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Principles of Pharmacology and Immunology (PPI) > Quiz 1 Exam 4 > Flashcards

Quiz 1 Exam 4 Flashcards

Innate and adaptive immunity + Immune disorders

1
Q

What are the two types of immunity in the body?

A

Nonspecific/innate and specific/adaptive immunity

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2
Q

What is the main response when nonspecific/innate immunity is triggered?

A

Inflammation

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3
Q

What are the main inflammatory mediators?

A

Small chemicals not encoded in the genes, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, histamine, and bradykinin.

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4
Q

What are cytokines?

A

These are small protein signalling molecules with the job of inter-cell communication. These cells tell the immune system to activate either the humoral or cellular response.

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5
Q

What are the 3 types of cytokines?

A

Interleukins, tumor necrosis factor, and chemokines

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6
Q

How do inflammatory mediators and cytokines act and where?

A

They act through conventional receptors initiating 2nd messenger systems. They act in damaged tissue.

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7
Q

What cell type is the source of histamine as an inflammatory mediator?

A

Mast cell

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8
Q

What do mast cell bind to?

A

IgE

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9
Q

How are mast cells activated to release their granule contents?

A

Once bound, calcium enters the cell and cAMP is made triggering the granules to release their contents.

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10
Q

What are the two main eicosanoids?

A

Leukotrienes and prostaglandins

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11
Q

What pathway makes leukotrienes from arachidonic acid?

A

Lypoxygenase pathway

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12
Q

What pathway makes prostaglandins from arachidonic acid?

A

Cyclooxygenase pathway

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13
Q

Where are leukotrienes typically located?

A

Mucus membranes

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14
Q

Where are prostaglandins typically located?

A

Systemic circulation

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15
Q

What are the two types of immune responses?

A

Humoral and cellular responses

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16
Q

When is the humoral response in the immune system activated?

A

Bacterial and extracellular pathogens.

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17
Q

Is the humoral response slow or rapid?

A

Rapid (24-48hr)

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18
Q

What molecule induces the humoral response and what are the effectors?

A

TH2 cytokines induce it while B-lymphocytes and antibodies are the effectors

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19
Q

When is the cellular response in the immune system activated?

A

Intracellular and viral infections

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20
Q

Is the cellular response slow or fast?

A

Slow (72h)

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21
Q

What molecule induces the cellular response and what are the effectors?

A

TH1 cytokines induce it while T-lymphocytes and natural killer cells are the effectors.

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22
Q

___________ determines the prevalence of a cellular or a humoral immune response.

A

Cytokines

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23
Q

Cytokines bind to ___________ receptors on the cell surface.

A

Tyrosine kinase (specifically Jak/STAT)

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24
Q

Cytokines initiate jak/STAT pathway to act as a ___________ factor.

A

Transcription

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25
Q

Interleukin-1 (IL1), a type of cytokine, activates what 4 things?

A
  1. Monocytes/ macrophages to induce inflammation
  2. Fibroblast proliferation for synovial pannus formation
  3. Chondrocytes for cartilage breakdown
  4. Osteoclasts for bone reabsorption
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26
Q

TNF-a, a type of cytokine, activates ____________ __________ in osteoarthritis to induce bone changes and cartilage degradation.

A

Synovial fibroblasts

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27
Q

How do TNF-a and IL1 act in arthritis?

A

Increased levels of TNF-a and IL1, cytokines, activate the immune response in the joints leading to damage in the pannus area.

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28
Q

What are chemokines?

A

These are small cytokines responsbile for directional cell migration. These direct immune cells to the site of damage.

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29
Q

Chemokines bind to __________ receptors.

A

G-protein. This is different than all the other cytokines.

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30
Q

What are the 6 main drug classes that target inflammation in the body?

A
  1. Antihistamines
  2. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
  3. NSAIDS
  4. DMARDS (Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs)
  5. Anti-proliferative drugs
  6. Steroids
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31
Q

What is the MOA of antihistamines?

A

Block histamine H1 receptors in the mucus membranes.

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32
Q

What is the MOA of acetaminophen (Tylenol)?

