Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

pd 1096 > QUIZ > Flashcards

QUIZ Flashcards

1
Q

RULE 1:
General Provisions

The National Building Code shall provide
a framework of minimum standards and
requirements for all buildings to regulate
their location, design, quality of materials,
construction, and use.

A

Purpose of the Code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
The National Building Code (NBC) applies
to the design, location, siting, construction,
alteration, repair, conversion, use,
occupancy, maintenance, moving,
demolition of and addition to public and
private buildings, except traditional
dwellings and BP 220 projects.
A

Scope of application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
All on-site work done from site
preparation, excavation, foundation,
assembly of all the components and
installation of utilities and equipment of
buildings/structure
A

Construction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Any new construction which increases
the height or area of an existing
building/structure

A

Addition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
Construction in a building/ structure
involving changes in the materials used,
partitioning, location/ size of openings,
structural parts, existing utilities and
equipment but does not increase the
overall area thereof.
A

Alteration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Any physical change made on a building/
structure to increase its value, utility and/
or to improve its aesthetic quality

A

Renovation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A change in the use or occupancy of a
building/ structure or any portion/s
thereof which has different requirements

A

Conversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Remedial work done on any damaged or
deteriorated portion/s of a
building/structure to restore its original
condition

A

Repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The systematic dismantling or destruction
of a building/ structure, in whole or in
part

A

Demolition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A secondary building/ structure located
within the same premises, the use of
which is incidental to that of the main
building/structure

A

Ancillary building structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

RULE 2:
Administration and
Enforcement

Duties include: 
– Policy making
– Memorandum circulars
– Prescribe fees 
– Appoint building officials in all municipalities
A

Secretary of the DPWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
• Tasked with the enforcement of the Code
in his jurisdiction
• Issues, denies, suspends and revokes
permits
• Undertakes inspection of buildings
• Acts on claims
A

The Building Official

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

prescribes the fees

A

The DPWH Secretary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

collects the fees

A

The Building Official

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

list of fee exemption

A

Public buildings
• Traditional family dwellings
– A dwelling intended for the use by one family
and constructed of native materials (bamboo,
nipa, logs, lumber), the total cost of which
does not exceed PHP15,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

(8) offenses in building permit

A

•Proceeding with work without a permit
• Unauthorized deviations from the
drawings during construction
• Non-compliance with work stoppage order
• Non-compliance with order to demolish
•Use of a building without securing a Certificate of Occupancy
• Change in use without the corresponding
Certification of Change of Use
• Failure to post Cert. of Occupancy
• Change in type of construction without permit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

6 list to considered a dangerous buildings

A 
Structural hazard
• Fire hazard
• Unsafe electrical wiring
• Unsafe mechanical installation
• Inadequate sanitation and health facilities
• Architectural deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

3 Options for dangerous buildings

A

Repair
• Vacation
• Demolition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

RULE 3:
Permits

A written authorization granted by the
Building Official to an applicant allowing
him to proceed with construction after
plans, specifications and other pertinent
documents have been found to be in
conformity with the Code

A

Building permit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is a building permit required?

A

Before constructing, altering, repairing,
converting, moving, adding to,
demolishing a building.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

(2) Building permit exemptions

A
  • Minor constructions

* Repair works

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Minor construction examples

A

• Minor structures 6 sqm or less detached
from other buildings, for private use only.
(Example: Sheds, poultry houses,
greenhouses)
• Open terraces or patios not exceeding 20
sqm.
• Window grilles
• Garden pools 500mm deep or shallower
• Garden masonry walls not exceeding
1.20m in height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Repairs example

A 
• Not involving structural members
• Of non-load bearing partition walls
• Not involving addition or alteration
• Of doors, windows, floors, fences and
walls
• Of plumbing fixtures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bldg. Permit requirements?

A 
• Application forms
• If lot is owned,
– OCT or TCT
– Tax declaration
– Current real property tax receipt

• If lot is NOT owned,
– Contract of Lease or Deed of Absolute Sale in
place of TCT

• Five sets of plans and specs, signed and
sealed by various professionals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Issuance of permits

A

• 15 days from payment of fees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Liability clause
What article states that the engineer or architect who drew up the plans and specs is liable for 15 years from completion of the building should it
collapse due to defects in the plans or the ground?

A

Article 1723 of the Civil Code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q 
In case the building collapses due to
defects in construction or the use of
inferior materials, the\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_along
with the\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_shall be
liable.
A

contractor,construction supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Shall be secured before using or

occupying a building?

A

Certificate of occupancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Requirements of Certificate of Occupancy?

A

– Certificate of completion
– Logbook
– As-built plans and specs
– Building inspection sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Expiration of building permits

A

• Construction does not commence within 1
year from date of issue
• Construction does not resume 120 days
after suspension or abandonment of work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Non-issuance, suspension,

revocation?

A
  • Errors in plans and specs
  • Incorrect or inaccurate data declared
  • Non-compliance with the Code
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Inspection and supervision

• The owner of the building must engage
the services of a licensed architect or civil
engineer to undertake the__________of the construction.

A

full-time inspection and supervision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

RULE 4:

(5) Types of Construction

A

Type I
• Wood construction

Type II
• Wood construction with fire-resistant
materials
• One-hour fire-resistive throughout

Type III
• Masonry and wood construction
• One hour fire resistive throughout
• Incombustible exterior walls

Type IV
• Steel, iron, concrete, or masonry
construction
• Incombustible interiors (ceilings, walls)

Type V
• Four-hour fire resistive throughout
• Structural elements of steel, iron, concrete
or masonry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q 
Rule 5:
Areas within which only certain types of
construction are allowed, based on their
occupancy, type of construction, and
resistance to fire
A

Fire zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Fire zone designations

– All types of construction allowed?

A
  1. Non-fire restricted zones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Fire zone designations

– Type I construction NOT allowed?

