quiz #1 Flashcards

1
Q

Reasons for Mendel’s success

A
  • most people at the time studied complex traits –> complex results
  • he studied simple individual traits
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2
Q

Mendel conclussions

A
  • interpreted his quantitavely based on probability
  • alleles of unlinked genes sort independently (genes on teh same chromosome often exhibit various degrees of linkage depending on how close they are together –> chromosome mapping)
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3
Q

Advantages of peas for mendel’s work

A
  • many variants available from commercial sources
  • normally self-fertilizing (true breeding lines like homozygous)
  • easy to cross
  • crosses not easily contaminated with other pollen
  • relatively fast life cycle
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4
Q

simple dominant vs recessive alleles

A

dominant- often produce a functional gene product
recessive- often do NOT produce funcitonal gene product because most recessive genes are missing something (this is why most disease genes are recessive –> from mutations that eliminate gene function)

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5
Q

haplosufficient

A

one copy is enough for normal function in heterozygotes

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6
Q

types of loss of function mutations

A

null/amorphic: no functional gene product
leaky/hypomorphic: small amount of wt product or function
conditional: only manifest under a particular condition
**dominant negative **

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7
Q

dominant negative mutation

A

function of protein complex is altered by mutant gene product that interacts abnormally with its usual partners –> malformed protein complex

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8
Q

types of gain of function mutations

A

hypermorphic: more activity per allele than usual; often due to increase in gene copy number, higher transcription/allele or loss of inhibitors
neomorphic: mutants acquire novel gene activities that are not found in wild type; usually dominant

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9
Q

incomplete dominance

A

full contributions from both parents are required for full phenotypic expression
one copy works, but 2 copies work better

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10
Q

co-dominant expression

A

each allele produces a unique product which does not mask expression of the other
all alleles identified directly from DNA sequence data are always co-dominant (also applies to simple sequence repeats)

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11
Q

pleiotropy

A

the production, by one particular mutant gene, of unrelated multiple effects at the phenotypic level

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12
Q

multigenic trait

A

more than 1 gene specifying a given phenotype

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13
Q

positive genetic interaction example

A

suppression:
one allele is a suppressor for another mutant allele. Second mutation effectively “reverses” the effect of a mutation of another gene –> WT

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14
Q

negative interaction example

A

synthtic lethality
synergistic phenotype= contribution of 2 or more genes to a ……. exceeds the expectations from sum of their individual effects

WT: fully binding; fully functional
Mutant A: partial binding; functional
Mutant B: partial binding; functional
double mutant: binding impossible; nonfunctional

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15
Q

what does synthetic lethality suggest about molecular mechanisms?

A

share a common function (if cut off both, youre not going anywhere)

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16
Q

when does recombination happen?

A

prophase 1

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17
Q

why is recombination needed?

A

allows unfavorable alleles to be eliminated and favorable alleles to accumulate

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18
Q

forward vs functional genetics

A

forward: phenotye –> genotype
reverse: genotype –? phenotype

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19
Q

model organisms considerations

A

relevance and tractability
genetic and biochemical perspective

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20
Q

commonly used model organisms

A

e coli, budding yeast, round worm, fruit fly
zebra fish, mouse, thale cress plant

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21
Q

how are polynucleotide chains conneted in DNA and RNA?

A

phosphodiester bonds

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22
Q

DNA’s relation to:
2’ -OH
3’ -OH

A

2’ : DNA lacks
3’: where things are added on to

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23
Q

why use DNA for long-term storage of genetic info?

A

because DNA is not rapidly hydrolyzed under basic conditions, unlike
RNA because of the 2’ -OH

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24
Q

RNA sense vs antisense

A

RNA: top strand, same as sequence message
antisense: bottom/coding stand, complementary to message

often only top/sense strand is written

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25
Q

chargaff rules

A

suggested base pairing and replication mechanism
A=T, G=C

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26
Q

B-DNA

A
  • right-hand double helix
  • 20 A wide
  • 3.4 A vertical rise/ bp
  • 10.5 bp/turn
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27
Q

what is DNA stabilized by?

A

hydrophobicity, H-bonds, base stacking

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28
Q

why does DNA have T and not U?

A

C deaminates to U
U is removed from DNA by uracil-DNA glycosylase

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29
Q

why is 5’ methyl C often a hot spot for mutation?

A

5’ methyl C deamintes to T

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30
Q

recognition element

A

a-helix protein can easily bind to major grove IFFFF it has the correct pattern of H-bonding

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31
Q

R-group amino acids that can also make hydrogen bonds with base edges

A
  • polar and hydrophilic R-groups
  • Asn, Gln, Glu, Lys, Arg
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32
Q

how are polynucleotide chains flexible?