A

Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis in CNS.

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33
Q

What is the MOA of the NSAIDs?

A

Inhibits COX1, COX2, and NF-KB in the CNS and PNS/

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34
Q

What is the MOA of DMARDs?

A

Immune modulators

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35
Q

Histamine mediates __________ responses.

A

Allergic/anaphylactic

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36
Q

What is the biggest difference in 1st and 2nd generation antihistamines?

A

1st generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine and chlorpheniramine induce severe drowsiness while 2nd generations like cetirizine and loratadine are do not do that.

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37
Q

Why do 1st generation antihistamines make you more tired than 2nd generation antihistamines?

A

1st generation can enter the CNS and block H1 receptors there while 2nd generation only block H1 in the PNS.

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38
Q

What is the drug Azelastine (Astelin) used for?

A

This is an intranasal H1 receptor antagonist used for seasonal allergic rhinitis.

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39
Q

What are the 2 main side effects of Azelastine?

A

Bitter taste in mouth and nasal burning

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40
Q

What was the original NSAID?

A

Salicylate (Aspirin)

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41
Q

For the NSAIDs that end in -coxib, what is their MOA?

A

These NSAIDs are COX2 inhibitors only. The other NSAIDs like ibuprofen (Advil), diclofenac, naproxen, etc inhibit COX1 and COX2

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42
Q

What is different between the NSAIDs and Acetaminophen?

A

NSAIDs act peripherally while acetaminophen acts in the CNS.

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43
Q

What is a potential side effects associated with NSAID use?

A

Stomach lining damage

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44
Q

Selective COX2 inhibitors (-coxib) are associated with an increased risk of _________ and ________ due to COX-2 inhibitors disrupting the balance of prostaglandins, leading to increased clotting (via platelet aggregation) and blood vessel constriction.

A

Increased blood coagulation and elevated risk for a heart attack

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45
Q

What are the main uses for NSAIDs?

A

Pain relief, antipyretic, and antiplatelet (aspirin, aleve which are COX1 and 2 inhibitors)

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46
Q

What is unique about acetaminophen (tylonel)?

A

It only blocks COX1 and COX2 in the CNS. It also does not cause peptic ulcers and has no effect on bleeding.

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47
Q

What are the functions of the immune system?

A
  1. Distinguishing between self and non-self with the help of HLA and MHC markers
  2. Recognize and destroy antigen via nonspecific and specific immunity
  3. Promote repair of damaged tissues
  4. Surveillance
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48
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of nonspecific/innate immunity?

A

Immediate, limited duration, and lacks memory

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49
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of specific/adaptive immunity?

A

Slower, immunogen (antigen) specific, and memory

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50
Q

What are the main cells involved in the nonspecific/innate immune response?

A

Macrophages, Natural killer cells, Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and monocytes.

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51
Q

What are the cell types involved in the specific/adaptive immune response?

A

Suppressor T cells, Helper T cells, Memory T cells, Cytotoxic T cells, B cell, Memory B cell, plasma cell

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52
Q

What organ is the largest mass of lymphatic tissue?

A

Spleen

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53
Q

What are the main functions of the lymphatic system?

A
  1. Drain excess interstitial fluid
  2. Transport dietary lipids from GIT to blood
  3. Protect against invasion through immune responses
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54
Q

What are the primary lymphoid organs?

A

The primary organs are where stem cells divide and become immunocompetent (educated).

  1. Red bone marrow
  2. Thymus gland (where pre-T cells from the bone marrow mature)
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55
Q

What are the main secondary lymphoid organs?

A

This is where the immune response occur.

  1. Lymph nodes
  2. Spleen
  3. Lymphatic nodules
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56
Q

What are the two main groups of leukocytes?

A

Granulocytes and non-granulocytes

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57
Q

What are the 3 types of granulocytes?

A

Basophils, Eosinophils, and Neutrophils

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58
Q

What are the other names for neutrophils?

A

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes, PMNS, and polys

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59
Q

Which granulocyte is at the highest concentration?

A

Neutrophils at 50-70%

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60
Q

What are the 2 main types of non-granulocytes?

