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FNS 400 > Quiz #1 > Flashcards

Quiz #1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Management

A

process of integrating resources to accomplish objectives

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2
Q

What are the steps in the Management process?

A

Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Controlling

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3
Q

Define organization

A

a group of individuals working together in a structure and coordinated manner to achieve goals

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4
Q

Define Authority

A

delegated from top to lower levels of management; the right of managers to direct others based on position in an organization

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5
Q

Define Responsibility

A

obligation to perform an assigned activity or see that someone else performs it. Cannot be delegated or passed to someone else

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6
Q

Define Accountability

A

the state of being responsible to one’s self, to some organization, or to the public

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7
Q

Define efficiency

A

doing things RIGHT (e.g. getting the most output from the least input)

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8
Q

Define Effectiveness

A

Doing the RIGHT THING (e.g. choosing an appropriate goal)

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9
Q

What are the types of managers (by level in an organization)

A

Top managers; Middle Managers; First-line managers

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10
Q

What are top-level managers responsible for?

A

operate at the policy-making level. Control the organization. Develop vision for future, overall management, operating policies, interaction with the environment.

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11
Q

What are middle managers responsible for?

A

Operate at the Organizational level. coordinate activities that implement policies of the organization, facilitate these activities at the technical level. facilitate communication between lower and upper levels.

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12
Q

What are First-line managers / supervisors responsibilities?

A

operate at the technical core. supervise employees. Functional responsibilities may be included in their title (i.e. Kitchen supervisor, Bar manager). Responsible for day-to-day operation activities.

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13
Q

What are types of managers (by activities they are responsible for)?

A

General Manager; Functional manager

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14
Q

What is a general manager responsible for?

A

all activities of a unit (everything that happens on a specific shift is the responsibility of the GM on duty)

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15
Q

What is a functional manager responsible for?

A

only one area of organizational activity, such as the kitchen or bar.

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16
Q

What are the three main role categories of managers?

A

Interpersonal roles; Informational roles; Decisional roles

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17
Q

What types of roles fall under Interpersonal roles of a manager?

A

Figurehead; Leader; Liaison

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18
Q

Define a figurehead role

A

ceremonial duties of a manager must be performed and may involve a written proclamation or an appearance at an important event

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19
Q

Define a Leader role

A

manager in charge of organization or unit also responsible for work of the staff. Must encourage employees and assist them in reconciling personal needs with organizational goals

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20
Q

Define a Liaison role

A

manager must deal with people inside and outside the organization. Must relate effectively to peers, other departments and suppliers / clients (important in building manager’s information system)

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21
Q

What are the Informational Roles of a manager?

A

Monitor; Disseminator; Spokesperson

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22
Q

Define a monitor role

A

constantly monitors and searches for info to become more effective. Collect info in many forms and discern what is relevant for use

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23
Q

Define the disseminator role

A

transmit information to subordinates. Must make decisions concerning the information needs of staff members

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24
Q

Define the role of a spokesperson

A

manager must transmit info to people inside and outside the organization or unit.

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25
Q

What are the decisional roles of a manager?

A

Entrepreneur; Disturbance handler; Resource allocator; Negotiator

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26
Q

Define the role of an entrepreneur

A

manager is the voluntary initiator of change (i.e. a decision to change the menu after networking with other restaurants or customers)

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27
Q

Define the role of a Disturbance handler

A

respond to situations that are beyond their control - must act because the situation is too dire to ignore. (crisis situations)

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28
Q

Define the role of a resource allocator

A

manager decides how and to whom the resources of the organization will be distributed. must be mindful of the needs of each unit while considering priorities of the overall operation (often require compromise)

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29
Q

Define the role of a negotiator

A

participates in a process of give and take until satisfactory compromise is reached.