A
  1. Fire restrictive zones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Fire zone designations

– Types I, II, and III NOT allowed?

A
  1. Highly fire restrictive zones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Buildings in multiple fire zones

• Shall be considered as part of the more
restrictive zone if______is in that zone

A

more than 1/3 of its total

floor area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

RULE 6:
Fire Resistive Requirements

• The degree to which a material can
withstand fire
• Usually expressed in the form of a time
period rating (how long a material can
withstand being burned)
A

Fire resistive rating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

RULE 7:
Occupancies + Requirements

Occupancies are assigned to________while zones are assigned to____________?

A

buildings,lands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q 
10 list of Occupancy classifications
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
I
J
A
  • A – Residential dwellings
  • B - Residentials, hotels, apartments
  • C - Education and recreation
  • D – Institutional
  • E – Business and mercantile
  • F – Industrial
  • G – Storage and hazardous
  • H – Assembly other than Group I
  • I – Assembly with 1,000 or more occupant load
  • J - Accessory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q 
Zoning classifications
R
C
GI
I
UTS
SPE
PRE
CUL
A
AI
PUD
A 
•R – Residential
•C – Commercial
• GI – General institutional
•I – Industrial
• UTS – Utilities, Transportation, Services
• SPE - Special
• PRE - Park structures, recreation,
entertainment
• CUL – Cultural
•A – Agricultural
• AI – Agroindustrial
• PUD – Planned unit development
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Occupancies

Residential building for single family
occupants?
Residential building for non-leasing
occupants not exceeding 10 persons

A

A – Residential dwellings
• A-1
• A-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Multiple dwelling units including boarding
or lodging houses, hotels, apartment
buildings, rowhouses, convents,
monasteries and other similar building each
of which accommodates more than 10
persons.

A

B: Residentials, hotels, apartments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

• Buildings used for school or day-care
purposes not classified in Group H or I
occupancies

A

C: Education + recreation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Institutions where personal liberties are

restrained (mental hospitals, jails)

A

D: Institutional

• D-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Institutions for the care of non-
ambulatory patients and children under
kindergarten age

A

D: Institutional

D-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Institutions for ambulatory patients and

homes for children over kindergarten age

A

D: Institutional

D-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

No work is done except exchange of
parts, maintenance without open flame,
welding, or highly flammable liquids
(gasoline filling station, storage garage)

A

E: Business + mercantile

• E-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Wholesale and retail stores, office

buildings, dining establishments

A

E: Business + mercantile

E-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Aircraft hangars and open parking

garages (no repair work)

A

E: Business + mercantile

E-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q 
• Light industrial
• Ice plants, power plants, pumping plants,
cold storage, factories and workshops
using incombustible and non-explosive
materials
A

F: Industrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Medium industrial, storage of highly

flammable materials

A

G: Storage + hazardous

• G-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Medium industrial, storage of flammable

materials: dry cleaning plants, paint stores, spray-painting rooms

A

G: Storage + hazardous

G-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Medium industrial structures where

loose combustible fibers are generated: wood working establishments

A

G: Storage + hazardous

G-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Medium industrial for repair garages

and engine manufacturing

A

G: Storage + hazardous

G-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Medium industrial for aircraft repair

A

G: Storage + hazardous

G-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Assembly buildings with stage for less

than 1,000

A

H: Assembly for less than 1,000

• H1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Assembly buildings without stage for

300 or more

A

H: Assembly for less than 1,000

H2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Assembly buildings without stage for

less than 300

A

H: Assembly for less than 1,000

H3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Recreational/tourism developments
not included in other H classifications
(stadiums, reviewing stands, and
amusement parks)

A

H: Assembly for less than 1,000

H4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Any assembly building with a stage and

an occupant load of 1,000 or more

A

I: Assembly for 1,000 or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Agricultural structures?

A

J: Accessory

• J1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Carports/garages, fences, towers and

pools

A

J: Accessory

J2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Stages, courts, tombs, mausoleums,

zoos, and banks

A

J: Accessory

J3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Zoning classifications

• Low-density residential zone
• Characterized by single-family and single-
detached dwellings

A

R1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

• Medium-density residential zone
• Characterized by low-rise single-attached,
duplex, or multilevel buildings for use as
multiple family dwellings

A

R2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

R2

  • Further subclassified into:
  • Single attached or duplex, 1-3 floors?
  • Low-rise multi-level building, 3-5 floors
A

– Basic R2

–Maximum R2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q 
• High-density residential zone
• Characterized low-rise or medium-rise
buildings for use as multiple family
dwellings
• Includes low-rise or medium-rise
condominium buildings
A

R3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

R3

  • Further subclassified into:
  • Rowhouses 1-3 storeys high?
  • Medium-rise multilevel structure 6-12 storeys high?
A

– Basic R3

– Maximum R3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

• Medium to high-density residential zone
• Characterized by low-rise townhouses or
buildings for use as multiple family
dwellings
• Refers to structures on an individual lot
(“townhouse”)

A

R4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

• Very high density residential zone

• Characterized by medium-rise to high-
rise condominiums

A

R5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  • Light commercial
  • Neighborhood to community in scale
  • Low-rise buildings (1-3 storeys)
  • Low-intensity trade/activity
  • Example: Small shopping centers
A

C1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  • Medium commercial
  • City or municipal in scale
  • Medium-rise buildings (3-5 storeys)
  • Medium to high intensity trade
  • Example: Shopping centers
A

C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q 
• Metropolitan commercial
• Metropolitan in scale
• Medium to high-rise buildings (3-5
storeys)
• Very high intensity trade
• Example: Large to very large shopping
malls
A

C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

• Community to national level of
institutional use. Low-rise to high-rise.
• Two types: – Education/Recreation

A

GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  • Light industrial use
  • Low-rise but sprawling
  • Low-intensity manufacturing
A

