quiz 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the anatomical position (body, hands, feet)

A

Body: Standing and facing forward with the arms to the side
Hands: Palms face forward with extended fingers and the thumbs pointing away from the body
Feet: Slightly apart and toes pointed forward

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2
Q

Define Anterior (ventral)

A

viewing the body or parts of the body from the front

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3
Q

Define posterior (dorsal)

A

viewing the body or parts of the body from behind

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4
Q

Define Superior (cranial)

A

toward the head

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5
Q

Define Inferior (Caudal)

A

Toward the feet

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6
Q

Define Proximal

A

being closer to the body midline or origin of a body structure
Ex: knee is proximal to the ankle

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7
Q

Define distal

A

being farther away from the body midline or origin of a body structure
Ex: knee is distal to the hip

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8
Q

Define Flexion

A

decreasing the angle between limb bones at a joint, bending

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9
Q

Define extension

A

increasing the angle of limb bones at a joint, extending

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10
Q

Define abduction

A

movement of limbs away from the body

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11
Q

Define adduction

A

movement of limbs toward the body midline

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12
Q

Define rotation

A

movement of a limb along its axis at a joint

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13
Q

Define circumduction

A

movement of a limb in a conical shape at a joint

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14
Q

Define supine

A

the body is laying facing upward

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15
Q

Define prone

A

the body is laying facing down

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16
Q

Define supination

A

forearm: The forearm rotates palms facing forward/anterior
foot: the foot leans inward relative to the lower leg

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17
Q

Define pronation

A

forearm: forearm rotates palms facing backward/posterior
foot: foot leans outward relative to the lower leg

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18
Q

Define the coronal/frontal plane

A

divides the body into anterior and posterior sections

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19
Q

Define the sagittal/longitudinal plane

A

divides the body into left and right sections

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20
Q

Define transverse/axial plane

A

divides the body into superior and inferior sections

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21
Q

describe day 1 of early embryogenesis

A

a zygote forms (2N)

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22
Q

describe day 4 of early embryogenesis

A

cleavage produces a morula

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23
Q

describe day 5 of early embryogenesis

A

a fluid-filled cavity forms inside the morula, producing a blastula

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24
Q

describe day 6 of early embryogenesis

A

the blastula splits into 2 cell masses: the inner embryoblast and an outer trophoblast.
implantation begins.

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25
Q

define gastrulation

A

1-layer embryoblast becomes a 2-layer then 3-layer gastrula

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26
Q

how is the bilaminar disc formed

A

flattened into 2 flat, oval cell layers

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27
Q

what forms the initial gastrula

A

bilaminar disc, which eventually establishes the ventral-dorsal axis in the second. week

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28
Q

what is the ventral layer called

A

hypoblast

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29
Q

what is the dorsal layer called

A

epiblast

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30
Q

define primitive streak

A

a thickening down the midline of the epiblast that occurs in week 3

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31
Q

what establishes the cranial-caudal axis

A

primitive streak in the 3rd week

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32
Q

what is the primitive node

A

cranial end

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33
Q

how is the germ layer formed

A

epiblast cells divide and migrate through the primitive streak in week 3

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34
Q

what does the epiblast turn into?

A

ectoderm

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35
Q

define mesoderm

A

migrates ventrally between epi- & hypo-blast

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36
Q

define endoderm

A

migrates ventrally and replaces the hypoblast

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37
Q

describe embryo folding

A

lateral folding turns the flat trilaminar disc into two tubes

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38
Q

what is the somatic layer of the embryo folded tube called?

A

outer tube

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39
Q

what is the visceral/splanchnic tube called?

A

inner tube or the primitive gut tube

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40
Q

define neurulation

A

ectoderm folds and divides into 3 parts during week 3

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41
Q

what are the 3 layer divisions of ectoderm folds

A

surface ectoderms
neuroectoderm
–neural tube
–neural crest cells

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42
Q

list the integumentary tissues

A

epidermis
nails and hair
surface exocrine glands

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43
Q

list the oral cavity tissues

A

oral epithelium
enamel of teeth
salivary glands

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44
Q

list the special sensory tissues

A

nasal epithelium, olfactory neurons
lens, cornea, and conjunctiva of eye
lacrimal gland

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45
Q

list the endocrine tissues

A

anterior pituitary

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46
Q

list the components of the central nervous system of the neural tube

A

brain
spinal cord
posterior pituitary

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47
Q

list the components of the peripheral nervous system of the neural tube

A

motor & sensory axons

to and from the spinal cord/brain

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48
Q

list the peripheral nervous system of the neural crest cells

A
sensory neurons
autonomic neurons (post-synapse)
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49
Q

aside of the peripheral nervous system, what other components are of the neural crest cells