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30
Q

What are the main management skills

A

Technical; Human/Interpersonal; Conceptual

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31
Q

Define Technical skills

A

understanding and being proficient in a specific activity; particularly one that involves method or technique (require specialized knowledge)

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32
Q

Define Human/Interpersonal skill

A

working with people and understanding their behaviours (communication, leadership in the unit and skill in intergroup relationships)

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33
Q

Define conceptual skills

A

able to view the organization as a whole, recognizing how various parts depend on one another and how changes in one part affect other parts. (understand organization in the environmental context, systems approach to management) (recognize how various forces are interrelated to ensure that decisions are made in the best interest of the overall organization)

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34
Q

What are the ratios of managerial skills used at the different managerial levels

A

Human skill, is almost equally important for all levels. Technical skill is more important for lower managers/employees, conceptual skill importance increases as you move up the managerial levels

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35
Q

Define the management function of Planning

A

establish organizational objectives and set up procedures for reaching them. Initial plans are goals/objectives, then plans branch off from there. Planning is the first step for all other management functions (staffing, directing, organizing, controlling)

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36
Q

Describe the hierarchy of plans

A

Top to bottom = a few broad Goals/objectives, policies, many specific procedures and methods. (Policies are the guidelines for action and procedures an methods define steps for implementation)

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37
Q

Define the management function of Organizing

A

process of grouping activities, delegating authority to accomplish activities, coordinating relationships and facilitating decision making. Outcome is formal organizational development, usually in the form of a chart

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38
Q

What are the divisions of labour?

A

Vertically (through delegation of authority) and Horizontally (through departmentalization)

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39
Q

Define the management function of Staffing

A

determining the appropriate number of employees needed for work to be accomplished (steps designed to supply the right people, in the right quantities, to the right position at the right time) Primarily carried out by the personnel department.

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40
Q

Define the management function of directing

A

channeling human effort to accomplish objectives (concerned with individual and group behaviour) Create a motivating environment

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41
Q

Define the management function of Controlling

A

process of making sure that plans are being followed. Comparing what should be done with what was done, and taking corrective action if needed. Continuous process, affected by other managerial functions

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42
Q

What are standards used for?

A

Goals, objectives, policies established in the planning function become standards. Compare performance to standards and see the need for new goals, objectives and policies. [Standards = criteria that is expected to happen used to control performance]

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43
Q

What are the three steps of the controlling function of managers?

A
  1. Measuring actual performance and comparing it with standards.
  2. analyzing deviations between actual and desired performance and determining whether deviations are within acceptable limits
  3. taking action to correct unacceptable deviations
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44
Q

What are the types of organizational structures?

A

Traditional & Innovative

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45
Q

Describe a traditional organizational structure

A

organization chart and job descriptions; differentiation and departmentalization; integration of activities; delegation of authority levels; administrative systems (established line of authority, creates order)

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46
Q

Describe an Innovative organizational structure

A

empower decision making in employees; sociability & belonging to organization; new bases of management power (upward and lateral authority lines); personal consideration; team-based with group recognition; self-fulfillment; flat hierarchy; emphasis on vision and values; managers as change agents; technology savvy

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47
Q

What do Ontario’s QoL Centre General Guidelines include?

A
  • decisions are made at the lowest possible level
  • safety and health of employees are emphasized
  • immediate feedback of information needed to perform a job
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48
Q

What is corporate culture?

A

Shared philosophies, values, assumptions, beliefs, expectations attitudes and norms that knit an organization together.

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49
Q

Define positive culture - what are the components?

A

Integrity (build trust between people); Bottom-up style management; having fun; community involvement; emphasis on physical health and fitness

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50
Q

Define caring culture - what are the components?

A

have a written mission statement and remind employees of it; foster open-relationships between managers and employees; have a hands on style of management; empower hourly employees; recognize superior work and incentivize

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51
Q

Describe the divisions of labour

A

Vertical - lines of authority, facilitates communication flow (chain of commands)
Horizontal - group employees at similar levels in the organization, allowing them to work together. encourages idea sharing across departments. (cross training)
Team - entire organization is made up of work groups / teams. no hierarchy involved.
Matrix - experts from different departments are pulled together to work on a project

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52
Q

Describe the chain of commands

A

Clear and distinct lines of authority within an organization.
Unity of command: employees only report to one manager.
Scalar of Principle: clear and unbroken line of authority that extends from the bottom to the top in an organization

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53
Q

What is departmentalization?