A
  1. Monocytes (blood) and macrophages (tissue)
  2. Lymphocytes (B cells, T cells, and NK cell)
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61
Q

What are the two cells types most important in antigen presentation?

A

Macrophages and dendritic cells

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62
Q

What is a main function of a macrophage?

A

Antigen presentation and phagocytosis and activation of bactericidal mechanisms.

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63
Q

What is the main function of dendritic cells?

A

Antigen presentation and antigen uptake in peripheral sites.

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64
Q

What is the main function of neutrophils?

A

Phagocytosis and activation of bactericidal mechanisms.

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65
Q

What is the main function of the mast cells?

A

Mast cells are basophils but in the tissue and not the blood. Mast cells function to release granules containing histamine and other active ingredients.

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66
Q

What is the main function of basophils?

A

Basophils are mast cells but in the blood and not the tissue. Basophils functions to promote allergic response and augmentation of anti-parasitic immunity. Mainly respond in allergic reactions though.

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67
Q

What is the main function of eosinophils?

A

They kill antibody coated parasites.

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68
Q

What is the function of natural killer cells?

A

NK cells release lytic granules that kill some virus-infected cells and tumors.

69
Q

What is clonal selection theory?

A

This is when a specific lymphocyte is cloned that is reactive to a certain antigen. This allows the body to respond to better get rid of the antigen.

70
Q

The 2011 Nobel Prizes in Medicine were awarded, in part, for immune funtion discoveries involving?

A. Antigenic mimicry
B. T help cell function
C. Toll-like receptors
D. Immunoglobulin structure and function
E. Complement deficiences

A

C. Toll-like receptors

71
Q

The single largest mass of lymphatic tissue in the body which is rich in B cells and is a major site of removal of worn out blood cells is what organ?

A

Spleen

72
Q

The major lymphatic ducts eventually return lymph back to the systemic circulation at the junction between which two things?

A. Subclavian and internal jugular veins
B. Inferior vena cava and iliac veins
C. Great saphenous and femoral veins
D. Right and left testicular veins
E. Dorsal metatarsal and rectal veins

A

A. Subclavian and internal jugular veins

73
Q

Which of the following would NOT be considered a component of nonspecific immunity?
A. Gastric juice, mucus, saliva and vaginal secretions
B. Phagocytosis by neutrophils
C. Complement activation
D. B cell/plasma cell production of immunoglobulin
E. Cell lysis by natural killer cells

A

D. B cell/Plasma cell production of immunoglobulin. This is apart of the specific/adaptive immune response.

74
Q

Which of the following is generally NOT a result of complement activation?

A. Neutrophil chemotaxis
B. Decreased vascular permeability
C. Opsonization of microbes
D. Formation of a membrane attack complex with resultant cytolysis
E. Release of histamine from mast cells

A

B. Decreased vascular permeability. As a result of complement activation, increased vascular permeability occurs.

There is chemotactic attraction of phagocytes which includes neutrophils, there is opsonization which is phagocytosis of microbes, it forms the MAC complex to make a hole and kill it, and C3a activates mast cells which release histamine to trigger inflammation to increase blood vessel permeability!

75
Q

T or F: The removal of potentially self-reactive immature lymphocytes occurs by clonal deletion.

A

True. The body removes immature lymphocytes that react to self-antigens

76
Q

What is hematopoiesis?

A

This is the process of creating new blood cells from stem cells.

77
Q

Which of the following is NOT true concerning cytokines?

A. Cytokines are soluble chemical mediators involved in cell-to-cell communication
B. Major functions of IL-1 and IL-2 include stimulation and activation of T and B cells
C. Interleukins, monokines, lymphokines, interferons and colony-stimulating factors are specific examples of cytokines
D. There are several examples of FDA-approved drug products that are actually cytokines, cytokine antagonists or colony-stimulating factors.
E. Increased cytokine production is always associated with improved immune function

A

E. Increased cytokine production is always associated with improved immunity.

78
Q

______ and ______ cytokines direct pluripotent stem cells to make myeloid stem cells. This will in turn make all blood cells except for B and T cells.