I-1 (Industrial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
  • Medium industrial use
  • Low-rise but sprawling
  • Medium-intensity manufacturing
A

I-2 (Industrial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

• Utilitarian, functional uses
• Low-rise to medium rise
• Low to high-intensity community support
functions
• Two clusters:
– Transport terminals, intermodals, depots
– Power/water generation/distribution, telcos,
waste management facilities

A

UTS (Utilities, transpo, services)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
  • Other vertical facilities not yet mentioned

* Included cemeteries and memorial parks

A

SPE (Special)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q 
• Low-rise to medium rise
• Low to medium intensity recreational
functions related to educational uses
(parks on campus, other
recreational/assembly structures on
campus)
A

PRE (Park structures,

recreation, entertainment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

• Community to national level of use or
occupancy
• Low-rise to medium rise

A

CUL (Cultural)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q 
• Low to medium rise
• Low to high intensity agricultural activity
• Includes farms, but also offices and
facilities for agricultural research and
training
A

A (Agricultural)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q 
• Low rise
• Low to high intensity agroindustrial
activity
• Includes offices and facilities for
agroindustrial education and research
A

AI (Agroindustrial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q 
• Land development or redevelopment
schemes for a new project which has a
CDMP (Comprehensive Development
Masterplan) or equivalent
• Example: Bonifacio Global City
A

PUD (Planned unit development)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The building adheres to
the stricter requirements.

– If it’s a one-storey building, in which case
each portion shall conform to applicable rules
– If the minor occupancy does not exceed 10% of the building, in which case it is ignored

A

Mixed occupancies
• Rule of thumb:
• Exceptions:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Occupancy separations
– Separation: 1 hour
– Openings: 1 hour

– Separation: 2 hours
– Openings: 2 hours

A
  • One-hour fire resistive

* Two-hour fire resistive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

– Walls and wall openings
• Walls: 3 hours fire resistive
• Wall openings: Total width shall not exceed 25% of
wall length. No opening shall be larger than 10
sqm.

– Separation: 4 hours
– Openings: Not allowed

A
  • Three-hour fire resistive

* Four-hour fire resistive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

• No building shall be constructed unless it
adjoins or has direct access to a public
space, yard, or street on at least one of its
sides.

A

Right of way/Access to property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Eaves over required windows shall at least
be 750mm from the side and rear
property lines.

A

Eaves over windows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

A fireproof barrier used to prevent the
spread of fire between or through
buildings

A

Firewalls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

• Why are firewalls important?

A

Because when they are built, the building or parts of the building extends into the setbacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q 
Allowable firewalls
Not allowed
– However, an abutment
up to 3.20m high is OK
for carports provided that
above 1.50m, the
abutment shall be
constructed of perforated
concrete blocks.
A

• R1:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

– Maximum 80% of the length of side property

line.

A

• R2: One side only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q
  • Maximum 85% of each side
  • Total should not exceed 65% of lot perimeter
  • Two storeys high only
  • 90% of side or rear (up to 100% for rear if only 4m)
  • Total should not exceed 50% of lot perimeter
  • Two storeys high for side, 3.20m high for rear
A

• R3: Two configurations are allowed:
– Option A: Two sides
– Option B: One side + Rear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

– Maximum 85% of each side
– Total should not exceed 50% of lot perimeter
– Maximum height: three storeys

A

• R4: Two sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q
  • Maximum 75% of each side
  • Total should not exceed 50% of lot perimeter
  • Maximum height: 8 storeys
  • Maximum 65% of side and 50% of rear
  • Total should not exceed 60% of lot perimeter
  • Maximum height: 8 storeys for side, 14m for rear
A

• R5: Two configurations allowed:
– Option A: Two sides
– Option B: One side + Rear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q
  • Provide sprinkler system
  • Install fire-retardant or fire-suppression devices
  • Maximum 70% of lot perimeter
  • RROW setbacks are complied with
A

• Commercial, institutional, and industrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q
  • The total floor space inside the building
  • Keyword: inside/enclosed
  • Includes services/parking (unlike GFA)
A

TGFA

• Total gross floor area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Allowable max. TGFA?

formula

A

• Format: Number of floors x footprint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

(7)Lot types?

A
  • Inside or regular lot
  • Through lot
  • Corner lot
  • Corner-through lot
  • Interior lot
  • End lot
  • Corner lot abutting 3 or more streets etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q 
• From established grade line to the topmost
portion of the building
• Excludes allowed projections above the
roof, like:
– Signage
– Masts
– Antenna or telecom tower
A

BHL

• Building height limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

highest adjoining sidewalk or

natural grade line

A

Grade line

104
Q

• If grade is sloping:

– If less than 3 meters diff.,

A

take highest grade

105
Q

• If grade is sloping:

– If more than 3 meters diff.,

A

take the average

106
Q

How to establish top of building

  • If roof is flat,top =
  • If roof is sloping, top=
A

rooftop

middle of roof height

107
Q

Building height + RROW
• The RROW width also dictates the BHL:
0-3m RROW:

A

2.0 storeys or 6.0m

108
Q

Building height + RROW
• The RROW width also dictates the BHL:
4-5m RROW:

A

2.5 storeys or 7.5m

109
Q

Building height + RROW
• The RROW width also dictates the BHL:
6-7m RROW:

Only exceptions:?