A

process of grouping jobs according to some logical arrangement, most frequent method for implementing division of labour.
Departments can be organized by: function; product/service; geography; customer

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54
Q

Describe the 4 social responsibilities

A

Economic: the “must do” responsibility to produce goods and services of value to society and allow company to pay suppliers and stockholders
Legal responsibility: the “have to do” - must follow laws
Ethical responsibility: the “should do”. Follow generally held beliefs about behaviour in society
Discretionary responsibilities: the “might do” to voluntarily do good for others.

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55
Q

What is globalization?

A

interaction between people and organizations in different nations

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56
Q

What are the three attitudes of globalization? Which one is the most effective?

A

Parochial: inability to recognize differences between people
Ethnocentric: belief that the best practices and approaches are those of one’s home country
Geocentric: focusing on finding the best approach regardless of its national origin (most effective global perspective)

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57
Q

What are the 9 dimensions of how cultures differ? (GLOBE research)

A
  1. Assertiveness
  2. Future orientation
  3. gender differences
  4. humane orientation
  5. individualism vs. collectivism
  6. in-group collectivism
  7. performance orientation
  8. power distance
  9. uncertainty avoidance
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58
Q

Define motivation

A

inner force that activates or moves a person forward toward achievement of a goal
(needs –> drives/motives –> achievement of goals)

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59
Q

What are needs?

A

caused by physical (food, water, sleep) or psychological (esteem, affection, power) deficiencies.

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60
Q

What is Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

A

the theory that people are motivated by their desire to fulfill specific needs from the bottom to the top of the hierarchy.

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61
Q

List the needs of the Hierarchy Maslow)

A

Bottom to top needs=
Physiological (survival)
Safety (protection, security)
Social (love, belonging, affiliation)
Esteem (achievement, recognition, status)
Self-actualization (realizing potential growth using creative talents)

62
Q

give an example of methods for satisfying physiological needs in the foodservice organization

A

pay, benefits, working conditions

63
Q

give an example of methods for satisfying safety needs in the foodservice organization

A

benefit programs such as insurance / retirement, job security, safe working conditions, competent / consistent / fair leadership

64
Q

give an example of methods for satisfying social needs in the foodservice organization

A

friendly associates, organized employee activities

65
Q

give an example of methods for satisfying esteem needs in the foodservice organization

A

title and responsibility of job, praise and rewards, recognition, promotions, competent management, prestigious facilities

66
Q

give an example of methods for satisfying self-actualization needs in the foodservice organization

A

challenging work allowing creativity, opportunities for personal growth and achievement

67
Q

What is the Acheivement-power-affiliation theory of motivation?

A

Different people are motivated by different things, and each person has a varied combination of the three things (important for managers so they can increase job satisfaction of employees)

68
Q

Describe the achievement motive

A

desire to do something better or more efficiently than was done before. people with this need tend to go for managerial roles / sales positions. task oriented, like to get things done. Desire to perform challenging tasks. Low patience to manage employees with lower achievement motivation

69
Q

Describe the power motive

A

has concern for influencing people, loves competition, provides opportunities for them to feel dominant; seeks confrontation

70
Q

Describe affiliation motivation

A

desire to be liked by others and maintain relationships. Enjoy joining organizations and attending gatherings.

71
Q

Describe the two-factor theory of motivation

A

focuses on rewards / outcomes that satisfy needs. (Hygiene factors are related to the circumstances around the job and Motivators are related to the job itself). Satisfying HYGIENE needs does NOT lead to higher motivation, but when they are NOT MET they lead to LOWER motivation. Presence of MOTIVATORS can cause high levels of motivation but ABSENCE of these is NOT DISSATISFYING

72
Q

Name some Motivators

A 
Achievement
Recognition
Responsibility
Advancement
The work itself
Potential for growth
73
Q

Name some Hygiene factors

A 
Pay
Supervision
Job security
Working conditions
Organizational policies
Interpersonal relationships
74
Q

