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AUDE 6120 > quiz 1 > Flashcards

quiz 1 Flashcards

1
Q

biochemistry

A

study of the molecular basis of life

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2
Q

what is the biological structure from the smallest to largest

A

atomic, molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, organism, population and ecosystem

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3
Q

ion

A

electrically charger atom or molecule that is formed by the loss or gain of one or more electron
-can be charged

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4
Q

cation

A

positive charged ion
-occurs with the loss of an electron

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5
Q

anion

A

negative charged ion
-occurs with the addition of an electron

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6
Q

molecule

A

smallest unity of a substance that has all properties of that substance
-made of chemical bonds

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7
Q

radicals

A

type of uncharged atom without a full outer shell
-equal number of electron and protons
-creates a chemically unstable atom

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8
Q

what can too many radicals do to other molecules

A

they can damage them over time

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9
Q

compound

A

combination of elements within a chemical union
-combine in a reproducible way meaning they can be converted into simpler forms

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10
Q

mixture

A

two or more different elements or compounds that are intermingled
-occurs because the elements bond
-ex. salt and water

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11
Q

non uniform mixture

A

two or more substances without fixed proportions and without chemical bonding
-ex. oil and water

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12
Q

chemical bonds

A

attractions between atoms that allow for the formation of chemical substances, containing two or more atoms
-can be covalent or non covalent bonds

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13
Q

covalent bonds

A

results from the sharing a pair of electrons between two atoms
-bonding between nonmetals
-the strongest and most stable type of bond because there is a higher energy required to break the bond

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14
Q

what do covalent bonds hold together

A

proteins, carbohydrates and lipids

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15
Q

non covalent bonds

A

consists of ionic (electrostatic), hydrogen, hydrophobic attractions and van der waals bonds

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16
Q

ionic (electrostatic) bond

A

electrostatic bonds between two ions of opposite charges
-bonding between metal and non metal
-occurs from the transfer of one or more electrons from a metal onto a non metal
-this is weaker than covalent

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17
Q

hydrogen bond

A

force that occurs only between a positive hydrogen atom and a electronegative atom such as oxygen, nitrogen or sulfur
-weaker bond
-any molecules that has a hydrogen atoms attaches to an oxygen or a nitrogen is capable of this bonding

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18
Q

what is needed to separate a hydrogen bond

A

more heat

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19
Q

what functions does a hydrogen bond perform

A

holding two strands of DNA together, holding polypeptides together, helping enzymes bind to their antigen, helping transcription factors bind to each other and helping transcription factors bind to the DNA

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20
Q

van der waals bond

A

a molecule can attract each other at moderate distances and repel each other at a close range
-the bigger the atom or molecule, the bigger the force will be
-weaker than covalent, ionic or hydrogen bond

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21
Q

what is the most common bond between atoms

A

van der waals bonds

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22
Q

redox reactions

A

family of reactions that relate to the transfer of electrons
-reaction occurs with both oxidation and reduction
-this is a matched set

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23
Q

oxidation

A

the loss of electrons

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24
Q

reduction

A

the gain of electrons

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25
Q

what has the tendency of oxidation? reduction?

A

metal atoms ; nonmetal atoms
-when the metal atom loses an electron, the nonmetal gains that electron

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26
Q

oxidative stress

A

disturbances between the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) and a biological systems antioxidants defense
-disturbances between the two leads to excess ROS that can damage components of the cells

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27
Q

what do antioxidants do?

A

helps against free radicals

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28
Q

what can oxidative stress lead to?