A

rotation around glycosidic bond

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33
Q

sugar pucker

A
  • pentose pops up; large impact on chain geometry
  • C-2’ endo predominant in DNA
  • C-3’ endo predoimant in RNA
34
Q

propeller twist

A
  • allows bases to stack in a way that excludes more water
  • constrained by H-bonds
    approx 3.2 for A=T
    6.7 for G=- C

exact compromise depends on local sequence

35
Q

GC rich regions vs AT rich regions

A

naturally “bent” DNA
GC rich: have WIDER minor groove (GC greater twist than AT)
AT rich: have NARROWER minor groove
sharp kinks at boundary of regions with greater propeller twist
eliminates need for certain regulatory proteins

TATA box bends DNA at 90 but if DNA is already bent, dont need TATA box

36
Q

A-DNA

A
  • short, fat, tilted, different pucker
  • predominates at low moisture
  • has low water content
  • naturally found in RNA/DNA and RNA/RNA helices (because RNA does 3’ pucker)
37
Q

how do extremophiles survive of 80 C and pH3?

A

by adopting the complete DNA in the A-form and therby aids protein to encapsulate DNA

38
Q

when does Z-DNA form?

A
  • at high [salt]: poly d(GC); poly d(AC)+poly d(GT)
  • under physiological conditions: poly d(GC) mainly form B-DNA
  • methylation of carbon 5 of G (m5G): shifts equilibrium to favor Z-DNA by binding a hydrophobic patch
  • underwinding caused by polymerases and helicases
39
Q

predicted effect of B–> Z shift?

A

radical change in gene expression

40
Q

what happens if you put methyl hydrophobic pocket?

A

can more easily transition into Z-DNA

41
Q

which DNA occur in nature?

A

All 3: B, A, Z

42
Q

hairpins and cruciforms

A
  • SS DNA can readily form hairpins but cruciforms usually not favored under phisiological conditions
  • SS binding proteins prevent hairpins during DNA replication
43
Q

triplexes vs quadraplexes

A

trip: “Hoogsteen” pairing; 3-stranded proteins
quad: 4 GC rich strands; form on telomeres with assistance of proteins

44
Q

how does RNA fold?

A
  • very compact –> less exposure to water (good)
  • structures can be predicted by having the most legative deltaG
  • greater structural flexibility of RN allows G=U (wobble) base pairs
45
Q

pseudoknots

A
  • make different sets of proteins byshifting reading frames in RNA
  • cause ribosomal frame shifting in HIV, to allow production of the reverse transcriptase needed for viral replication
46
Q

RNA features that increase secondary structure stability

A
  • unique recognition sites for aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases ribosomal proteins
  • A-form: closer phosphates
  • 2’ -OH hydrogen bonds
  • coordination with metals
  • direct to oxygen on an adjacent ribose
  • via a water, between a 2’ OH and a phosphate oxygen
47
Q

RNA tertiary structures

A
  • vast array, bind ligands and catalyze chemical reactions
  • self-splicing introns
  • riboswitches (can act different based on of its bound to a drug)
  • form peptide bond in robosomes (done by RNA chemistry, not any proteins)
48
Q

DNA hybrid formation

A

DS DNA melted and re-annealed
higher Tm: higher UV absorbance and lower viscosity

increased absorption = hyperchromic effect

49
Q

Tm depend on?

A
  • GC content
  • [salt] (if low, repels)
  • pH (low= depurination- purines bases fall) (high= disrupts H-bonds)
  • chaotropic agents
  • for short sequences, length is importnt

high salt= phosphate shielded
low salt = phosphates not shielded –> ripped apart

50
Q

between dsRNA and dsDNA, which is more stable?

51
Q

what nucleic acids can form hybrids?

A

from different species (alive or extinct)

52
Q

southern vs northern blotting

A

southern: separate DNA with restriction enzyme on native non-denaturing agarose gel (look at complex structure)
northern: separate RNA on denaturing gel (to have single strands so migration is based on size and not structure)

DNA or RNA on solid supports must be denatured before hybridization with labeled probe

restriction enzume to cut at wide ranges of sizes to see better in gel

53
Q

stringency of hybridization

A
  • conditions used during a nucleic acid hybridization experiment that determines how closely a probe sequence must match the target sequence to bind
  • how close are you to Tm? how much salt youre gonna put and at what temp?
54
Q

DNA supercoiling

A
  • when ends are fixed like in circular bacterial chromosome or the loop domains of eukaryotic chromosomes
  • underwinding: negative supercoiling –> facilitates strand separation (predominant in DNA)
  • overwinding: positive supercoiling
55
Q

linkage number

A

linkage= writhing # + twisting #
= number of times DNA strands twist about each other (a fixed number)

56
Q

supercoiling alterations

A
  • topoisomerases alleviate the stress of replication and transcription by introducing or relaxing supercoils –> allows DNA to maintain an underwound state
  • palindromic sequences allow cruciform DNA
57
Q

Type 1 topoisomerase

A
  • break 1 strand of DNA, pass unbroken strand through, and religate broken ends
  • changes linking number by 1 (delta Lk=1)
  • reaction cycle involves formation of an enzyme bridge that prevents uncontrolled relaxation of DNA
  • does NOT require ATP
58
Q

Type 2 topoisomerase

A
  • break both strands of DNA, pass unbroken strand through, and religate broken ends
  • changes linking number by 2 (deltaLk=2)
  • requires ATP
59
Q

bacterial DNA gyrase

A

introduces negative supercoils

60
Q

Eukaryotic type 2 topoisomerase

A
  • do not introduce - supercoils but can relax + and - supercoils and untangle DNA by allowing one strand of DNA to pass through another
61
Q

how do topoisomerases increase/decrease underwinding?