Describe expectancy theory of motivation

A

believes that people act in ways to increase pleasure and decrease displeasure. Concerned with the value employees place on rewards (valence)
Effort –> performance –> rewards
(helps managers understand why people act differently when working towards the same goal)

75
Q

Describe the reinforcement theory of motivation

A

also known as “operant conditioning” or “behaviour modification” theories. Focuses on the PROCESS of motivation. People behave a certain way because they learn that behaviours are associated with certain outcomes (positive / negative)

76
Q

Define job satisfaction

A

the person’s attitude about the workplace, determined by environmental conditions. (individuals mindset about the job - can be positive or negative)

77
Q

What is the association between job satisfaction and job performance?

A

research suggests there is little to no association. However…
Lower job satisfaction –> higher job turnover.
Higher job satisfaction –> higher OCBs

78
Q

What are OCBs?

A

Organizational Citizenship Behaviours. Voluntary behaviours that are above and beyond the call of duty (i.e. protection from theft, helping co-workers, developing own skills and abilities)

79
Q

Name and describe the types of organizational commitment

A

Affective Commitment - employees stay with an organization because they are happy being there. More likely to do OCBs
Continuous Commitment - employees stay because they think they must, not because they want to (the cost of leaving is too high) Less likely to do OCBs

80
Q

Define Leadership

A

the process of influencing the activities of an individual or group in efforts toward goal achievement

81
Q

Define power

A

means by which a leader influences the behaviour of followers (leaders influential potential)

82
Q

Define Legitimate power

A

individual holds a formal position in an organization; higher position = higher power. Followers comply due to position

83
Q

Define Reward power

A

leader is able to reward others (i.e. pay)

84
Q

Define coercive power

A

leader has ability to punish others who don’t comply to threats or demotion

85
Q

Define expert power

A

followers view leaders as experts in their job (certification, training etc)

86
Q

Define referent power

A

sometimes called Charisma - leader is well liked and admired

87
Q

Define information power

A

leader has access to wealth of info - seen as valuable

88
Q

Define Connection power

A

leader has connections inside and outside the organization and people hope to benefit from it.

89
Q

Which two powers tend to be related to subordinates’ satisfaction and performance?

A

Expert power and Referent power

90
Q

Which powers tend to be most important for compliance?

A

Expert and legitimate powers

91
Q

Describe Theory X- Theory Y philosophy of human nature

A

Negative theory X vs Positive theory Y
related to basic philosophies / assumptions that managers hold regarding the way employees view work and how they can be motivated.

92
Q

Describe Theory X

A 
Motivation is through fear
Supervisor must maintain close surveillance, protect employees from own shortcomings
autocratic managers (absolute power)
93
Q

Describe Theory Y

A

managers permit employees to experience personal satisfaction and be self-directed. Participative managers (encourage employees to participate)

94
Q

Define the Maturity-Immaturity theory of human behaviour

A

Individuals personality changes as they grow and mature.
Immaturity = passive, dependence, behave in few ways, erratic / shallow interests, short time perspective, subordinate position, lack of self-awareness.
Maturity = increased activity, independence, capable of behaving in many ways, deeper/stronger interests, long time perspective, equal or superordinate position, self-awareness and control.

95
Q

name and describe the basic leadership styles (decision making). Which one is the best?

A

Autocratic - makes most decisions
Laissez-Faire - allows the group to make decisions
Democratic - guide and encourage the group to make decisions.
Continuum is best

96
Q

Describe the leadership grid: Horizontal axis?
Vertical axis?
how many leadership styles?
how many are most common?

A

Horizontal axis = concern for production / results (9 possible positions)
Vertical axis = concern for people (9 possible positions)
81 total possible leadership types
7 most commonly discussed

97
Q

What are the 7 most common leadership styles discussed?

A 
Impoverished
Country club
Authority Obedience
Middle of the road
Team
Paternalistic
Opportunistic
98
Q

What is (1,1) leadership style?