A

severe stress may cause cell death by necrosis (sudden, fills with fluid and bursts) and moderate stress can trigger apoptosis (controlled, cell suicide)

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29
Q

chronic inflammation

A

a continued active inflammation response and tissue destruction
-the immune system is at a heightened response process without going down

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30
Q

what are some risk factors of chronic inflammation

A

hypoxia, obesity, hyperglycemia and smoking

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31
Q

what are the cardinal signs of inflammation

A

redness, swelling, heat, pain and loss of function

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32
Q

what is the importance of pharmacology within the audiology profession

A

there are many reactions that can affect the auditory and vestibular system
-we need to be able to recognize and prevent an ototoxic effect of a chemical
-we need to be able to manage the ototoxic effect once it has occurred

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33
Q

enzymes

A

catalysts that speed up a chemical reactions within the cells
-set of enzymes made within a cell determine which metabolic pathways will occur in that cell
-these has to fit into a certain cell for the reaction to occur (lock and key)

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34
Q

examples of enzymes

A

collagenase or lactase
-anything ending in -ase

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35
Q

inhibitors can _________ enzyme activity. activators can __________ enzyme activity.

A

decrease ; increase

36
Q

neurotransmitters (NT)

A

chemical messenger that carriers, boosts and modulates signals between neurons and other cells in the body
-usually released in the axon terminal after an AP has reached the synapse

37
Q

examples of NT’s

A

dopamine and acetylcholine

38
Q

what does an excitatory NT mean? inhibitory NT?

A

increased likelihood that neurons will fire an AP ; decreased likelihood that neurons will fire an AP

39
Q

hormones

A

chemical substance that is produced and released by a set of cells and is conveyed by the bloodstream to another to cause activity
-usually a peptide or steroid
-chemical messengers

40
Q

examples of hormones

A

thyroid hormone, cortisol, estrogen

41
Q

neuromodulators

A

substance that is released by a neuron and transmitting information to other neurons, altering their activities
-more diffuse response
-important for sensory transmission

42
Q

examples of neuromodulators

A

substance P (modulated pain)

43
Q

quinine

A

found from bark of some trees
-used for malaria

44
Q

synthesis of arsenicals

A

synthesized by attaching an arsenic atom to a carbon atom
-within meds today but not on its own

45
Q

digitalis

A

from the digitalis purpurea or lanata
-used to treat congestive heart failure

46
Q

morphine

A

isolated from opium which is found within the poppy plant
-used for pain control

47
Q

caffeine

A

extracted from the coffee plan coffea arabica
-stimulates the CNS, heart and muscles
-relieves mental and physical fatigue

48
Q

atropine and scopolamine

A

isolated from the plant atropa belladonna ; which is dose dependent as the entire plant is poisonous
-atropine dilates pupils
-scopolamine used for motion sickness

49
Q

salicylic acid

A

from willow bark and is a chemical precursors to aspirin
-increases the risk of bleeding, ulcers and tinnitus

50
Q

epinephrine

A

a hormone that is produced within the neurons of the CNS and within chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla
-this is a hormone and neurotransmitter

51
Q

penicillin

A

found within a mold (penicillium notatum) that inhibited growth of a bacteria (staphylococcus aureus)
-arranged for production because it was needed for the war

52
Q

what was the doctrine of signatures

A

the idea that signatures of earth objects give a resemblance to something bodily which could be used to treat that body structure
-i.e. walnuts were used to treat ailments of the head because they had the signature of the head, sliced carrots looked like an eye and they were used to enhance blood flow to the eyes

53
Q

what act occurred that created the FDA due to unsafe conditions within meat packaging

A

pure food and drug act

54
Q

food, drug and cosmetic act of 1938

A

required proof of a drugs safety and purity
-required pre market approval from the FDA

55
Q

what prompted the pre market approval to occur

A

the strep-elixir incident

56
Q

durham-humphrey act of 1952

A

authority to determine which drugs are sold without prescription
-this introduced over the counters

57
Q

what introduced the need for proof of efficacy

A

amendments to the food, drug and cosmetic act of 1938

58
Q

FDA expanded access program (1987)

A

allowed the FDA to permit pharmaceutical companies to broaden access to investigational products while they are still undergoing clinical trials

59
Q

with dietary supplement’s, the FDA oversees the safety however they do not evaluate them for what

A

efficacy of the supplements

60
Q

controlled substances act (1970)

A

the DEA administered this and regulated manufacturing and distribution of substances with the potential for abuse
-including opioids, stimulants and sedatives

61
Q

black box warning (2016)

A

the strongest warning about the risk of misuse, abuse, addiction, overdose and death for short acting opioid pain medications

62
Q

right to try law

A

drugs used after phase 1 clinical trials but before FDA approval may be used in dire circumstances with no other choices

63
Q

what is the FDA

A

a regulatory agency that is involved with the regulation of drug development

64
Q

what is the FDA responsible for

A

protecting the public health by assuring the safety, efficacy and security of drugs and other products AND advancing the public health by helping to speed innovations that make medicines more effective, safer and affordable

65
Q

the FDA regulates anything …..

