Quiz #1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is passive immunity

A

Results from the transfer of preformed antibodies to an unimmunized host. Naturally Passive immunity is a pregnant woman passing IgG antibodies through the placenta or
IgA in breast milk. An example of acquired immunity would be vaccines or injected serum human immune globulin.

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2
Q

Innate Immunity

A

Natural, an individuals ability to resist infection by means of normally present body functions. The same for all pathogens to which one is exposed. Ready for immediate action. External and Internal parts.

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3
Q

Adaptive immunity

A

resistance characterized by specificity for each individual pathogen, and ability to remember prior exposure. Takes longer to be activated but last longer. Key cells = lymphocytes.

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4
Q

Cell - mediated immunity

A

T cells express surface markers that allow them to recognize foreign antigens bound to cell membrane proteins. Produce cytokines and stimulate B cells to produce antibodies. T cells, macrophages, phagocytosis.

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5
Q

Humoral immunity

A

non - cellular components in blood responsible for protection when having previous exposure. Antibodies and complement

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6
Q

Vaccine definition

A

Antigen suspension derived from a pathogen, stimulate an immune response to an infectious disease. A form of immunoprophylaxis. Killed or attenuated.

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7
Q

Phases of Primary antibody response

A
  1. Exposure to antigen
  2. Long lag phase (Ab not detectable)
  3. Increase in titers
  4. Short plateau phase during which antibody titer stabilizes
  5. Decline phase in which antibody is catabolized.
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8
Q

How does one diagnose a current infection

A

IgM is found in the primary response, and is first to appear after antigenic stimulation, used to diagnose an acute infection. Or a 4 fold rise in IgG.

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9
Q

What is the prozone phenomenon

A

Precipitation decline on either side of the equivalence zone because of an excess of antibody. No cross - linkages are formed, may cause a false negative reaction and sattle formation. Dilute out antibody and perform again.

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10
Q

Sensitivity

A

Proportion of people who have a specefic disease and who have a positive test. Sensitivity = True positives/ True positives and false negative x 100

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11
Q

Specificity

A

Proportion of people who do not have the disease and who have a negative test. Specificity = True negatives/ True negatives + False positives x 100

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12
Q

Advantage of ELISA over RIA

A

Comparable sensitivity without the risk of health hazards, problems with disposal, or short half life. ELISA is sensitive, specific, simple and lost cost.

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13
Q

Advantage of ELISA over IF/ agglutination

A

greater sensitivity, able to detect analytes that are small in size or low in concentration

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14
Q

In ELISA, hoe can the specific immunoglobulin class present be determined

A

By using enzyme - labeled anti - immunoglobulin antibodies (conjugate) that is specific for a single isotope or class of immunoglobulin. IgM is an anti - conjugate

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15
Q

Desirable traits of an enzyme used in ELISA tests

A

High turnover, stable, ease of conjugation, lack of endogenous enzyme in patient sample, ease of detection, compatible with standard conditions used in ELISA.

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16
Q

What are the two enzymes used in ELISA tests

A

Alkaline Phosphatase and Horseradish Peroxidase

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17
Q

In what forms does Giardia exist

A

Trophozoite ( pear - shaped and non infectious), cyst ( highly infective and lives outside of body for days),

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18
Q

How is Giardia transmitted

A

Water contamination, food contamination, sexual contact, travel, direct contact

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19
Q

What are the symptoms of giardia

A

acute diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, lassitude, malabsorption, steatorrhea

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20
Q

What diseases can giardia be confused with

A

Chrons and Ulcerative colitis, IFD

21
Q

What type of organism is cryptosporidium

A

minute coccidian protozoa, parasite

22
Q

How is cryptosporidium transmitted

A

Direct contact with infected animals or from ingestion of fecally contaminated food or water.

23
Q

What lab tests are available for the detection of infection with H. pylori

A

Detection of urease from biopsy taken from the antrum of the stomach using the CLO test in Microbiology. Urea breath test, enzyme or lateral flow immunoassays for detection of antigens in feces.
Bacterial culture on chocolate agar, rapid urease.