A

Impoverished management. [indifferent, spend little effort to get work done, little concern for people and results]

99
Q

What is (1,9) leadership style?

A

Country Club management

[accommodating, want to achieve a friendly and harmonious environment, focus on positives]

100
Q

What is (9,1) leadership style?

A

Authority Obedience [controlling, enforcing the rules, directing and dominant, expect results]

101
Q

What is (5,5) leadership style?

A

Middle of the road [stick to status quo, balance getting results and making employees happy]

102
Q

What is (9,9) leadership style?

A

Team management [wants to develop relationship of respect and trust, involvement, commitment]

103
Q

What is (9,1) + (1,9) leadership style?

A

Paternalistic management [define initiative for others and themselves, discourage challenging plans, offer praise]

104
Q

What is (1,1) + (1,9) + (5,5) + (9,9) leadership style?

A

Opportunistic management [seek opportunities for benefiting themselves personally, see an opportunity and take it]

105
Q

Describe the leadership continuum

A

Left to Right:
Tells decision, sells decision, discusses decision, asks for input on decision, collaborates on decision, delegates responsibility for decision. No one leadership style will be the best in all situations, must use continuum of management styles depending on components involved.

106
Q

What are the components in the leadership continuum? (i.e. what does it depend on)?

A

MANAGER (leadership style, experience, value system, confidence in self)
SUBORDINATES (skill level, ability and willingness to assume responsibility, understanding of problem, comfort with shared decision making, work style and ethic, tolerance for ambiguity)
SITUATION (time pressure, organizational culture, effectiveness of work team, type of problem, involvement of others)

107
Q

What is the path-goal leadership model?

A

Contingency approach to leadership (subordinates motivation to achieve goals is considered - based on expectancy theory.)
Identify ways that employees expectations and valences are met (high value reward) to increase motivation. Focuses on leader’s impact on the subordinates goals and the path to achieve them.

108
Q

What are the 4 types of leadership behaviour (path-goal leadership model)

A

Directive (type of leader that provides guidelines, behaviours to ensure guidelines are followed, let people know expectations)
Supportive (friendly, attend to others needs)
Achievement oriented (want to improve performance by setting challenging goals)
Participative (information is shared by consulting with everyone - group decisions)

109
Q

What is emotional intelligence?

A

extent to which a person is in tune with their feelings and the feelings of others, and can manage their feelings and emotions. Involves self-awareness, communication, empathy, and self-regulation.

110
Q

What is social intelligence?

A

ability to use social perceptiveness and behavioural flexibility to determine requirements for leadership in a particular situation and select the appropriate response.

111
Q

What is metacognition?

A

Ability to learn, adapt and change. Introspectively analyze one’s ability to define and solve problems and find ways to improve. Includes self-awareness of one’s strengths and limitations related to skills and emotions.

112
Q

What are 4 things effective leaders do?

A
  1. develop and provide a complete vision
  2. earn trust and return trust
  3. listen and communicate effectively
  4. persevere when others give up
113
Q

List some ways leadership skills are developed

A

360-degree feedback (from all those around you)
Networking (interacting with individuals from outside and within organization)
Executive coaching (meeting individually with coach to determine strengths and weaknesses and develop improvement plan)
Mentoring (connecting with more experienced colleague)
Job assignments (experience of actually being in leadership role)
Action learning (leadership development is continuous process)

114
Q

What does the MBPT categorize personality as?

A

EXTROVERSION-INTROVERSION (EI)
SENSING-INTUITION (SN)
THINKING-FEELING (TF)
JUDGEMENT-PERCEPTION (JP)

115
Q

what are main differences between leadership and management?

A

Management is about coping with complexities, while leadership is about coping with change.
Management organizes and staffs people to achieve goals, while leadership focuses on aligning people towards goals and communicating/empowering to help achieve them.
Management control people by pushing them in the right direction; while leadership motivates them by satisfying basic human needs.

116
Q

What is organizational change and how do managers impact this?

A

change = moving from one state to another. managers = facilitate rate of change and outcomes *managers are change agents / catalysts.