A

IL1 and IL3

79
Q

_______ and ______ cytokines direct pluripotent stem cells to make lymphocyte stem cells which will become B and T cells.

A

IL1 and IL7

80
Q

What does the colony stimulating factor (CSF), erythropoietin do?

A

Stimulates red blood cell growth.

81
Q

What does the colony stimulating factor (CSF), G-CSF, do?

A

It stimulates granulocyte growth (neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils)

82
Q

What does the colony stimulating factor (CSF), M-CSF, do?

A

It stimulates monocyte-macrophage growth and differentiation.

83
Q

What does the colony stimulating factor (CSF), GM-CSF, do?

A

It stimulates granulocyte and macrophage growth and differentiation.

84
Q

____________ infections result in an _________ response.

A

Extracellular (bacterial)
Antibody

85
Q

What type of cell makes antibodies?

A

B cells! They become big plasma cells and those guys pump out the antibodies.

86
Q

The antibody response from B cells is helped by which cell type?

A

T helper cells

87
Q

What is the surface marker on T helper cells?

A

CD4

88
Q

T helper cells recognize ___________ on the surface of other cells like macrophages and B cells.

A

MHC class II

89
Q

_______ infections result in a ________ ___ cell response.

A

Viral (Intracellular)
Cytotoxic T

90
Q

Cytotoxic T cell recognizes has ______ on its cell surface.

A

CD8

91
Q

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+) recognize complex of viral peptides with MHC class _____ and kills the infected cell.

A

I

92
Q

What is the role of interferons?

A

Interferons are apart of innate immunity. They protect uninfected host cells from viral infections if they are close to an infected cell.

93
Q

Helper T lymphocytes are the primary target of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), the causative organism of the Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS). Infection usually results in cellular apoptosis and/or lysis. As a result, which would you expect to be severely depleted in a patient with long-standing AIDS?

A. CD4 + cells
B. CD8+ cells
C. IL-1
D. TNF-alpha
E. All would be severely decreased

A

A. CD4+ cells. T helper cells express CD4 on their cell surface so killing these would reduce the number of this cell type.

94
Q

What is the complement system?

A

This is part of the both specific and nonspecific immunity. It is around 25 proteins that help the antibodies destroy bacteria.

95
Q

What is the goal of the complement system?

A
  1. Increase vascular permeability (helps get immune cells to where they need to be)
  2. Enhance phagocytosis (opsonization)
  3. Creates cell lysis-membrane attack complex (MAC) (punches hole in cell membrane and makes it die)
96
Q

T or F: There is only one way for an organism to activate the complement cascade?

A

False. There are many ways.

97
Q

What are toll-like receptors?

A

These are signalling receptors for Pathogen-associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs). Once bound, they initiate cascade events that signal to nuclear to produce a cytokine cocktail.

98
Q

T or F: TLRs are not specific for certain pathogens but exhibit polymorphisms and bridge the gap between innate and adaptive immunity.

A

False. TLRs are specific for certain pathogens however they do have polymorphisms and bridge the gap between innate and adaptive immunity.

99
Q

What are the two most important inflammatory cytokines?

A

IL1 and TNFa

100
Q
  1. Which of the following statements concerning helper T cells are true?

I. Recognize MHC class II self antigens via their CD8 molecule
II. Lyse virus-infected and malignant cells by secreting perforin
III. Have a regulatory and inducer role in coordinating the specific B and T cell responses

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

A

D. II and III only

These recognize MHC class II via their CD4 molecule not CD8.

101
Q
  1. Toll-like receptors (TLRs)…

I. Serve as signaling receptors for Pathogen-Associated Molecular Patterns
II. When activated induce cytokine production which is very organism-specific
III. Contribute to “bridge” nonspecific and specific immunity

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

A

E. I, II, and III. TLRs do all of the above

102
Q
  1. The major difference between interstitial fluid and lymph is:

A. The protein content
B. The location
C. The color
D. The taste
E. The cost

A

B. The location.

Interstitial fluid is the fluid that surrounds and bathes the cells in tissues. It leaks out of capillaries and carries nutrients, waste, and other substances. Lymph is essentially interstitial fluid that has entered the lymphatic vessels. It is transported through the lymphatic system, eventually draining back into the bloodstream.