A

3.0 storeys or 9.0m

PUD

110
Q

Other considerations: BHL

A 
• The volume/bulk being constant, a
building with a lesser PSO or AMBF may
be built higher than one with a higher
PSO.
• A building with a greater TGFA
requirement may be built higher than one
with a lower TGFA requirement.
• A building with a higher FLAR
designation may be built higher than one
with a lower FLAR designation.
• Lots facing a wider RROW may become
the site of a taller building than a lot
facing a narrower RROW.
111
Q

Parking slot sizes
Car
Perpendicular parking-

A

2.50m 5.00m

112
Q

Car

Parallel parking-

A

2.15m 6.00m

113
Q

Jeepney

A

3.00 m 9.00m

114
Q

Standard truck/bus

A

3.60m 12.00m

115
Q

Articulated truck

A

3.60m 18.00m

116
Q

Sample parking requirements

• Hotels

A

– If highly urbanized, 1 slot for every 3 rooms
– If not, 1 slot for every 7 rooms
– 2 tourist bus parking slots
– 1 loading slot for articulated truck

117
Q

• Churches

A

– For every 50sqm. of congregation area, provide:
• 1 car slot
• 1 jeepney slot

118
Q

• Public universities

A
  • 1 car slot for every 5 classrooms
  • 1 loading space for 2 jeepney or shuttle slots
  • 1 school bus for every 200 students
119
Q

• Public hospital

A

• 1 car slot for every 25 beds
• 1 loading space for 2 jeepney/shuttle slots
• 1 slot for articulated truck
• 1 slot for standard truck for every 5,000sqm gross
floor area
• Add truck maneuvering space outside RROW

120
Q

Fractions in computations
• When computing for parking slots, a
fraction of______or higher shall be
considered as one slot.

• In all cases, at least one slot shall be
provided unless otherwise allowed.

A

50%

121
Q

Off-site parking lots
• If a multi-floor parking garage is located
within a_________of the building,______of the required parking provisions may be served the multi-floor parking garage.

A

200-meter radius

20%

122
Q

Off-site parking lots
• Reserved or leased parking slots may also
serve the parking requirements if:
– The slots are in a permanent parking building
and not in a vacant parking lot.
– The said parking building is:
• Not more than_______away, if residential

• Not more than______away, if commercial

A

100m

200m

123
Q

• To prevent this, direct access of
parking/loading/utility slots to the RROW
shall be disallowed

A

Maneuvering space

124
Q

• The building ingress and the intersection
shall be at least_________(measured
between the two nearest curbs)

A

50m apart

125
Q

Front yards as parking

• Not allowed for the following:

A

– R2 Maximum
– R3 Maximum
– GI
– C1, C2 and C3

• 50% of front yard may be used as parking
for R2 Basic and R3 Basic

126
Q

Minimum requirements

for Group A dwellings

A

Sanitation
• At least one sanitary toilet and adequate
washing and draining facilities

Foundation
• At least 250mm thick
• At least 600mm below the surface of the
ground

Structural loads
• First floor live load: 200kg/sqm
• Second floor live load: 150kg/sqm
• Wind load for roofs: 120kg/sqm (vertical)

Stairs
• Minimum width: 750mm
• Maximum riser: 200mm
• Minimum tread: 200mm

Entrance and exit
• At least one entrance, and another one for exit

127
Q 
Development controls
Terms defined:
• TLA=
• PSO=
• TOSL=
A

-Total lot area
-Percentage of site occupancy
o The part of the lot occupied by the building
(A.K.A. building footprint expressed in %)
-Total open space within lot
o The part of the lot NOT occupied by the
building

128
Q

formula?

• TLA=

A

• TLA = PSO + TOSL

129
Q

Terms defined
• USA=
• ISA=

A
  • Unpaved surface area

- Impervious surface area

130
Q

formula?
• Since “open space” = TOSL,
TOSL

A

TOSL = USA + ISA

131
Q

formula
• MACA=
TLA =

A

MACA = PSO + ISA

TLA = MACA + USA

132
Q

Terms defined
• AMBF=
• GFA=

A

Allowable max. building footprint
• Footprint expressed in square meters

Gross floor area
• Total enclosed floor area (including balconies)
• Excludes the following enclosed areas:
– Parking, services, utilities
– Vertical penetrations in parking floors if not used for
residential or commercial purposes
– Balconies exceeding 10sqm, uncovered areas, fire escape
structures, etc.

133
Q 
terms defined
• TGFA=
• AMVB=
• OFB=
• FLAR=
A

Total gross floor area
• Includes all enclosed floor areas, no exceptions

-Allowable max. volume of
building

  • Outer faces of the building
  • Floor and lot area ratio
134
Q

A volume quantity

fomula:
Building bulk=

A

Building bulk

Building bulk = Footprint x Height

135
Q
  • Determine the AMBF
  • Determine the BHL (in meters)
  • AMBF x BHL = Building bulk
A

Building bulk by AMBF projection

136
Q

formula

FLAR=

A

FLAR : Floor to lot area ratio
– Total floor area / lot area

– For example, a FLAR designation of 1.50 means
that a lot measuring 100sqm may accommodate
a building whose total floor area is 150sqm.

137
Q

formula

footprint=

A

[(FLAR x TLA)/number of storeys] x BHL

138
Q

a plane originating from the

RROW that establishes the outer limit for walls and building projections.

A

Angular plane

139
Q

Other development controls
formula
• AMBF (Allowable maximum building
footprint)

A

= TLA – Yards/setbacks + Additional area due to firewalls

140
Q

Other development controls
formula
• PSO=

A

• PSO = AMBF / TLA

141
Q

Other development controls
formula
• GFA=

A

• GFA = TLA x FLAR

142
Q

Other development controls
formula
• TGFA=

A

• TGFA = GFA + Non-GFA – Courts

143
Q

• Every building shall be designed,
constructed, and equipped to provide
adequate light and ventilation.

A

Intent

144
Q

Variables

A
  • Setbacks
  • Site occupancy
  • Room sizes
  • Ceiling heights
  • Window sizes
  • Courts
145
Q

• Taken at ground level and exclusive of

courts, yards, and light wells.