117
Q

What are some factors that cause change?

A 
competition
government laws and regulations
economic and political pressures
technology
employee attitudes
workforce demographics
introduction of new equipment
118
Q

How does an organization adjust to change?

A 
change happens
anticipate change
monitor change
adapt to change quickly
change
enjoy change
be ready to change quickly
119
Q

What is the linking process?

A

Decision making, communication, balance.

needed to coordinate activities and accomplish goals. regulate flow of resources and input.

120
Q

Define the elements of the linking process

A 
Decision making (selecting a course of action from a variety of alternatives)
Communication (vehicle where decisions and information is transmitted)
Balance (ability of management to maintain an organizations stability)
121
Q

What are the 3 steps of decision making?

A
  1. defining the problem
  2. identifying and analyzing the possible outcomes
  3. selecting a particular course of action
122
Q

What is the difference between programmed and non-programmed decisions?

A 
Programmed = routine / repetitive decisions
Non-programmed = relatively unstructured, creative approach to decision making)
123
Q

What are some traits of programmed decisions?

A 
Reached by following policies and procedures.
Limited judgement.
Quantitative problems.
Reached in a short time frames.
Made primarily by first-line managers.
124
Q

What are some traits of non-programmed decisions?

A 
Reached by relying on wisdom, experience, and philosophic insight.
High degree of judgement.
Qualitative problems.
Reached in a longer time frame.
Made primarily by top managers.
125
Q

What are 2 types of nonprogrammed decisions?

A

Organizational (related to purpose, objectives, and activities of the organization)
Personal (concerned with the manager’s individual goals)

126
Q

What is the decision making process?

A
  1. recognize and define the problem
  2. identify alternatives
  3. evaluate alternatives
  4. select the best alternative
  5. implement chosen alternative
  6. evaluate outcomes
127
Q

Describe the conditions for making decisions

A

Decisions are made to impact future operations - need to make decisions based on whatever information is available, cannot predict future.
Condition of CERTAINTY - adequate information is available to assure result of decision (select alternatives that will maximize objectives)
Condition of RISK - results of decision are uncertain (estimating the likelihood of events in the future. can be based on research, experiences, data),
Condition of UNCERTAINTY - occurrence of future events cannot be predicted

128
Q

What are some approaches to making decisions under the condition of uncertainty?

A

Optimistic/Maximum (choosing alternative that is the best outcomes)
Pessimistic/Maximin (comparing possible negative outcomes of each option and choosing the one with the least negative effects)
Risk-Averting (choosing the least variation among possible outcomes)

129
Q

Name some decision making techniques

A

Decision trees
Cost benefit
Cost effectiveness

130
Q

Describe decision trees

A

assess the consequences of a sequence of decisions with reference to a particular problem.
Linking a number of event “branches” starting with a primary decision and 2 possible alternatives. Probability of each outcomes is ascertained along with monetary value. Manager chooses the one with the best potential payoff

131
Q

Describe cost-benefit decision making approach

A

compare the costs and financial benefits of a project or decision. (sometimes financial value is placed on intangible benefits, so they can be included in analysis). Compare the cost of implementing and maintaining the program with the increase in performance attributed to them.

132
Q

Describe the cost-effective decision making approach

A

compares alternative courses of action, in terms of their cost and effectiveness in attainging a specific objective. Used to minimize dollar cost and maximize some measurement of output subject to a budgetary constraint.
(compare alternatives, evaluate cost effectiveness, then rank them)

133
Q

When deciding between individual vs group decision making, what must be considered?

A 
complexity of decision
importance of the problem
time available to make decision
degree of acceptance required
amount of info needed to make decision
usual manner in which decisions are made in organization
134
Q

What are the 3 possibilities of managerial decision making

A 
Individual decision (using whatever info is available to them)
Group decision (manager is member of group that makes decisions)
Combination (consults with others then makes final decision)
135
Q

What are the different methods of group decision making?

