
Q

The deviate may have interest centered on
shoes, handkerchief, undergarments, either on a sexual
partner or stolen from a neighborhood washline.

A

Clothing

122
Q

The deviate has the desire to be near a
dead body and may or may not violate the dead person
for sexual gratification

A

Necrophilic

123
Q

Fetish whose stimulus is
pleasant odor or foul odor for sexual stimulation or
gratification

A

Odor

124
Q

sexual deviation whereby a person has
sexual desire for statues.

A

Pygmalionism

125
Q

Sexual desire with mannikins

A

Mannikinism

126
Q

person has extreme admiration and love
of one’s self. Sexual gratification is attained by looking at
the mirror and appreciating his or her own self.

A

Narcissism

127
Q

The marked dislike for things, like
eyeglasses, beard, haircut, as the sole stimulus for
gratification.

A

Negative fetish

128
Q

deviate does damage while he gets
Like cutting clothes

A

Saboteur fetish

129
Q

Deviate derives sexual pleasure from
setting fire

A

Incendiarism

130
Q

Deviate attains sexual stimulation or
gratification at the sight of blood.

A

Vampirism

131
Q

Sexual act through the anus of another human being

A

Sodomy

132
Q

Sexual gratification attained by fingering, fondling with
the breast, licking parts of the body

A

Uranism

133
Q

form of sexual gratification characterized by the
compulsive desire of a person to rub his sex organ against
some parts of the body of another. They generally achieve
their erotic gratification by rubbing or pressing their organs
against the buttocks of women in crowded subways, buses,
theaters, or streetcars. The frotteur often pretends that the
rubbing is accidental.

A

Frottage

134
Q

form of sexual deviation wherein a person has
special affinity to certain parts of the female body. Sexual
libido may develop in the breast, buttock, foot, legs, etc. of
women. Usually, sexual intercourse is merely secondary to
satisfy the sexual desire.

A

Partialism

135
Q

form of sexual perversion characterized by a
compulsion to peep to see persons undress or perform other
personal activities. The offender is sometimes called “Peeping
Tom”. Usually after peeping, he masturbate in excess.

A

Voyeurism

136
Q

perversion wherein sexual pleasure is attained by
watching couple undress or during their sex intimacies

A

Macoscopia

137
Q

form of sexual perversion in which three persons are
participating in the sexual orgies. The combination may
consist of two men and a woman or two women and a man.
The usual activity may be fellatio, kissing the buttock, sucking
the breast, a “suixante-neuf” (sixty-nine) arrangement, or
coitus combined with other sexual practices. Sexual
gratification is attained in the “eternal triangle”.

A

Troilism

138
Q

form of sexual deviation in which a group of person
participate in the sexual orgies. Two or more couples may
perform sexual act in a room and they may even agree to
exchange partners for “variety sake” during the “sexual festival

A

Pluralism

139
Q

form of sexual deviation characterized by the need
to use obscene language to obtain sexual gratification.
Sometimes they go beyond uttering profane words by making

A

Coprolalia

140
Q

The term applied by psychiatrists to describe a form
of sexual deviation characterized by promiscuity and making
seduction of many women as a part of his. career. The pervert
cannot find anyone to be a permanent companion

A

Don juanism

141
Q

This is the willful exposure in public places of one’s
genital organ in the presence of other persons, usually of the
opposite sex. Usually, the exhibitionist is naked.

A

Indecent exposure

Cdi (2 decks)

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