A

that goes in or on the body

66
Q

what is the life cycle of drug approval

A

drug discovery phase, drug development phase and post approval regulation

67
Q

short term toxicity testing

A

testing in animals
-determination of the lethal dose (LD50) and the effective dose (ED50)

68
Q

margin of safety

A

how safe the drug is, how much is between a lethal and effective dose
-LD50/ED50
-greater than 2000 in humans

69
Q

long term toxicity (chronic toxicity studies)

A

daily dosing given for between 3 months and 2 years
-observes for toxicities and evaluates blood chemistries
-animal is then sacrifices and histopathology is found

70
Q

what are two additional specialized studies

A

studies on reproduction and studies on carcinogenicity

71
Q

investigational new drug application (IND)

A

required at the start of clinical trials
-submitted if the drug has a impressive margin of safety, if a drug lacks long term toxicities, if a drug does not cause cancer/reproductive effects or birth defects

72
Q

what is found in the IND

A

data from animal studies, protocols for human tests, chemical structure, how the drug is synthesized, formulation of dose form and packing information

73
Q

clinical studies consist of how many phases

A

3

74
Q

clinical studies phase 1

A

determines what the drug does to the body
-20 to 100 healthy volunteers
-lasts for several months
-non blinded trial (everyone knows what is being administered)

75
Q

clinical studies phase 2

A

study of short term effectiveness and safety
-up to several hundred patients
-trial lasts for several months to two years
-single blind trials (participants do not know what they are getting, but investigators do ; used with a placebo or existing therapy)

76
Q

clinical studies phase 3

A

confirms drug safety, dosage and effectiveness
-ranging from several hundred to several thousand with more diverse groups
-randomized, double blind studies (no one knows what group they are in)

77
Q

what is one problem with the clinical study phase 3

A

a small number of patients are taking this drug for maybe up to 4 years when in comparison millions will be taking it long term

78
Q

new drug application (NDA)

A

submitted after the successful conclusion of clinical trials
-if FDA approves, the drug manufacture can sell the new product
-everything that occurred within any trial needs to be documented and submitted

79
Q

post marketing surveillance

A

occurs after the FDA approval, phase 4 studies
-drug is monitored for the remainder of its life span
-a drug can be pulled off the market if new toxicities are uncovered

80
Q

abbreviated new drug application (ANDA)

A

application of generic drug approval for an existing licensed medication or approved drug
-generally not required to include preclinical and clinical trial data however it is required that the drug shows that it is bioequivalent

81
Q

bioequivalent

A

means it has the same effectiveness as the other drug but is tweaked in a slight way
-works at the same pace and delivers the same effect

82
Q

patent

A

protection that gives you the right for you to manufacture and produce something
-protects the ability of your work so no one else can do the same thing

83
Q

what are some factors that affect drug cost and drug development

A

research/development costs, complicated manufacturing process, extent of coverage/reimbursement for the drug by a third party (such as insurers), desired profit margin of the manufacturer, maximizing profits prior to patent expiration and export to foreign countries

84
Q

pharmacoepidemiology

A

study of drug outcome as documented in observations of clinical data from large populations of patients receiving routine care
-typically done with Medicare patients

85
Q

medications studied here are similar to ones found within an individual patent however…

A

true randomization does not occur, intervening decision making/behavior of doctors and patients can alter the drugs effects, outcome is measured in terms of probabilities of events, and magnitude of drug experienced in the analysis is much larger than that of conventional pharmacology

AUDE 6120 (4 decks)

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