Quiz #02 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following apply to a C-II emergency verbal (phone in) prescription?

A. Quantity is limited to a 72 hr supply
B. Within 72 hrs, the prescriber must provide pharmacist with a written prescription for the emergency dispensed amount
C. The emergency prescription hard copy must have written on it: “Authorization for Emergency Dispensing”
D. A & B only
E. All of the above

A

(E) All of the above

The pharmacist must also make a reasonable effort to determine the validity of prescriber

The pharmacist must alert DEA if prescriber doesn’t forward the written prescription for the emergency dispensed amount

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A. It is permissible to dispense a partially filled C-II prescription
B. OBRA ‘90 requires pharmacists to offer to perform a DUR and to offer to counsel MEDICAID recipients on new Rx’s
C. HIPAA was designed to protect patient privacy and confidentiality
D. It is permissible under HIPAA for a pharmacist to request medical information for a patient coming into their pharmacy
E. None of the above

A

(E) none of the above

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3
Q

If a C-II prescription is partially filled, what happens to the remaining portion of the patient’s prescription?

A

It depends on the availability of the drug at the pharmacy where the patient got prescription filled.

The pharmacist must be able to supply the remaining portion of the C-II prescription within 72 hours. If pharmacy is UNABLE to do so, patient LOSES remaining portion of Rx. In this case, the pharmacist is required to notify the prescriber.

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4
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A. If the remaining portion of a partially filled C-II didn’t get filled within 72 hrs, patient would need a new Rx for the remaining portion
B. OBRA ‘90 offer to counsel can be done over the telephone
C. Under HIPAA, friends or family are allowed to pick-up prescriptions for other patients
D. Both B & C
E. None of the above

A

(E) None of the above

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5
Q

In PA pharmacists are allowed to administer which of the following to patients 18 y/o or older?

A. Immunizations
B. Injectable medications
C. Biologicals
D. A & C only
E. All of the above
A

(E) All of the above

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6
Q

True or False - Pharmacists are required to maintain a current CPR certificate if they are administering injectables meds, biologicals, or immunizations?

A

True

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7
Q

True or False - hypodermic needles and syringes require an Rx?

A

False - they may be sold without a prescription

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. USP 797 refers to pharmacist’s role in administering IV
B. USP is a government, for-profit organization
C. Aseptic technique refers to not only the technique used, but the environment in which it is performed
D. A & C only
E. All of the above

A

(C) Aseptic technique refers to not only the technique used, but the environment in which it is performed

A - USP 797 refers to STERILE COMPOUNDING of pharmaceutics (i.e. IV admixtures) in order to prevent patient harm

B - USP is a NON-government, NON-profit organization designed to create standards on patient safety, healthcare information, and verification of products

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9
Q

All of the following are reasons medical professionals use parenteral products, except?

A. Patient is NPO
B. Direct delivery to an organ
C. Special equipment and personnel needed
D. Once administered it cannot be removed
E. A & B only

A

(E) A & B only

Special equipment and personnel needed and once administered it cannot be removed are DISADVANTAGES to parenteral products

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10
Q

USP 797 aims to prevent harm including death from…?

A. Microbial contamination
B. Variability in the intended strength
C. Unintended chemical or physical contaminants (precipitate formation)
D. Ingredients of inappropriate quality
E. All of the above
A

(E) All of the above

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11
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A. Parenteral products are difficult and costly to produce
B. Parenterals are useful for drugs that are inactivated by GI or liver
C. Internal generation is a potential contamination source
D. Adjacent room to an aseptic room is NOT a potential contamination source
E. None of the above

A

(D) Adjacent room to a aseptic room IS a potential source of contamination

C - Internal generation contamination source = walls, floors, ceilings

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12
Q

What is the pH of NS carrier solution?

A

pH 5.6

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13
Q

What is the indication of KCl?

A

Indicated in the Tx of potassium deficiency state when oral replacement is not feasible

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14
Q

If patient’s K level is greater than 2.5 mEq/L, what is the max rate of infusion of KCl and what is the max concentration?

A

Can be infused at a rate not to exceed 10 mEq/L in a concentration of up to 40 mEq/L.

Total 24hr dose should not exceed 200 mEq

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15
Q

Why does KCl have a black cap?

A

Indicates the solution must be diluted

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16
Q

Why must KCl be given as a slow infusion and not an IV bolus?

A

To avoid potassium intoxication. Also, too rapid infusion of hypertonic solutions may cause local pain and, rarely, vein irritation

17
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A. sterile compounding should take place at least 6 inches into the hood
B. Manually mixing 3 products to compound drug admixtures is considered low-risk level
C. In-patient pharmacy typically operates at a medium risk level
D. Blowers of the laminar air hoods must be running at least 10 minutes prior to starting
E. HEPA filters remove 99.97% of all air particles 0.3 microns or larger

A

(D) blowers should be on for at least 30 min prior to starting

B - this is true. Medium–level risk is combining more than 3 products (ex TPN). Mixing sterile ingredients in non-sterile devices or mixing non-sterile bulk drug to make solution to be sterilized is high-risk level (ex Cardioplegia drips)

18
Q

How long should a vertical flow (chemotherapy hood) be turned on prior to starting compounding?

How long for a horizontal flow (Laminar flow hood)

A

Vertical Flow - 4hrs

Horizontal Flow - 30 min

19
Q

What is the volume of a large volume parenteral (LVP)? What about a small volume parenteral (SVP)?

A

LVP >100ml

SVP <100ml

20
Q

Which of the following are notoriously not compatible with each other?

A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Phosphate
D. A & C
E. B & C
A

(E) B & C

If Ca concentration high enough, can form salt with phosphate and precipitate

21
Q

Which of the following regarding intradermal parenteral ROA is correct?

A. Used for skin tests like PPD, allergy test, anthrax vaccine
B. Needle is typically 20-22 gauge
C. Needle length is between 3/8 to 5/8 inches
D. A & C
E. All of the above

A

(D) A & C

B - Intradermal needle is typically 25-28 gauge (20-22 gauge is larger and used for IM injections

22
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A. SQ insulin injection uses a 30 gauge, 1/2 inch needle
B. Most SQ injections needles are 25-28 gauge and 1/2 to 5/8 inch long
C. The flu shot is an IM injection
D. SQ insulin injection uses the least thick needle
E. None of the above

A

(E) None of the above are false

23
Q

True or False - an IV push or bolus is administered directly into a vein?

A

True