A

by changing linking number (Lk)

62
Q

topoisomerase inhibitor

A

Ciprofloxacin- for bacterial infections including Anthrax. Blocks DNA passage
Topotecan- antitumor agent, block human topo1

63
Q

electrophoretic mobility of linear DS DNA is determined by …………..

A

length

because charge of nucleic acids comes from phosphodiester backbone

64
Q

1% vs 2% gel

A

1%: if small, go right through and stack at the bottom
2%: avg pore size is smaller, so small stuff will get stuck where supposed to

65
Q

why cant you go higher than 0.5% gel?

A

because at some point, friction does not make that much difference

66
Q

standard DNA gel electrophoresis vs pulse-field electrophoresis

A

standard: can resolve fragments up to 50kb using 0.5% gels, which are very soft
pulse-field: separates DNA up to 10 Mb, using 1% ges, which are much easier to work with
- DNA slowly zig-zags down the gell
- every time the current shifts direction, DNA must re-orient to align with field before it can migrate
- small DNA reorients more quickly and thus moves faster

67
Q

what is used to visualize DNA with UV light?

A
  • ethidium bromide (EtBr): detection limit 0.5 to 5.0 ng/band; toxic
  • GelRed: less toxic because unlike EtBr, does NOT cross cell membranes

both intercalate between the basepairs of DNA

68
Q

blot hybridization

A
  • detect specific DNA and RNA sequences
  • charge on nucleic acids allows them to bind + charged surface (like nitrocellulose)
69
Q

housekeeping genes

A
  • used as controls on Northern blots
  • PECAM-1 (mRNA)
  • GAPDH (mRNA)
70
Q

recombinant DNA technology

A
  1. get DNA segment to be cloned (restriction enzyme and size selection after electrophoresis; direct synthesis)
  2. select DNA vector that can self-replicate (usually plasmid with antibiotic resistance gene)
  3. join 2 DNA fragments covalently (DNA ligase, Gibson assembly)
  4. transform recombinant DNA into a host (typically E. coli)
  5. select hosts that have recombinant DNA
71
Q

restriction enzymes

A
  • have different recognition sites and cut DNA differently
  • chop up foreign DNA if it comes with the wrong pattern
72
Q

what does cleavage of palindromic sequence generate?

A

DNA with complementary ends

73
Q

cloning vectors key features

A

origin of replication (high vs low copy #)
selectable marker (antibiotic resistance)
insertion site for foreign DNA (polylinker)

74
Q

Gibson assembly

A

glues things together without need for compatible (sticky) ends in a single isothermal reaction
1. exonuclease chews 5’ to 3’
2. single strand regions anneal
3. gaps filled by pol 1 and ligase

75
Q

DNA libraries

A

large collections of recombinant DNAs, each with same vector but different inserts
2 types
1. genomic library: entire genome is represented
2. CDNA library: expressed RNAs from particular cell or tissue-type are represented

76
Q

what does reverse transcriptase (RT) do?

A

generates complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA template

77
Q

Hairpin primed 2nd strand cDNA synthesis

A
  • reverse transcriptase form loop that can prime 2nd strand synthesis
  • forms due to endogenous RNase H actiivty of AMV reverse trasncriptase
  • simple, but unpredictable because the 2nd strand priming event can occur randomly along the mRNA template
  • must cleave loop with S1 nuclease
78
Q

template switching RT

A

when RT reaches the end of mRNA it often adds a few Cs (non-templated)
these can bind to G residues of a Template Switching (TS) oligo
RT can then extend across the TS oligo giving common sequence on the 3’ of all the transcripts

79
Q

PCR elements

A

DNA template, primers complementary to ends of target, dNTP, thermostable DNA polymeaser (pol)

80
Q

PCR steps

A
  1. assemble reaction mix minues pol on ice
  2. add polymerase and start first melt cycle
  3. anneal at temp that only allows primers to bind correct sequence (usually 5C below primer Tm)
  4. elongate (72 C for 1 min/kb)
  5. repeat (heat, anneal, elongate) 30-35x
  6. long final elongation to finish all ends
81
Q

heat-stable DNA polymerase

A

Taq!!!!!: can remain active after every heating up step; does NOT have proofreading activity and thus makes mistakes

Physion: have proofreding activity and 50x lower error rate

82
Q

what does CODIS show?

A

highly polymorphic regions in chromosomes