A

Measurement of site occupancy

146
Q

fomula

• TLA=

A

• TLA = PSO + TOSL

147
Q

formula
• TOSL

  • USA = minimum value
  • ISA = maximum value
A

• TOSL = USA + ISA

148
Q

the required open space left between

the outermost face of the building and the property lines

A

Yard

149
Q

the width of the yard

A

Setback

150
Q

Courts
• Minimum dimension:
• Hence, minimum area:
• All inner courts shall be connected to a
street or yard by a passageway at least__________

A

• Minimum dimension: 2.00m
• Hence, minimum area: 4.00sqm
-atleast 1.20m wide

151
Q

Joining of courts
• Minimum dimension may be reduced to_______in cluster living units with adjacent courts

  • Mininum area per court:
  • Separation wall:
A

1.50m
• Mininum area per court: 3.00sqm
• Separation wall: 2.00m high maximum

152
Q

Parking spaces and carports

• If a carport is roofed, it will be considered part of the_______and not the TOSL.

A

building footprint

153
Q

• However, uncovered parking spaces,
driveways, and access roads may be
considered part of the________if
unroofed/open to the sky

A

open space

154
Q

Use of front yard as parking
• Only allowed for single family dwelling
units falling under the following zoning
classifications:

A

– Basic R-2
– Basic R-3
– R-4

155
Q

Minimum ceiling heights

Ground floor:
Second floor :
Succeeding floors :
Mezzanines :

A

Ground floor 2.70m 2.70m
Second floor 2.40m 2.70m
Succeeding floors 2.10m 2.70m
Mezzanines 1.80m 1.80m

156
Q

Minimum room sizes

Room for human habitation
Kitchen
Toilet and bath

A

Room for human habitation
6.00sqm 2.00m

Kitchen 3.00sqm 1.50m

Toilet and bath 1.20sqm 0.90m

157
Q

Air space requirements

School rooms
Workshop,factories, offices
Habitable rooms

A

School rooms 3.00 cubic meters 1.00sqm
Workshop,factories, offices 12.00 cubic meters
Habitable rooms 14.00 cubic meters

158
Q

Windows

Habitable room
Bathrooms,laundry rooms,
etc.

A

Minimum area of windows
Habitable room 10% of floor area
Bathrooms,laundry rooms,etc. 5% of floor area

Absolute minimum

  • 1.00sqm
  • 240sq.mm.
159
Q

• Situated outside of private property limits
• Should be equally enjoyed by all members
of the community
• The only uses allowed are those that
support its public recreational character

A

Easement is public land

160
Q

Prohibited uses for easements

A

• Residential
• Long term parking, unless duly designated
as pay-parking zones
• Commercial/institutional uses not
compatible with its public character
• Any private use at the expense of the public

161
Q

Encouraged uses for easements

A
  • Esplanade developments

* Promenade developments

162
Q 
• The carriageway shall be free of structures,
particularly commercial signs that will
impede the view corridor and sightlines
within the RROW
• To dignify important public/historical
buildings, all forms of commercial signs
intruding into the RROW leading to or
away said structures shall be disallowed
A

View corridors + sightlines

163
Q

• No building shall be constructed unless it
adjoins or has direct acess to a public space,
yard, or road on at least one side.

A

RROW

164
Q

Allowed uses within the RROW?

A 
• Transportation structures
– Mass transit lines
– Mass transit stations
– Waiting sheds
– Traffic outposts
• Limited commercial structures if they are
complementary to the transportation uses
165
Q

Allowed uses within the RROW

• Improvements on the RROW

A 
• Improvements on the RROW
– Carriageway
– Sidewalks
– Planting strips
– Street furniture
– Elevated or underground crossings
– Traffic/directional signages
166
Q

Allowed uses within the RROW
• Public utility/service structures provided
that they do not restrict or impede the
movement of people and vehicles

A 
– Power
– Water
– Drainage
– Gas
– Telecommunications
167
Q

Prohibited uses within the RROW?

A 
• The RROW is public land and should be
equally enjoyed by all members of the
community
• Hence, the following are uses not to be
allowed within the RROW
• Commercial structures
• Residential structures
• Government structures unless located
below or above grade
• Long-term or overnight vehicle parking
unless duly designated as pay-parking
zones
• Depository of stalled, wrecked, or
abandoned vehicles
• Unauthorized recreational or
entertainment usage which will only
benefit certain entities and which will
ultimately result in inconvenience or
nuisance to the general public
168
Q

• Interior or rear lots shall have an access
road with a minimum width of 3.00m.
Provide a 4.00m wide chaflan at the
intersection with the main RROW.

A

Access to property

169
Q

The minimum___________wide access road
necessarily includes all provisions for drainage and for utility lines. It must be maintained free of all forms of obstructions at all times, particularly parked or abandoned vehicles that may impede rescue/emergency response.

Trees or plants should not be sited within any part of the minimum 3.0m wide access road i.e.suggested for planting within the property limits instead.

A

3.0 m wide

170
Q

Three RROW levels

A
  • RROW above grade
  • RROW at grade
  • RROW below grade
171
Q

• From the finished surface of the roadway
all the way up to the air
• If utilized for whatever purpose, the use or
air rights must be compensated for (leased
from the government)
• Minimum clear height: 4.27m from crown
of carriageway

A

RROW above grade

172
Q

• From natural grade line to the finished
surface of the carriageway or sidewalk
• Generally utilized for the movement of the
general public (motorists and pedestrians)
• If utilized for whatever purpose, proponent
must lease/pay the government

A

RROW at grade

173
Q

• From finished surface of roadway all the
way down into the ground
• If utilized for whatever purpose, proponent
must lease/pay the government

A

RROW below grade

174
Q 
• The local planning authority shall
determine which streets shall have an open
sidewalk or an arcaded sidewalk, or a
combination of both
• For a RROW width of 9.00m or more, the
minimum sidewalk width shall be 1.20m on
each side of the RROW. For RROW less than
9.00m, refer to Table VIII.G.3
A

Sidewalks

175
Q

Driveways across sidewalks
• If curb height = 200mm or lower, the
driveway and the sidewalk shall be on the
same plane. Provide entry ramp of slope_____connecting the carriageway to the sidewalk/curb.