103
Q
  1. Which statements concerning specific (adaptive) immunity are true?

I. Specific immunity primarily involves B and T lymphocytes
II. Specific immunity takes somewhat longer to initially develop as compared to nonspecific immunity
III. Specific immunity usually results in life-long protection as a result of immunologic memory

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

A

E. I, II, and III. Specific/adaptive immunity does all those things.

104
Q
  1. Toll Like receptors on immune cells such as macrophages and dendritic cells recognize specific foreign antigens through identification of:

a. Pathogen associated molecular patterns
b. T cell receptors
c. Interferon gamma release
d. Antigenic mimicry

A

A. PAMPs

105
Q

T or F: Cytokines secreted from activated macrophages like IL-1B, IL6, and TNFa play no role in fever production, neutrophil mobilization, or migration of dendritic cells to lymph nodes.

A

False! These cytokines do all those things and more!

106
Q

In nonspecific immunity, there are cells that are phagocytic and cells that are not. What are the two types of innate immune cells are phagocytic?

A
  1. Neutrophils (poly, PMNs, polymorphonuclear granulocytes)
  2. Monocytes-macrophages
107
Q

In nonspecific immunity, there are cells that are phagocytic and cells that are not. What is the cell in innate immunity that is not phagocytic?

A

Natural killer cells

108
Q
  1. Which of the following cell types is associated with immune surveillance and elimination of potentially early tumor cells or virus-infected cells?

a. Plasma cells
b. Neutrophils
c. NK cells
d. Dendritic cells
e. Th1 cells

A

C. NK cells (natural killer cells)

109
Q
  1. Which of the following are characteristics of adaptive immunity?
    Select all the apply.

a. Interaction with APCs and specific T cell receptors
b. Cytokine co-stimulation and T cell proliferation
c. Phagocytosis by neutrophils
d. Formation of B cells
e. Formation of T and B memory cells
f. Phagolysosome formation

A

A, B, D, and E

Adaptive is all about B and T cells!

110
Q
  1. Secondary lymphoid organs consist of (select all that apply):

a. Red bone marrow
b. Tonsils
c. Lymph nodes
d. Lymph nodule
e. Thymus gland
f. Spleen

A

B, C, D, and F

Red bone marrow and the thymus gland are part of the primary lymphoid organs.

111
Q

The main area for return of lymph back to the venous blood is the:

a. Right thoracic duct
b. Left thoracic duct
c. Left lumbar trunk
d. Intestinal trunk
e. Pulmonary duct

A

Left thoracic duct

112
Q

It is called a monocyte when it is in the _________ and a macrophage when it is in the ________.

A

Blood
Tissue

113
Q

How do monocytes/macrophages get to a site of injury?

A

They bind to adhesion molecules on the vascular endothelium and receive a chemokine signal. They migrate into the tissue and enter the site of infection.

114
Q

What does a viral-infected host cell release?

A

Interferon alpha and beta (IFNa and IFNb)

115
Q

What is the definition of an immunogen or antigen?

A

This is a substance that can induce a detectable immune response whether it be a humoral or cellular response.

116
Q

What is a requirement for immunogenicity (immune response to be had)?

A

The body most recognize something as foreign through the use of antigenic determinants called epitopes.

117
Q

What is the humoral response in specific/adaptive immunity?

A

B lymphocytes producing antibodies

118
Q

What is the cellular response in specific/adaptive immunity?

A

T cells using cytotoxic T cells.

119
Q

What are the 5 main characteristics of specific/adaptive immunity?

A
  1. Immunogenicity and antigen specificity
  2. Specificity and diversity through B and T cells
  3. Origin and development of B and T cells
  4. Clonal expansion (of each antibody and T cell)
  5. Memory cells
120
Q

Cellular/cell mediated immunity with cytotoxic T cells is directed towards __________ pathogens.