24
Q

Describe production of specific H. pylori antibodies

A

Antibodies have little effect in eradication of organism, specific IgG and IgA are elevated. After treatment, antibody levels fall over months.

25
Q

Why is an H. pylori infection significant

A

major cause of gastric and duodenal gram negative in thirty percent of population in developed countries and more than 10 percent in developing countries. May lead to gastric carcinoma.

26
Q

What take of organism is Toxoplasma gondii

A

protozoan parasite

27
Q

How can toxo be transmitted to humans

A

Humans can become infected by eating raw or undercooked meat, ingesting oocysts from cat feces. Tachyzoites can be transmitted through placenta to fetus.

28
Q

Possible complications of fetal toxoplasmosis

A

Miscarriage, stillbirth, mental deficits, vision and hearing loss, seizures, hepatosplenomegaly.

29
Q

What test confirms positive IgG and IgM

A

IgG avidity test, high avidity is past infection, low is recent infection.

30
Q

What is platelet factor 4

A

Platelet protein with high affinity for heparin

31
Q

What is seen in patients who have antibodies to platelet factor 4

A

Thrombocytopenia, Heparin induced.

32
Q

What other methods are available for testing for platelet factor 4

A

serotonin release test and platelet aggregation

33
Q

What is chemiluminescence

A

emission of light caused by a chemical reaction, typically an oxidative reaction, producing an excited molecule that decays back to its original ground state

34
Q

Principle of the liaison

A

Particle in conjugated to a monoclonal antibody. IF the antibody is bound to the antigen of interest, it remains in the test system where it is stimulated to release light energy. If antigen is not present, conjugate us washed away.

35
Q

How does Lyme disease manifest in a patient

A

Early phase - localized, skin lesions, bullseye rash (EMS), 2 days to 2 weeks
Early phase - disseminated, arthritis, neurological, cardiac
Late (chronic) - 6 to 12 months of persistent symptoms

36
Q

What other lab test aid in diagnosis of Lyme disease

A

IFA, EIA, PCR, and culture, Western Blot used as a confirmatory test after IFA/EIA

37
Q

What is the principle of the QFT-G assay

A

Interferon gamma is released if the patient has TB antibodies, have lymphocytes in blood that recognize antigens and lymphocyte release the Interferon gamma.

38
Q

What antigens are present in the QFT-G antigen tubes

A

ESTAT - 6, CFP - 10, which are synthetic peptides.

39
Q

What is the vaccination strain for tuberculosis

A

Bacille Calmette Guerin (BCG)

40
Q

Which Mycobacteria cross react with the QFT-G plus assay

A

M. kansasii, M. szulgai, M. marinum

41
Q

Disadvantage of the TST ( skin tb test)

A

cutaneous sensitivity, false positives after vaccination, 2 trips to doctor, subjective reading, foreign object in arm.

42
Q

Disadvantages of the QFT- IT assay

A

Blood must be processed within 16 hours after collection, limited data on it on patients who are younger than 17, errors in collection, expensive

43
Q

Epidemiological predictors for TB include what

A

Exposure, healthcare workers, jails, homeless shelters, high TB in country, traveling.

44
Q

Indeterminate results may occur as a reuslt of what in the QFT test

A

Incorrect technique, didn’t use heparin, incorrect transport, high levels of interferon, longer than 16 hours to incubation, immunosuppressive therapy.

45
Q

What are the two disease with bowel disease

A

Chrons disease - lesions, oval to anus
Ulcerative colitis - only affects the colon
Both are chronic with leukocyte infiltration of bowel wall, pain, diarrhea, and bloody stool

46
Q

What does elevated fecal calprotectin indicate

A

Neutrophil presence in stool, inflammation of the intestines

47
Q

Which organ produces elastase

A

Pancreas

48
Q

What does a decrease in fecal elastase indicate

A

Chronic pancreatic insuffeciency