A

slope 1/3 to 1⁄4

176
Q

Driveways across sidewalks
• If curb height = greater than 200mm, a curb cutout for the driveway may be allowed and the driveway may be constructed along the entire width of the sidewalk. The sidewalk and the driveway shall be joined by a ramp with a slope of not more than_____

A

1/8

177
Q

is meant to separate the

curb from the sidewalk, and must always be placed near the curbline.

A

Planting strips

178
Q

RULE 9:
Sanitation
• All buildings shall be provided with the ff:
– Adequate and potable water supply
– Adequate plumbing installation
– Suitable wastewater treatment/disposal system
– Storm water drainage

A

Basic sanitation provisions

179
Q

• Potable water shall be sourced from the
existing municipal waterworks system
whenever possible

A

Water source

180
Q

• Shall conform to the criteria in the National Standards for Drinking Water

A

Water quality

181
Q

• Sanitary sewage from buildings shall be
discharged directly into the nearest street
sanitary sewer main
• If no sanitary sewerage system is available,septic tanks may be used

A

Waste disposal system

182
Q

• Rainwater drainage shall not discharge into the sanitary system

A

Storm drainage

183
Q

• All plumbing installations (water supply

and drainage) shall conform to the National Plumbing Code

A

National Plumbing Code

184
Q

RULE 10:
Building Projections Over Public Streets

Are projections beyond the property line allowed?

A

• No. Unless otherwise allowed by the Code.

185
Q

Projections into the RROW

footings located at least 2.40m below grade may project 300mm (maximum) beyond the property line?

Foundations may encroach 500mm into the sidewalk if top of foundation is at least 600mm below grade

A
  • National roads or public highways

* Public sidewalk

186
Q

Balconies

• Clearance between sidewalk grade and
lowest portion of balcony=_______

A

3.00 m minimum

187
Q

may be constructed on sidewalks

of streets whenever allowed or required by existing building and zoning regulations.

A

Arcades

• Arcades shall be at least 3.00m above the sidewalk grade.

188
Q

• Unless at least 2.40m above the pavement,no door or window shall project beyond the property line when fully opened or upon opening.

A

Doors and windows

189
Q

• Every corner building or fence on a public
street less than 3.60m wide shall be
truncated at the corner to form a chaflan.
• The chaflan shall be at least 4.00m wide.

A

Chaflans

190
Q

RULE 11:
Protection of Pedestrians

• No person shall use or occupy a street orsidewalk for the performance of work
except in accordance with this rule

• No work shall be performed adjacent to apublic way unless pedestrians are protected
as specified in this rule

A

Protection of pedestrians

191
Q 
• Shall not obstruct utility provisions (fire
hydrants, fire alarm box, manholes)
• Shall not interfere with drainage
• Shall not interfere with vehicular and
pedestrian traffic
A

Storage in public property

192
Q

• The mixing of mortar or concrete shall not be allowed on public streets.

A

Mortar mixing

193
Q 
Temporary walkways
• When the Building Official authorizes a
sidewalk to be closed, a temporary
walkway at least 1.20m wide shall be
provided
• If the street has no sidewalk, width may be reduced to\_\_\_\_\_\_
• If RROW is\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_wide or less, no
temporary walkways are allowed.
A

• If the street has no sidewalk, width may be
reduced to 600mm.
• If RROW is 5.00m wide or less, no
temporary walkways are allowed.

194
Q

• If the sidewalk will only be partially
occupied, a temporary walkway will not be required provided that a width of at least 600mm with railings on the roadside is left open

• Provide railings (1.00m min. height) for
walkways located beside the road or an
excavation

A

Temporary walkways

195
Q

Fences + canopies
• Fences shall entirely enclose a construction
site
• Minimum height:

A

• Minimum height: 2.40 meters above curb

196
Q

Fences + anopies

• For canopies:

A

• For canopies: clear unobstructed height of 2.40m above the walkway

197
Q

RULE 12:
General Design Requirements

• Excavations must not endanger life or
property
• Any person undertaking an excavation
shall ensure that the soil of the adjoining
property will not cave in or settle.
• Cut slopes shall no be steeper than 2:1
(horizontal:vertical).

A

Excavations

198
Q

• Shall be determined by dividing the floor
area assigned to that use by the unit area
allowed per occupant as shown on Table
XII.1.

A

Occupant load

199
Q

Occupant load

A

Use- Area/occupant- 2 exits required if more than

Dwellings -       28.00 -          10
Hotels, apartments-    18.60- 10
Classrooms-           1.80-         50
School shops/labs- 4.60-       50
Hospitals-                8.40-        50
Stores – Basement- 2.80-     50
Stores – Ground floor-2.80-  50
Stores – Upper floors-5.60-   10
Stores – Offices-         9.30-   30
Auditoriums,theaters, churches,stadiums
                                         -0.65- 50
200
Q

Number of exits
• Every building shall have at___
• Upper floors with occupant load of more
than 10 shall have____
• A mezzanine floor bigger than 185sqm or
having more than 18.00m in any dimension

A

at least one exit
at least two exits
shall have at least two stairways to an
adjacent floor

201
Q

Number of exits

  • Every floor with occupant load of 500-999 shall have at least______
  • Every floor with occupant load of 1000 or more shall have______
  • 50% of floor above + 25% of floor above that
A

at least 3 exits.

at least 4 exits.

202
Q 
Width of exits
• Total width of exits =
• Note: This is the total width in meters
• Again, +50% of occupant load of storey
above + 25% of occupant load of storey
above that
A

Occupant load/165

203
Q

Arrangement of exits
• If two exits are required, the two exits must be apart by_____of the perimeter of
the area served.