A

Intracellular

121
Q

Antibody-mediated immunity is directed against _________ pathogens.

A

Extracellular

122
Q

What is the function of cytotoxic T cells?

A

These are work for intracellular pathogens. They lyse the antigens.

123
Q

Which of the following is the predominant cytokine secreted by T helper cells that functions to stimulate activation and clonal expansion of T cells, B cells and NK cells?

A. CD4
B. IL-2
C. Healiotropin
D. TNF-alpha
E. Erythropoietin

A

B. IL-2. Interleukin 2 is a type of cytokine secreted from helper T cells that stimulates proliferation (clonal expansion) and differentiation of T cells, B cells, and NK cells.

124
Q

How does a macrophage present an antigen?

A
  1. Macrophage contacts with either A) just the antigen, B) Antigen/ Antibody complex or C) Antigen/antibody complex coated with complement (makes it yummy for macrophage)
  2. Macrophage engulfs it and degrades it with lysozymes
  3. Macrophage then presents whole antigen or part of it on its surface. The antigen is close to the MHC class II self-antigen.
125
Q

Are MHC class I or class II present on all cell types?

A

MHC class I is present on all cell types in the body while MHC class II is only present on antigen-presenting cells.

126
Q

What are the two cells that are crucial antigen-presenting cells?

A

Macrophages and dendritic cells

127
Q

T or F: All cells can engulf and present antigens to the immune system cells.

A

True! All cells can do this. The only difference is that normal cells will present the antigen with MHC class I while antigen-presenting specific cells will present the antigen with MHC class II.

128
Q

What are the two main cytokines that macrophages secrete?

A

IL-1 and TNFa

129
Q

What is the main function of interleukin-1?

A

To stimulate and activate T and B cells. A macrophage will present itself with antigen to T or B cell and secrete IL1 to activate them.

130
Q

What is the function of TNFa?

A

It functions to increases the killing ability of neutrophils and macrophages.

131
Q
  1. When you acquire a viral respiratory illness such as the common cold, which important chemical mediator is released from your virus-infected body cells and serves to communicate with nearby cells increasing their resistance to becoming infected (thus limiting the viral spread)?

A. Interferon
B. G-CSF
C. Lysozyme
D. TLR-4

A

A. Interferon

Interferons are apart of innate immunity. They protect uninfected host cells from viral infections if they are close to an infected cell.

132
Q

What is the effector cell for T lymphocytes?

A

Cytotoxic T cells and memory T cells

133
Q

What is the function of cytotoxic T cells?

A

They kill intracellular pathogens by punching holes in them.

134
Q

What activates the helper T cells?

A

Antigen-presenting cells expressing antigens on their surface bound to MHC class II which then secrete TNFa and IL1 to activate the inactive T helper cell.

135
Q

What is the function of helper T cells?

A

They help B cells produce antibodies and help phagocytes destroy pathogens. There are several subtypes of T helper cells including Th1, Th2, and Th17.

136
Q

T or F: T helper cells kill pathogens.

A

False. T helper cells do not kill anything. They coordinate the response towards the antigen through cytokine secretion.

137
Q

T or F: The primary difference between the white pulp and red pulp areas of the spleen is the absence or presence of red blood cells.

A

True

138
Q

Which cell types are found in a lymph node? Select all that apply.

a. Dendritic cells
b. Macrophages
c. B cells
d. T cells
e. Plasma cells
f. Neutrophils
g. Basophils

A

A, B, C, D, and E
Neutrophils and Basophils are circulating in the blood stream.

139
Q

How are the subtypes of T helper cells categorized?

A

They are categorized by the type of cytokine that secrete.

140
Q

Once a T helper cell is active, what is one of the most important cytokines it can secrete?

A

IL2

141
Q

T helper cells secrete many different types of cytokines. What are the 3 most important ones discussed in class?

A

A. Interleukin-2 (IL2)
B. Interferon gamma
C. Interleukins 4, 5, and 6

142
Q

What is the main function of interleukin 2?

A

It is secreted by T helper cells and stimulates the proliferation (clonal expansion) and differentiation of T cells, B cells, and NK cells. It also enhances cytotoxicity of cytotoxic T cells.