A

Interacting groups
Delphi groups
Nominal groups
Focus groups

136
Q

Describe interacting groups

A

group comes together to discuss, argue and agree on a best option. promotes new ideas and understanding

137
Q

Describe Delphi groups

A

experts contribute individually by making predictions about specific problem. panel develops a consensus of expert opinions and then averages them all. good for forecasting technological breakthroughs, but too time consuming and costly to use everyday.

138
Q

Describe Nominal groups

A

generating creative and innovative ideas and alternatives. manager presents problems and has group write down solutions then take turns sharing to larger group, recorded on flip chart. members vote and rank on alternatives
manager ultimately accepts or rejects final outcome

139
Q

Describe focus groups

A

gathers information qualitatively. 10-20 ppl in a group for 2 hours to discuss particular topic. examines reasoning for human behaviour.

140
Q

What are some advantages and disadvantages of group decision making?

A

Advantage: more information and knowledge available.
Disadvantage: group processes sometimes inhibits full discussions of facts and alternatives, takes time, expensive, one person can dominate group

141
Q

what is groupthink?

A

Situation where reaching an agreement becomes more important to group members than arriving at a solution

142
Q

what is risky shift?

A

tendency for individuals in groups to take more risks than as individuals

143
Q

Define effective communication

A

the process of sending a message in such a way that the message received is as close to the meaning as possible to the message intended.

144
Q

What are the three elements to all communication?

A

Sender - message - receiver

145
Q

What is the formal communication process?

A 
sender message
message meaning encoded
transmitted through channels, influenced by noice
message meaning decoded
receiver understanding of message
feedback (back to sender)
146
Q

name some barriers to interpersonal communication

A 
hearing an expected message
ignoring conflicting information
different perceptions
evaluating the source
interpreting words differently
ignoring nonverbal cues
becoming emotional
cultural differences
linguistics
147
Q

What are 4 factors that influence effectiveness of an organizations communication?

A 
Formal channels of communication (may inhibit flow of information between levels, could inhibit messages from reaching top managers)
Authority structure (influences communication due to status and power differences)
Job Specialization (can help or hinder communication, members of groups speak same jargon)
Information ownership (unique info about their jobs, seen as a form of power which makes them unwilling to share with others)
148
Q

Name and describe the directions of internal communication

A

Downward (individuals at higher levels communicate downward to those at lower levels - job instruction, policy statements, procedure manuals)
Upward (individuals at lower levels communicate upward to those at higher levels - suggestion boxes, special meetings)
Horizontal (communication between departments of similar levels, enhances effectiveness - production teams and service team communicate)
Diagonal (channels / procedures must be in place for this to happen, minimizes time and effort expended to communicate - unit chef to purchasing manger, cuts out middle man)

149
Q

List forms of informal communication and pros/cons of each

A

Oral communication
(pro: easy to use, no stationary needed, can see facial expressions and nonverbal communication.)
(Con: message can be distorted)
Grapevine
(pro: meets social needs, speedy transmission of messages)
(con: message can be distorted, can lead to rumours/gossip)

150
Q

List forms of formal communication and pros/cons of each

A

Written communication
(pros: same words are communicated to everyone who receives the message, more accurate interpretation, used when consistent action is required or a record is needed.)
(con: inhibits feedback and interchange)
Electronic communication
(pros: quick, convenient.)
(cons: decline in informational communication, difficult to build strong culture, develop working relationships and create a mutually supportive atmosphere of trust and cooperation)

151
Q

What type of external environments affects an organizations design?

A 
Stable environment (little to no change, products are stable, no large changes in laws or regulations) *rare due to rapid changes in technology.
Changing (environmental changes can occur in the product, market, law or technology. No surprise to managers because trends are apparent) * many service industries in this environment
Turbulent (product design or production method is updated frequently, competitors market new/unexpected product, laws change company procedures radically) *period of turbulence does not last long
152
Q

What does a balance structure depend on? (opposing forces)

A

Force-field theory
maintain efficiency around the basics
engage in innovation on a regular basis
avoid calcification by ensuring responsiveness to major threats
force keeps organizational productivity from falling too low or going too high

FNS 400 (1 decks)

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