• If three or more are required, they shall be arranged a reasonable distance apart

A

at least 1/5

204
Q

Distance to exits
• If without a sprinkler system, _____
maximum

A

45.00m

205
Q

• If with a sprinkler system, ______
maximum

• Measured from any point in a building,
measured along the line of travel

A

60.00m

206
Q

Exit doors

• When serving an occupant load of 50 or
more, must swing in the direction of exit
travel
• Double acting doors shall_____be used as exits when serving a tributary load of more than 100. Must be provided with a view panel of not less than 1300 sq. cm.

A

not

207
Q

• Exit doors shall be openable from the inside
without the use of a key or any special
knowledge or effort

A

Type of locks

208
Q

Size of doors

• Minimum width of doorway: \_\_\_\_
• Minimum height of doorway: \_\_\_\_
• Minimum clear width of exitway: \_\_\_\_
• Shall be capable of opening at least \_\_\_\_\_
degrees
• Maximum door leaf width: \_\_\_\_\_
A 
• Minimum width of doorway: 0.90mm
• Minimum height of doorway: 2.00m
• Minimum clear width of exitway: 0.70m
• Shall be capable of opening at least 90
degrees
• Maximum door leaf width: 1.20m
209
Q

Prohibited doors?

A

– Revolving doors
– Sliding doors
– Overhead doors

210
Q

• There shall be a floor or a landing on each side of an exit door
• The floor/landing shall not be more than
50mm lower than the door threshold
• Exception: For Group A or B occupancies, a door may open over the top step provided that
the landing is not more than 200mm from the
floor level and the door does not swing over
the top step.

A

Change in floor level at doors

211
Q

Corridors
• Minimum width:_____
• This width shall be unobstructed, except
that trim handrails and doors when fully
opened shall not reduce the required with
by more than 200mm.
• Doors in any position shall not reduce the
width by more than 1⁄2.

A

1.10m

212
Q

Dead ends

• Maximum length:

A

6.00m

213
Q

Stairway widths
• Occupant load more than 50: _____
• Occupant load of 50 or less: ______
• Occupant load of less than 10 (private): _____
• Handrails shall not reduce the width of
stairways by more than _____

A

• Occupant load more than 50: 1.10m
• Occupant load of 50 or less: 0.90m
• Occupant load of less than 10 (private): 0.75m
• Handrails shall not reduce the width of
stairways by more than 100mm

214
Q

Riser and tread
• Maximum riser: _____
• Minimum tread: _____

A
  • Maximum riser: 200mm

* Minimum tread: 250mm

215
Q

Stairway headroom

• Not less than____

A

• Not less than 2.00m measured from the nosing

216
Q

• Length = stairway width
• If the stairway has a straight run, landing
length does not need to exceed 1.20m
• Landing width shall not be reduced by more
than 100mm by any door when fully opened
• Max. vertical distance between landings:
3.60m

A

Landings

217
Q

• Stairways shall have handrails on each side
• If a stairway is more than 3.00m in width, at least one intermediate handrail shall be
provided
• Height of handrails: 800-900mm above the nosing of treads

A

handrails

218
Q

Basement stairways
• If a basement stairway and a stairway to an
upper storey terminate at the same exit
enclosure, a ________shall be provided to prevent persons from continuing into the
basements
• Also; provided directional exit signs

A

barrier

219
Q

• Allowed as exits as long as the required tread
(250mm) is provided at a point 300mm away
from the narrow end
• However, the tread must not be narrower
than 150mm at any point

A

Winding stairways

220
Q

• May be used as exits provided that the
minimum width of run is not less than
250mm

A

Circular stairways

221
Q

• Aisles leading to an exit shall be provided for
all portions with installed seats, tables, etc.
• Shall be at least 0.80m wide if serving only
one side, or 1.00m if serving both sides
• This minimum width shall be measured at
the point farthest from the exit, and shall be
increased by 30mm for every meter in length
towards the exit

A

Aisles

222
Q 
• The line of travel to an exit door by an aisle
shall not be more than 45.00m
• Maximum 7 seats between wall and aisle
• Maximum 14 seats between two aisles
• Maximum slope: 1 in 8
A

Aisle travel distance

223
Q

• The number of seats between aisles may be
increased to 30 if:
– Exit doors are provided along each aisle at the
rate of 1 pair of exit doors for every 5 rows of
seats
– The back-to-back distance between seats is 1.00m
minimum
– Minimum clear width of exit doors is 1.70m

A

Aisle travel distance

224
Q

Standard seats
• Back-to-back distance:____
• Width: _____

A
  • Back-to-back distance: 840mm minimum

* Width: 450mm minimum

225
Q 
Grandstands/bleachers
• Back-to-back distance:
– if without backrests
–  if with backrests
– if chair seating
A

– 600mm if without backrests
– 850m if with backrests
– 850mmif chair seating

226
Q

• Width:
• Rise:
• Number of seats between any seat and an aisle
shall not exceed 15 seats (31 seats bet. 2 aisles)

A
  • Width: 450mm minimum

* Rise: 400mm maximum

227
Q

• Automatic fire extinguishing systems are
required for the following:
– Habitable storeys with an area of 200 sqm or more with an occupant load of more than 20
– Dressing rooms, rehearsal rooms, workshops or
factories with occupant load of more than 10
– Assembly halls under Group H and I with
occupant load of more than 500

A

Fire extinguishing systems

228
Q

• All buildings 4 or more storeys in height shall
be equipped with one or more dry standpipes
• Standpipes shall be located within enclosed
stairway landings
• Siamese connections shall be located on the
street-front of a building 300mm-1200mm
above grade

A

Dry standpipes

229
Q

• The following shall have wet standpipes:
– Group H or I occupancy of any height
– Group C occupancy 2 or more storeys in height
– Groups B, D, E F and G 3 or more storeys in height
– Group G and E occupancy over 1800 sqm in area
• Exemption:
– Group H buildings without stage whose seating
capacity is less than 500