143
Q

What is the function of interferon gamma?

A

This is secreted from T helper cells. It activates NK cells to kill viruses and tumors and activates macrophages.

144
Q

What is the function of interleukins 4, 5, and 6?

A

These are secreted from T helper cells. They are involved in the activation, growth, and differentiation of B cells.

145
Q

What are the functions of B lymphocytes?

A

They stimulate the humoral arm of the immune system and it results in the activation of B lymphocytes and production of immunoglobulins/ antibodies.

146
Q

How do B cells become activated?

A
  1. Antigen binds to B cell to activate it via the epitopes.
  2. Helper T cell secretes IL 4, 5, and 6
  3. These cytokines allow for clonal selection of the B cells
  4. B cells become plasma cells and produce antibodies for that antigen
147
Q

The epitope on the antigen binds to the ________ end of the antibody.

A

Fab region

148
Q

What are the two most important immunoglobulins/ antibodies in protecting the host from foreign invaders?

A

IgG and IgM

149
Q

The complement proteins bind to what part of the antibody?

A

Fc region

150
Q

Is IgG or IgM better at activating the complement?

A

IgM is better at activating the complement as it has 5 complement binding domains compared to IgG having only one.

151
Q

Which immunoglobulin is the major one produced in the secondary response to an antigen?

A

IgG. B memory cells are mostly making IgG antibodies.

152
Q

What is the only class of immunoglobulins that can cross the placental barrier?

A

IgG

153
Q

What immunoglobulin is the major one produced in the primary response to an antigen?

A

IgM

154
Q

What immunoglobulin is involved in allergies and anaphylaxis?

A

IgE

155
Q

What are the main functional characteristics of the immunoglobulin IgG?

A

It neutralizes the toxin, activates the complement, and does opsonization of phagocytosis. It is the major immunoglobulin produced with the secondary response to an antigen.

156
Q

What is natural immunity?

A

This is when a person contracts a pathogen from a typical source like contaminated hands, sneezing, etc.

157
Q

What is artificial immunity?

A

This is when a person gains immunity due to a vaccine.

158
Q

What is active immunity?

A

This is when the patient has the illness and presents with symptoms of it.

159
Q

What is passive immunity?

A

This is when antibodies for something is given and the body has immunity to it but not response it given.

160
Q

What is an example of naturally acquired passive immunity?

A

This could be the transfer of IgG antibodies from mother to fetus.

161
Q

What is an example of artificially acquired active immunity?

A

Antigen given in vaccine and triggers an immune response.

162
Q
  1. Which of the following is an attribute of the immunoglobulin IgM?

A. Is associated with anaphylaxis (severe allergic reaction)
B. Is the earliest formed antibody following a primary (first) exposure to an antigen
C. Is the main antibody associated with the “memory” response to an antigen
D. All of the above are attributes
E. None of the above are attributes

A

B. IgM is the earliest formed antibody following a primary exposure to an antigen.

163
Q
  1. All pharmacy students are required to receive the hepatitis B subunit vaccine series (3 injections) upon entry to school. The 2nd and 3rd injections are intended to “boost” the immune response by increasing the protective levels of:

A. IgG
B. IgM
C. G-CSF
D. Neutrophils
E. Antigen presenting cells

A

A. IgG

164
Q

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and related drugs most act through inhibiting cyclooxygenases at the site of inflammation. They uniformly suppress fever and pain. Some members of this class of drugs have unique functions. What statement is correct?

A

Acetaminophen has no effect on bleeding and is suitable for pain after surgery.

165
Q

Which of the following is correct: Anakinra (Kineret) is….

A

a recombinant form of an endogenous protein

166
Q

Steroids are a group of endogenous hormones that may also have important drug functions. Which of the following statements about steroids is correct?

A

The adrenal glands usually produce about 20 milligrams of cortisol per day

167
Q

Which of the following is an antimetabolite drug?

A

mycophenolate sodium

168
Q
A

Principles of Pharmacology and Immunology (PPI) (7 decks)

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