A
melanocytes (skin and oral mucosa)
connective tissues if the head
dentin of teeth
great vessels of the heart
medulla of adrenal gland
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50
Q

list the different mesoderms

A

axial mesoderm = notoderm
paraxial mesoderm = somite
intermediate mesoderm = reproductive & urinary system
lateral plate mesoderm (LPM) = splanchnic & somatic divisions

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51
Q

describe the notochord of the axial mesoderm

A

notochord: condensation of mesoderm
- primitive support
- signal and direct neural development
- adult derivative: nucleus pulposus (intervertebral disc)

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52
Q

describe the somite of the paraxial mesoderm

A

sclerotome
somite dermatome
syndetome
myotome

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53
Q

what is the sclerotome

A

vertebrae, ribs, occipital bone

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54
Q

what is the somite dermatome

A

dermis over the spine (epaxial region)

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55
Q

what is the syndetome

A

tendons

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56
Q

what is the myotome

A

skeletal muscle

epimere: epaxial muscles (deep back)
hypomere: hypaxial muscle

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57
Q

describe dermatomes

A

sensory innervation, composed of segmented somites. each segment is associated with a single spinal nerve

58
Q

define skin dermatome

A

area of skin supplied by a sensory branch of a single spinal nerve

59
Q

what are the components of the urinary system

A

kidneys, bladder, ureters

60
Q

what are the components of the reproductive system

A

gonads and reproductive ducts (vas deferens/uterine tubes)

61
Q

what is the lateral plate mesoderm

A

connective tissues

62
Q

define somatic LPM (SoLPM)

A

connective tissues, bones, and smooth muscles associated with the somatic “outer tube”

63
Q

define splanchnic LPM (SpLPM)

A
  • connective tissues and smooth muscle associated with visceral “inner tube”
  • endothelium of blood vessels (arteries and veins)
  • cardiogenic SpLMN = heart
64
Q

what is the endoderm

A

epithelial lining of the gut tube and derivatives

65
Q

what are the components of the endoderm

A

oropharynx and laryngopharynx
larynx
esophagus
respiratory system (trachea and lungs)
foregut (stomach, duodenum, liver, pancrease)
midgut (small intestine, proximal large intestine)
hindgut (distal large intestine, anal canal)

66
Q

functions of the integumentary system

A

protection, homeostasis, interaction with enironment

67
Q

tissues of the integumentary system

A

skin, hair, nails, exocrine glands

68
Q

characteristics of the integumentary system epidermis

A
  • avascular

- contains keratinocytes and melanocytes (pigment)

69
Q

characteristics of the integumentary system dermis

A
  • contains accessory and support structures of the skin

- hairs, glands, neurovasculature

70
Q

characteristics of the integumentary subcutis

A
  • a.k.a. superficial fascia
  • loose connective tissue and fat
  • connects skin to underlaying structures
71
Q

what glands compose the skin

A
  • sweat glands
  • sebaceous glands
  • mammary glands
72
Q

characteristics of the skin, as a whole

A
smooth muscle
- arrector pili muscle 
- controlled by autonomic nerves 
neurovasculature 
- arteriovenous 
- sensory organs and nerves
73
Q

define mechanoreceptors

A

touch and vibration

74
Q

define nocioceptors

A

pain

75
Q

what composes the surface ectoderm

A

epidermis, glands, hair

76
Q

what composes the neural crest cells

A

melanocytes

77
Q

what composes the somatic LPM

A

hypaxial dermis, arrector pili muscles

78
Q

what composes somite dermatome

A

epaxial dermis

79
Q

Q: A majority of the appendages in the skin are located within the?

A

dermis

80
Q

Q: the gastrula initially has how many germ layers?

A

2

epiblast and hypoblast

81
Q

Q: the nervous system is derived from which of the following layers?

A

ectoderm

82
Q

what are the branchial arches?

A

gives rise to the head and neck

a.k.a. Pharyngeal Pouches

83
Q

where are the branchial arches developed?

A

visceral, (inward) forming around the cranial region of the primitive gut tube (inner tube)

84
Q

define connective tissue

A

fibrous tissue that gives organs their shapes and holds the body together

85
Q

what are the specialized types of connective loans

A

cartilage
bone
ligaments
tendons

86
Q

define elastic cartilage

A

elastin bundles for flexibility

87
Q

examples of elastic cartilage

A

external ear, auditory tube, epiglottis

88
Q

define fibrocartilage

A

contains type 1 collagen

tough, dense cartilage

89
Q

example of fibrocartilage

A

intervertebral discs

90
Q

define hyaline cartilage

A
  • precursor to bone in endochondral ossification
  • articular cartilage
  • provides flexibility to skeleton
91
Q

examples of hyaline cartilage

A

costal cartilages, nose cartilage

92
Q

define articular cartilage

A

caps the ends of bony articular surface

93
Q

functions of the bone

A
  • protection for vital structures
  • support for the body and vital cavities
  • movement mechanics
  • storage salts (calcium)
  • blood cells produced by the marrow in the medullary cavity of many bones
  • It is living tissue that changes throughout life
94
Q

list the types of bones

A
cortical bone
trabecular
axial skeleton
appendicular skeleton
long
short
flat
sesamoid
irregular
95
Q

what is cortical bone

A

compact bone

dense, outer surfacr

96
Q

what is trabecular bone

A

cancellous or spongy bone

inner supportive meshwork

97
Q

what is axial skeleton?

A

Inner section of the body

  • skull and hyoid
  • vertebral column
  • ribs
  • sternum
98
Q

what is the appendicular?

A

Outer section of the body

  • pectoral girdle
  • upper limb
  • pelvic girdle
  • lower limb
99
Q

characteristics of the long bones

A

tubular, support weight

100
Q

characteristics of the short bones

A

ankle and wrist bones

101
Q

characteristics of the flat bones

A
protective function 
(braincase)
102
Q

characteristics of sesamoid bones

A

develop in tendons, redirect angle of tendon

103
Q

characteristics of irregular bones

A

multiple functions

104
Q

what joint has limited mobility

A

fibrous joints

105
Q

types of fibrous joints

A

sutures
syndesmosis
gomphosis

106
Q

define suture joints

A
  • interdigitated connections between bones of the skull

- held together by Sharpey’s fibers (type III collagen)

107
Q

define syndesmosis joints

A
  • 2 bones held together by fibrous connective tissue

- ex: radioulnar or tibiofibular joints

108
Q

define gomphosis joints

A
  • peg and socket join connected by ligaments

- ex: dentoalveolar joints

109
Q

types of cartilaginous joints

A
synchondrosis = primary joints 
symphysis = secondary joints
110
Q

define cartilaginous joints

A

united by hyaline and/or fibrocartilage; limited mobility

111
Q

define synchondrosis joints

A

2 bones joined together by hyaline cartilage

ex: 1st sternochondral joint

112
Q

define symphysis joints

A

2 bones with a thick fibrocartilage pad between them

ex: pubic symphysis, intervertebral disc

113
Q

what are synovial joints

A

skeletal joints, highly mobile, joint cavity filled with synovial fluid

114
Q

where is hyaline cartilage found

A

on articular surfaces

115
Q

what is the meniscus

A

pad formed by fibrocartilage in some joints

ex: knee

116
Q

types of synovial joints

A
hinge
pivoit
saddle
condylar
plane
ball and socket
117
Q

what is bilateral muscle contraction

A

both sides of a paired muscle contract

118
Q

what is unilateral muscle contraction

A

one side of a paired muscle contracts

119
Q

what is Ipsilateral muscle contraction

A

same side as contracting muscle

120
Q

what is contralateral muscle contraction

A

opposite side from contracting muscle

121
Q

agonist muscle function

A

cause movement through concentric contraction

122
Q

antagonist muscle function

A

oppose and regulate movement through eccentric contraction

123
Q

synergist muscle function

A

aids the agonist through concentric contractions

124
Q

fixator muscle function

A

stabilize a skeletal element through isometric contraction (generally around shoulders and hips)

125
Q

concentric muscle function

A

contracting and shortening

produces motion

126
Q

isometric muscle function

A

contracting and no length change

stabilizes

127
Q

eccentric muscle function

A

contracting and lengthening

regulates motion of antagonists

128
Q

list fiber orientations for fiber-tendon alignment

A
circular 
convergent
parallel
unipennate
multipennate
fusiform
bipennate
129
Q

function of muscles

A
  • responsible for motion
  • join support
  • move substances through internal organs
  • move blood through in circulatory system
  • heat production
130
Q

function of skeletal muscle

A
  • voluntary
  • striated
  • moves bones and other structures
  • innervated by General somatic efferents and SVE
131
Q

function of cardiac muscle

A
  • involuntary
  • striated/intercalated discs
  • heart
  • innervated by GVE
132
Q

function of smooth muscle

A
  • involuntary
  • walls of vessels and hollow organs
  • innervated by GVE
133
Q

what is super fascia

A

subdermis

134
Q

what is deep fascia

A

surrounds muscles and neurovasculature

135
Q

what is visceral fascia

A

surrounds organs

136
Q

function of ligaments

A

connect bone to bone

137
Q

function of tendons

A

connect muscle to bone or other structures

138
Q

describe endochondral ossification

A
  • there are cartilaginous precursors
  • bone starts forming at primary ossification centers
  • bone lengthens at secondary ossification centers (epiphyses)
139
Q

what are some examples of bones that use endochondral ossification

A

long bones and the skull base

140
Q

describe intramembranous ossification

A

connective tissue (messenchyme) precursor

141
Q

examples of intramembranous ossification

A

bones of cranial vault and face