A

Wet standpipes

230
Q 
• All portions of the building are within 6.00m
of a nozzle attached to a hose 23.00m in
length (standpipes 58.00m apart)
• For assembly occupancies:
– 1 outlet on each side of the stage
– 1 at the rear of the auditorium
– 1 at the rear of the balcony
A

Locations of wet standpipes

231
Q

RULE 13:
Electrical + Mechanical

Referral codes
• All electrical systems and installations shall conform to the provisions of the Philippine Electrical Code pursuant to

A

RA 7920

Electrical Engg. Law

232
Q

• All mechanical systems and installations
shall conform to the provisions of the
Philippine Mechanical Code pursuant to

A

RA 8495 (Mech. Engg. Law)

233
Q 
Clearance of service drops
•  from highest point of roofs
•  from the ground
•  (horizontal) from windows/porches
•  from the crown of the street or
sidewalk

• No service drop conductors or any other
wiring shall pass over swimming pools

A 
Clearance of service drops
• 2.50m from highest point of roofs
• 3.00m from the ground
• 1.00m (horizontal) from windows/porches
• 5.50m from the crown of the street or
sidewalk
234
Q

• Hoistway pit: minimum 600mm from
underside of car to bottom of pit
• Maximum four elevators in a single
hoistway
• Residential buildings 5 storeys or higher
shall have at least one passenger elevator
on 24-hour constant operation

A

Elevators

235
Q

Escalators
• Maximum inclination:_____
• Width between ballustrades:_____
• Speed:_____

A

• Maximum inclination: 30° from horizontal
• Width between ballustrades: 560mm-
1200mm. Shall not exceed the width of the step by more than 330mm
• Speed: 38 meters per minute maximum
(common rule is 90-120 fpm/27.5-36.5mpm)

236
Q 
Air conditioning
• Comfortable cooling standards:
– Temperature: \_\_\_\_\_
– Humidity: \_\_\_\_\_
– Air movement: \_\_\_\_\_
A

• Comfortable cooling standards:
– Temperature: 20°-24° Celsius
– Humidity: 50% - 60%
– Air movement: 4.60-7.60 meters per minute

237
Q

• Installation of pumping equipment directly from the public water supply system is prohibited

A

Water pumping

238
Q

RULE 14:
Photo/X-ray Films

• Provide automatic fire extinguishing
systems for the ff:
– When unexposed films in shipping containers
exceed 14.00 cubic meters
– When shelving used for storing film exceeds
1.40 cubic meters in capacity

A

Film storage rooms

239
Q

• No films shall be stored within 600mm of steam pipes, chimneys, or other sources of heat

A

Film storage rooms

240
Q

RULE 15:
Prefabricated Construction

• A structural unit, the integral parts of
which have been built-up or assembled
prior to incorporation in the building
• To determine structural adequacy, they
shall pass special tests conducted by
accredited material testing laboratories
A

Prefabricated assembly

241
Q

RULE 16:
Plastics

Approved plastics
• Those which have a flame-spread rating ______
• Those with a smoke density not greater than that obtained from the burning of untreated wood
• Those whose products of combustion are no
more toxic than those of untreated wood

A

flame-spread rating of 225 or less

242
Q

Plastic doors
• Plastic doors are allowed except for
______ and _______, which
should be of materials other than plastics

A

entrance doors and exit doors

243
Q

RULE 17:
Sheet Metal Spray booths

• Paint spray booths shall be constructed of not less than No. 18 US Gauge in thickness
• The area of a spray paint booth shall not
exceed 150sqm
• The floor of the booth, if combustible, shall be covered with non-combustible material
• Shall permit the free passage of exhaust air

A

Sheet metal spray paint booths

244
Q

RULE 18:
Glass + Glazing

• Applies to all exterior glass/glazing except
Groups A, B, and J not taller than three
storeys
• Each glass panel shall bear the
manufacturer’s label designating the type
and thickness of glass

A

General requirements

245
Q

• Glass panels with special performance
characteristics shall bear the
manufacturer’s label indicating said
characteristics
• Measures shall be taken to keep persons
from walking into fixed glass panels where
the floor on both sides of the glass are the
same level (guardrails, etching, flower bins)

A

General requirements

246
Q

RULE 19:
Use of Computers

• The use of computers for all or any part of building design is permitted provided that all programs to be used are documented

A

General requirements

247
Q 
• File with the OBO a reference to a
publication accessible to him where a
detailed description of the program
including a description of the algorithms
are found
• The software name, version number and
the developer and its address shall be
provided as part of documentation
A

Program documentation

248
Q

RULE 20:
Signs

• No sign shall be erected in such a manner as to confuse or obstruct the view or interpretation of any official traffic
sign/device
• Signs in any foreign language shall have a translation in English or the local dialect

A

Signs

249
Q

• No sign shall be erected in such a manner as to confuse or obstruct the view or interpretation of any official traffic
sign/device
• Signs in any foreign language shall have a translation in English or the local dialect

A

Signs

250
Q

• No signs shall be installed on rooftops of buildings of wooden structures or of
buildings with wooden roof framing
• Provide grounding of metallic parts of roof signs exposed to lightning

A

Roof signs

251
Q

• Shall be located within the property line
and under no circumstances shall they
occupy the RROW

A

Ground signs

252
Q

Projecting signs

• On non-arcaded RROW:

A

– Signs shall not project more than 1.20m

253
Q

Projecting signs

• On arcaded RROW:

A

– Signs shall not project more than 0.60m

254
Q

Projecting signs

• Buildings abutting RROW without sidewalks:

A

– Signs shall not project more than 0.30m

255
Q

Projecting signs
• Minimum vertical clearance
– Non-arcaded RROW:

A

3.00m from road surface to lowest part of signs

256
Q

Projecting signs
• Minimum vertical clearance
– Arcaded RROW:

A

5.00m from road surface to

lowest part of signs

pd 1096 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions