Quicksheets Flashcards

Question

Detail the four motivation theories.

Answer 1

**Instinct theory:** innate, fixed patterns of behavior in response to stimuli. **Arousal theory:** the state of being awake and reactive to stimuli; aim for optimal level of arousal for a given task (see Yerkes-Dodson law) **Drive reduction theory:** individuals act to relieve internal states of tension **Maslow's hierarchy of needs**: prioritizes needs into five categores (highest -\> lowest) 1. physiological needs 2. safety and security 3. love and belonging 4. self-esteem 5. self-actualization

Answer 2

**Seven universal emotions:** happiness, sadness, contempt, fear, surprrise, disgust, anger

Answer 3

**Stress:** physiological and cognitive response to challenges or life changes **Primary appraisal:** classifying a potential stressor as irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful **Secondary appraisal**: directed at evaluating whether the organism can cope with the stress, based on harm, threat, and challenge **Stresssor (eustress or distress):** anything that leads to a stress response **General adaptation syndrome:** alarm, resistance, and exhaustion

Answer 4

**Schizophrenia:** psychotic disorder characterized by distortions of rerality and disturbances in content and form of thought, perception, and behavior **Positive:** hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thought and behavior **Negative:** disturbance of affect and avolition

Answer 5

**Major depressive disorder:** contains at least one major depressive episode **Pervasive depressive disorder**: a depressed mood (either **dysthymia** or major depression) for at least two years **Seasonal affective disorder:** the colloquial name for major depressive disorder with seasonal onset, with depression occurring during winter months

Answer 6

**Bipolar I disorder:** contains at least one manic episode **Bipolar II disorder:** contains at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode **Cyclothymic disorder:** conatins hypomanic episodes with *dysthymia (persistent mild depression)*

Answer 7

Based on tensions caused by the **libido**, with failure at any stage leading to **fixation**

Answer 8

Stem from conflicts that are the result of decisions we are forced to make about ourselves and the environment around us at each phase of our lives Stages are: 1. trust vs. mistrust 2. autonomy vs. shame and doubt 3. initiative vs. guilt 4. industry vs. inferiority 5. identity vs. role confusion 6. intimacy vs. isolation 7. generativity vs. stagnation 8. integrity vs. despair

Answer 9

Describes the approaches of individuals to **resolving moral dilemmas** Six stages are divided into three main phases: **preconventional, conventional, and postconventional**

Answer 10

Describes development of language, culture, and skills

Answer 11

**Psychoanalytic:** personality results from unconscious urges and desires **Humanistic:** emphasizes internal feelings of healthy individuals as they strive towards happiness and self-realization (Maslow: hierarchy of needs, Rogers: unconditional positive reward)

Answer 12

**Type and trait theory:** personality can be described as a number of identifiable traits that carry characteristic behaviors. Some types: ancient Greek humorrs, Sheldon's **somatotypes**, division into **Types A and B,** and the **Myer-Briggs Type Inventory** * Eysenck's three major traits: psychoticism, extraversion, neuroticism * Trait theorists' Big Five: openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism (OCEAN) * Allport's three basic types of traits: cardinal, central, and secondary

Answer 13

**Personality disorders:** patterns of inflexible, maladaptive behavior that cause distress or impaired functioning * **Cluster A:** (odd, eccentric, weird): paranoid, schizotypal, schizoid * **Cluster B:** (dramatic, emotional, erratic, wild): antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic * **Cluster C:** (anxious, fearful, worried): avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive

Answer 14

**Social facilitation:** tendency to perform at a different level (better or worse) when others are around

Answer 15

**Deindividuation:** loss of self-awareness in large groups; can lead to drastic changes in behavior

Answer 16

**Peer pressure:** social influence placed on an individual by other individuals they consider equals

Answer 17

**Group polarization:** tendency towards making decisions in a group that are more extreme then the thoughts of the individual group members

Answer 18

**Groupthink:** tendency to make decisions based on ideas & solutions that arise within the group without considering outside ideas

Answer 19

**Assimilation:** one culture begins to melt into anotherr

Answer 20

**Multiculturalism:** encouragement of multiple cultures within a community to enhance diversity

Answer 21

**Subculture:** a group that distinguishes itself from the primary culture to which it belongs

Answer 22

**Socialization**: the process of developing and spreading norms, customs, and beliefs

Answer 23

**Stigma:** extreme disapproval or dislike of a person or group based upon perceived differences

Answer 24

**Deviance:** any violation of norms, rules, or expectations within a society

Answer 25

**Conformity:** changing beliefs or behaviorrs in order to fit into a group or society

Answer 26

**Compliance:** individuals change behavior based on the request of others; techniques for gaining compliance include: *foot-in-the-door, door-in-the-face, lowball,* and *that's-not-all*

Answer 27

**Obedience:** change in behavior based on a command from someone seen as an authority figure

Answer 28

**Display rules:** unspoken rules that govern the expression of emotion

Answer 29

**Impression management:** maintenance of a public image through various strategies

Answer 30

**Dramaturgical approach:** individuals create images of themselves in the same way that actors perform a role in front of an audience

Answer 31

**Attribution theory:** focuses on the tendency for individuals to infer the causes of other people's behavior * **Dispositional** causes relate to the features of the person being considered * **Situational** causes relate to featurers of the surroundings or context * **Correspondent inference thteory:** describes attributions made by observing the intentional (especially unexpected) behaviors performed by another person * **Fundamental attribution error:** bias toward making disposittional attributions rather than situational attributions

Answer 32

**Self-fulfilling prophecy:** the phenomenon of a stereotype creating an expectation of a particular group, which creates conditions that lead to confirmation of this stereotype

Answer 33

**Stereotype threat:** a feeling of anxiety about confirming a negative stereoype

Answer 34

**Prejudice:** an irrrrationally based attitude prior to actual expeerience

Answer 35

**Ethnocentrism:** the practice of making judgements about other culturers based on the values and beliefs of one's own culture (*in-group* vs. *out-group).*

Answer 36

**Symbolic culture:** the ideas associated with a cultural group **Material culture:** physical items one associates with a given group (art, clothing, foods, buildings)

Answer 37

**Demographic transition:** a model used to represent drops in birth and death rates as a result of industrialization

Answer 38

1. **Class:** a category of people with shared socioeceonomic characteristics 2. **Power:** the capacity to influence people through real or perceived rewards and punishments 3. **Social capital:** the investment people make in society in return for economic or collective rewards 4. **Social reproduction:** the passing on of social inequality, especially poverty, to other generations 5. **Poverty:** low SES; in the US, the poverty line is the government's calculation of the minimum income requirements to acquire the minimum necessities of life

Answer 39

Peptide bond formation is a **condensation** (**dehydration**) reaction with a nucleophilic amino group attaching an electrophilic carbonyl. Peptide bonds are broken by **hydrolysis**.

Answer 40

**Structural proteins:** generally fibrous, include *collagen, elastin, keratin, actin,* and *tubulin.* **Binding proteins:** bind to a specific substrate, either to sequester it in the body or hold its concentration at steady state

Answer 41

**Motor proteins:** capable of force generation through a conformational change, include *myosin, kinesin,* and *dynein*.

Answer 42

**Cell adhesion molecules (CAMs):** bind cells to other cells or surfaces, include *cadherins, integrins, and selectins.* **Antibodies** (or **immunoglobulins, Ig**): target a specific antigen, which may be a protein on the surface of a pathogen (invading organism) or a toxin

Answer 43

**Lock and key theory**, as well as **induced fit model.**

Answer 44

*Enzymes*, like all catalysts, **lower the activation energy necessary for reactions**. They do not alter the free energy or enthalpy change that accompanies the reactiton nor the final equilibrium position; rather, they change the rate (kinetics) at which equilibrium is reached.

Answer 45

**Ion channels** can be used for regulating on flow into or out of a cell. There are three main types of ion channels: **ungated channels, voltage-gated channels,** and **ligand-gated channels**.

Answer 46

**Enzyme-linked receptors** participate in cell signaling through extracellular ligand binding and initiation of second messenger cascades.

Answer 47

**G protein-coupled** receptors have a membrane bound protein associated with a trimeric **G protein**. They also initiate second messenger systems.

Answer 48

Note this would be **sigmoidal** for a cooperative enzyme (e.g., Hb).

Answer 49

**Oxidation-reduction, esterification**, and **glycoside formation. Glycoside formation** is the basis for building complex carbohydrates and requires the anomeric carbon to link with another sugar. Sugars with a -H replacing an -OH group are termed **deoxy sugars.**

Answer 50

1. sucrose (glucose-α-1,2-fructose) 2. lactose (galactose-β-1,4-glucose) 3. maltose (glucose-α-1,4-glucose)

Answer 51

**1. Cellulose:** main structural component of plant cell walls; main source of fiber in the human diet **2. Starches (amylosse and amylopectin):** main energy storage forms for plants **3. Glycogen:** a major energy storage form for animals

Answer 52

A **nucleoside** contains a five-carbon sugar bound to a nitrogenous base; **nucleotides** are nucleosides with one to three phosphate groups added. Nucleotides in DNA contain **deoxyribose;** in RNA, they contain **ribose.**

Answer 53

Some core components: * The DNA backbone is composed of alternating sugar and phosphate groups, and is always read **5'** to **3'**. * There are two strands with **antiparallel** polarity, wound into a **double helix.** * **Purines** (A and G) always pair with **pyrimidines** (C, U, and T). In DNA, A pairs with T (*via two H bonds*_)_ and C pairs with G (*via three H bonds*). In RNA, A pairs with U (*via two hydrogen bonds*). * **Chargaff's rules:** purines and pyrimidines are equal in number in a DNA molecule. The amount of A equals the amount of T, and the amount of C equals the amount of G. * DNA strands can be pulled apart (**denatured**) and brought back together (**reannealed**).

Answer 54

In eukaryotes, DNA is wound around **histone proteins** (H2A, H2B, H3, and H4) to form **nucleosomes**, which may be stabilized by another histone protein (H1). DNA and its associated histones make up **chromatin** in the nucleus. * **Heterochromatin** is dense, transcriptionally silent DNA. * **Euchromatin** is less dense, transcriptionally active DNA. * **Telomeres** are the ends of chromosomes -\> They contain a high GC-content to prevent unraveling of the DNA (three hydrogen bonds = strong).

Answer 55

**Centromeres** are located in the middle of chromosomes and hold sister chromatids together until they are separated during anaphase in mitosis. They also contain a high GC-content.

Answer 56

DNA replication is **semiconservative;** one old parent strand and one new daughter strand is incorporated into each of the two new DNA molecules. **DNA polymerase** synthesizes new DNA strands, reading the template DNA 3' to 5' and synthesizing the new strand 5' to 3'. * The **leading strand** requires only one primer and can then be synthesized continuously. * The **lagging strand** requires many primers and is synthesized in discrete sections called **Okazaki fragments.**

Answer 57

**Recombinant DNA:** DNA composed of nucleotides from two different sources. **DNA cloning**: introduces a fragment of DNA into a **vector plasmid**. A **restriction enzyme** (**restriction endonuclease**) cuts both the plasmid and the fragment, leaving them with **sticky ends**, which can bind. These bacterial cells can then replicate via **binary fission** to create a protein of interest or lysed to allow for isolation of the fragment of interest from the vector.

Answer 58

**Genomic libraries:** these contain large fragments of DNA, including both coding and noncoding regions of the genome. They *cannot* be used to make recombinant proteins or for gene therapy. **cDNA libraries (expression libraries):** these contain smaller fragments of DNA, and only include the exons of genes expressed by the sample tissue. They *can* be used to make recombinant proteins or for gene therapy.

Answer 59

**Hybridization:** the joining of complementary base pair sequences. **Polymerase chain reaction (PCR):** an automated process by which millions of copies of a DNA sequence can be created from a very small sample by hybridization.

Answer 60

**Agarose gel electrophoresis** can be used to separate DNA molecules by size.

Answer 61

**Southern blotting** can be used to detect the presence and quantity of various DNA strands in a sample. After electrophoresis, the sample is transferred to a membrane that can be **probed** with single-stranded DNA molecules to look for a sequence of interest.

Answer 62

DNA sequencing uses **dideoxyribonucleotides** which terminate the DNA chain becausee they lack a 3' -OH group.

Answer 63

**Initiation:** AUG **Termination:** UAA, UGA, UAG Redundancy and **wobble** (third base in the codon) allow mutations to occur without affecting the protein.

Answer 64

* **Silent mutations**, with no effect on protein synthesis * **Nonsense (truncation) mutations**, which produce a premature stop codon * **Missense mutations**, which produce a codon that codes for a different amino acid * **Frameshift mutations**, which result from nucleotide addition or deletion and change the reading frame of subsequent codons

Answer 65

* Substitution of a ribose sugar for deoxyribose. * Substitution of uracil for thymine. * Single-stranded instead of double-stranded.

Answer 66

**Messenger RNA (mRNA):** carries the message from DNA in the nucleus via transcription of the gene; travels into the cytoplasm to be translated **Transfer RNA (tRNA):** brings in amino acids; recognizes the codon on the mRNA using its anticodon **Ribosomal RNA (rRNA):** makes up much of the ribosome; enzymatically active

Answer 67

1. Helicase and topoisomerase unwind DNA double helix. 2. **RNA polymerase II** binds to **TATA box** within promoter region of gene (25 base pairs upstream from first transcribed base). 3. **hnRNA** synthesized from DNA template (antisense) strand.

Answer 68

* 7-methylguanylate triphosphate cap added to the 5' end * Polyadenosyl (poly-A) tail added to 3' end * Splicing done by **spliceosome**; introns removed and exons ligated together. **Alternative splicing** combines different exons to acquire different gene products.

Answer 69

Three stages: **initiation, elongation, and termination.** **Posttranslational modifications:** * folding by **chaperones** * formation of quaternary structure * Cleavage of proteins or signal sequences * Covalent addition of other biomolecules (phosphorylation, carboxylation, glycosylation, prenylation)

Answer 70

**Transcription factors** search for promotor and enhancer regions in the DNA. * **Promotors** are within 25 base pairs of the transcription start site. * **Enhancers** are more than 25 base pairs away from the transcription start site.

Answer 71

Operons (**Jacob-Monod model**) are *inducible* or *repressible* clusters of genes transcribed as a single mRNA.

Answer 72

**Osmotic pressure**, a **colligative** **property,** is the pressure applied to a pure solvent to prevent osmosis and is related to the concentration of the solution. Π = *iM*RI*T*

Answer 73

**Passive transport** does not require ATP because the molecule is moving down its concentration gradient or from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. * **Simple diffusion** does not require a transporter. Small, nonpolar molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration until equilibrium is achieved. * **Osmosis** describes the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane. * **Facilitated diffusion** uses transport proteins to move impermeable solutes across the cell membrane.

Answer 74

**Active transport** reequires energy in the form of ATP (**primary**) or an existing favorable ion gradient (**secondary**). Secondary active transport can be further classified as **symport** or **antiport**. **Endocytosis** and **exocytosis** are methods of engulfing material into cells or releasing material to the exterior of the cells, both via the cell membrane. **Pinocytosis** is the ingestion of liquid into the cell from vesciles formed from the cell membrane and **phagocytosis** is the ingestion of solid material.

Answer 75

**Glycolysis** occurs in the cytoplasm of all cells, and does not require oxygen. 2 ATP are yielded per *glucose.*

Answer 76

1. **Glucokinase:** present in the pancreatic Beta-islet cells as part of the glucose sensor and is responsive to insulin in the liver 2. **Hexokinase:** traps glucose -\> ? 3. **Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1):** rate-limiting step 4. **Phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2):** produces fructose-2,6-bisphosphate, which activates PFK-1 5. **Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase:** produces NADH 6. **3-phosphoglycerate kinase** and **pyruvate kinase**: perform **substrate-level** phosphorylation **Gluco/hexokinase, PFK-1,** and **pyruvate kinase** catalyze *irreversible* reactions. The NADH produced in glycolysis is oxidized aerobically by the mitochondrial ETC and anerobically by cytoplasmic lactate dehydrogenase.

Answer 77

**Pyruvate dehydrogenase** converts pyruvate to acetyl-CoA. Stimulated by insulin and inhibited by acetyl-CoA.

Answer 78

Takes place in the mitochondrial matrix. **Main purpose** is to oxidize acetyl-CoA to CO2 and generate high-energy electron carriers (NADH and FADH2) and GDP for the electron transport chain.

Answer 79

ETC takes place on the matrrix-facing surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane. **Rough process:** NADH donates electrons to the chain, which are passed from one complex to the next. Reduction potentials increase down the chain, until the electrons end up on oxygen, which has the highest reduction potential. NADH cannot cross the inner mitochondrial membrane, so must use one of the two shuttle mechanisms to transfer its electrons to energy carriers in the mitochondrial matrix: the **glycerol 3-phosphate shuttle** or the **malate-aspartate shuttle**.

Answer 80

The **proton-motive force** is the electrochemical gradient generated by the ETC across the inner mitochonodrial membrane. The intermembrane space has a higher concentration of protons than the matrix; this gradient stores energy which can be used to form ATP via **chemiosmotic coupling**. **ATP synthase** is the enzyme responsible for generating ATP from ADP and an inorganic phosphate (Pi).

Answer 81

**Glycolysis:** 2 NADH and 2 ATP **Pyruvate dehydrogenase:** 1 NADH (2 NADH for each glucose because each glucose forms two pyruvate) **Citric acid cycle:** 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP (6 NADH, 2 FADH2, and 2 GTP per glucose)

Answer 82

* Each NADH: 2.5 ATP * Each FADH2: 1.5 ATP * 2 ATP from glycolysis + 2 ATP from citric acid cycle + 25 ATP from NADH + 3 ATP from FADH2 = **32 ATP** per glucose. (30-32 is normal)

Answer 83

**Glycogenesis** is the building of glycogen using two main enzymes: * **Glycogen synthase,** which creates α-1,4-glycosidic links between glucose molecules. it is activated by insulin in the liver and muscles. * **Branching enzyme,** which moves a block of oligoglucose from one chain and connects it as a branch using an α-1,6-glycosidic link.

Answer 84

**Glycogenolysis** is the breakdown of glycogen using two main enzymes: * **Glycogen phosphorylase,** which removes single glucose 1-phosphate molecules by breaking α-1,4-glycosidic links. In the liver, it is activated by glucagon to prevent low blood sugar. In exercising skeletal muscle, it is activated by epinephrine and AMP to provide glucose for the muscle itself. * **Debranching enzyme,** which moves a block of oligoglucose from one branch and connects it to the chain using an α-1,4-glycosidic link.

Answer 85

Gluconeogensis is the generation of glucose. It occurs in both the cytoplasm and mitochondria, predominantly in the liver. Most of gluconeogenesis is just the reverse of glycolysis, using the same enzymes. **Three steps** must use different enzymes, as they're irreversible from a glycolytic perspective. * Pyruvate carboxylase and PEP carboxykinase bypass pyruvate kinase. * Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase bypasses phosphofructokinase-1 * Glucose-6-phosphatase bypasses hexokinase/glucokinase

Answer 86

It occurs in the cytoplasm of most cells and generates **NADPH** and sugars for biosynthesis. The rate-limiting enzyme is **glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase,** which is activated by NADP+ and inhibited by NADPH and insulin.

Answer 87

1. **Postprandial/well-fed (absorptive) state:** insulin secretion is high and anabolic metabolism prevails. 2. **Postabsorptive state:** insulin secretion decreases while glucagon and catecholamine secretion increases. 3. **Prolonged fasting (starvation):** dramatically increases glucagon and catecholamine secretion. Most tissues rely on fatty acids.

Answer 88

**Chylomicrons, VLDL, IDL, LDL, and HDL** each transport lipids.

Answer 89

Cholesterol may be obtained through dietary sources or through synthesis in the liver. The key enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis is **HMG-CoA reductase.**

Answer 90

**Palmitic acid** is the only FA that humans can produce. It is synthesized in the cytoplasm from acetyl-CoA transported out of the mitochondria.

Answer 91

Fatty acid oxidation occurs in the mitochondria, following transport in via the carnitine shuttle, via **β-oxidation.**

Answer 92

Ketone bodies form via **ketogenesis** during prolonged starvation due to excess acetyl-CoA in the liver. **Ketolysis** regeneerates acetyl-CoA for use as an energy source in peripheral tissues.

Answer 93

Protein catabolism occurs primarily in the small intestine. Carbon skeletons of amino acids are used for energy, either through gluconeogenesis or ketone body formation. Amino groups are fed into the **urea cycle** for extraction.

Answer 94

**Liver:** maintains blood glucose through glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. Processes lipids, cholesterol, bile, urea, and toxins. **Adipose:** stores and releases lipids. **Resting muscle:** conserves carbohydrates as glycogen and uses free fatty acids for fuel. **Active muscle:** may use anaerobic metabolism, oxidative phosphorylation, direct phosphorylation (creatine phosphate), or fatty acid oxidation **Cardiac muscle:** uses fatty acid oxidation **Brain:** uses glucose except in prolonged starvation, when it can use ketolysis

Answer 95

**Nucleus:** contains all of the genetic material necessary for replication of the cell

Answer 96

**Mitochondrion:** location of many metabolic processes (pyruvate dehydrogenase, citric acid cycle, ETC, oxidative phosphorylation, B-oxidation, some of gluconeogenesis, urea cycle) and ATP production

Answer 97

**Lysosomes:** membrane-bound structures containing hydrolytic enzymes capable of breaking down many different substrates

Answer 98

**Rough endoplasmic reticulum:** interconnected membranous structure with ribosomes studding the outside; _site of synthesis of proteins destined for insertion into a membrane or secretion_

Answer 99

**Smooth endoplasmic reticulum:** interconnected membranous structure where lipid synthesis and detoxification occurs

Answer 100

**Golgi apparatus:** membrane-bound sacs where posttranslational modification of proteins occurs

Answer 101

**Peroxisomes:** organelle containing hydrogen peroxide; site of B-oxidation of very long chain fatty acids

Answer 102

G1: cell increases its organelles and cytoplasm S: DNA replication G2: same as G1 M: the cell divides in two Mitosis = PMAT (prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase) Meiosis = PMAT X 2

Answer 103

**Meiosis I:** * Two pairs of sister chromatids form tetrads during prophase I * Crossing over leads to genetic recombination in prophase I * Homologous chromosomes separate during metaphase I **Meiosis II:** * Essentially identical to mitosis, but no replication * Meiosis occurs in **spermatogenesis** (sperm formation) and **oogenesis** (egg formation)

Answer 104

Three core tenents: 1. Phospholipid bilayer with cholesterol and embedded proteins 2. Exterior: hydrophilic phosphate head groups 3. Interior: hydrophobic fatty acids

Answer 105

The original form of cell theory consisted of three basic tenets: 1. All living things are composed of cells. 2. The cell is the basic functional unit of life. 3. Cells arise only from preexisting cells. 4. The *fourth* says cells carry genetic information in the form of DNA. This genetic material is passed on from parent to daughter cell.

Answer 106

1. **Cleavage:** mitotic divisions (cleave -\> without growth) 2. **Implantation:** embryo implants into the endometrium during blastula stage 3. **Gastrulation:** ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm form 4. **Neurulation:** germ layers develop a nervous system

Answer 107

1. Gluconeogenesis 2. Processing of nitrogenous wastes (urea) 3. Detoxification of wastes/chemicals/drugs 4. Storage of iron and vitamin A 5. Synthesis of bile and blood proteins 6. B-oxidation of fatty acids to ketones 7. Interconversion of carbohydrates, fats, and amino acids

Answer 108

1. Stratum corneum 2. Stratum lucidum 3. Stratum granulosum 4. Stratum spinosum 5. Stratum basalis

Answer 109

Eukaryotes *contain* membrane-bound organelles such as a nucleus, while prokaryotes are are simpler cells that *do not* a nucleus.

Answer 110

* Spherical bacteria are known as **cocci**. * Rod-shaped bacteria are known as **bacilli.** * Spiral-shaped bacteria are known as **spirilli.**

Answer 111

* **Gram-positive** bacteria have large quantities of peptidoglycan in the cell wall * **Gram-negative** bacteria have much smaller quantities of peptidoglycan with lipopolysaccharides.

Answer 112

Prokaryotic flagella contain a basal body that serves as the engine for motion.

Answer 113

Prokayotes divide via **binary fission.** The circular chromosome replicates and attaches to the cell wall; the plasma membrane and cell wall grow along the midline, forming daughter cells.

Answer 114

**Filtration:** occurs at the glomerulus. Filtrate (fluid and small solutes) passes through. *Passive* **Secretion:** acids, bases, and ions move from interstitial fluid to filtrate. Maintains pH, [K+] and [waste]. *Passive and Active.* **Reabsorption:** essential substances and water flow from filtrate to blood. Enabled by osmolarity gradient and selective permeability of the walls. *Passive and Active.*

Answer 115

* Stimulates Na+ reabsorption, K+ and H+ secretion, increasing water reabsorption, blood volume, and pressure * Secreted from the **adrenal cortex** * Regulated by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

Answer 116

**Vasopressin (ADH)** increases the collecting duct's permeability to water to increase water reabsorption * it is secreted from the posterior pituitary with high [solute] in the blood

Answer 117

**Kidneys** regulate [salt] and [water] in the blood. Their functional unit is the nephron.

Answer 118

**Direct** hormones directly stimulate organs; **tropic** hormones stimulate other glands.

Answer 119

**Peptides** act via secondary messengers. **Steroids** act via hormone/receptor binding to DNA. Amino acid-derivative hormones may do either.

Answer 120

Stimulates follice maturation; spermatogenesis. Comes from the anterior pituitary.

Answer 121

Stimulates ovulation (release of follice from ovaries into fallopian tube); testosterone synthesis. Comes from anterior pituitary.

Answer 122

ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to make and secrete glucocorticoids. It comes from the anterior pituitary.

Answer 123

Stimulates the thyroid to produce thyroid hormones. It comes from the anterior pituitary.

Answer 124

Prolactin stimulates milk production and secretion. It comes from the anterior pituitary.

Answer 125

Endorphins inhibit the perception of pain in the brain. They come from the anterior pituitary.

Answer 126

Growth hormone stimulates bone and muscle growth/lipolysis. It comes from the anterior pituitary.

Answer 127

Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions during labor, milk secretion during lactation. Also promotes in-group/out-group formations and the mother-offspring bond. It comes from the hypothalamus and is stored in the posterior pituitary.

Answer 128

ADH/vasopressin stimulates water reabsorptioon in the kidneys. It comes from the hypothalamus and is stored in the posterior pituitary.

Answer 129

The thyroid hormones stimulate metabolic activity. They come from the thyroid.

Answer 130

Calcitonin tones down blood calcium levels. It comes from the parathyroid.

Answer 131

Glucocorticoids increase blood glucose levels and decrease protein synthesis; anti-inflammatory. They come from the adrenal cortex.

Answer 132

Mineralocorticoids increase water reabsorption in the kidneys. They come from the adrenal cortex.

Answer 133

Epinephrine and norepinephrine come from the adrenal medulla, and they function to increase blood glucose levels and heart rate.

Answer 134

Glucagon stimulates conversion of glycogen into glucose in the liver; increases blood glucose. Comes from the Pancreas.

Answer 135

Insulin lowers blood glucose levels and increases glycogen stores. It comes from the pancreas.

Answer 136

Somatostatin supresses secretion of glucagon and insulin. It comes from the pancreas.

Answer 137

Testosterone maintains male secondary sexual characteristics. It comes from the testes.

Answer 138

Estrogen maintains female secondary sexual characteristics. It comes from the Ovary/placenta.

Answer 139

Progesterone (pro-gestation) promotes growth/maintence of the endometrium. It comes from the Ovary/Placenta.

Answer 140

Melatonin regulates sleep-wake cycles. It comes from the pineal gland.

Answer 141

Atrial natriuretic peptide is involved in osmoregulation and vasodilation. It comes from the heart.

Answer 142

Thymosin stimulates T-cell development. It comes from the thymus.

Answer 143

Depolarization (Na+ rushing into the axon) followed by repolarization (K+ rushing out of the axon) along the nerve axon.

Answer 144

1. **Follicular:** FSH causes growth of a follicle. 2. **Ovulation:** LH causes follicle to release egg. 3. **Luteal:** Corpus luteum forms. 4. **Menstruation:** Endometrial lining sheds.

Answer 145

A sarcomere is sthe contractile unit of the fibers in skeletal muscle. It contains thin actin and thick myosin filaments.

Answer 146

1. **Initiation:** depolarization of a neuron leads to an action potential. 2. **Sarcomere shortening**: 1. Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca2+. 2. Ca2+ binds to troponin on the actin filament. 3. Tropomyosin shifts, exposing myosin-binding sites. 4. Myosin binds, ATPase activity allows myosin to pull thin filaments towards the center of the H zone, and then ATP causes dissociation. 3. **Relaxation:** Ca2+ is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Answer 147

**Osteoblast:** builds bone **Osteoclast:** breaks down bone **Reformation:** inorganic ions are absorbed from the blood for use in bone **Degradation (resorption):** inorganic ions are released into the blood

Answer 148

Superior and inferior vena cava -\> right atrium -\> tricuspid valve -\> right ventricle -\> pulmonary artery -\> lungs -\> pulmonary vein -\> left atrium -\> mitral valve -\> left ventricle -\> aorta -\> body

Answer 149

A portal system: blood travels through an extra capillary bed before returning to the heart. * Liver (hepatic), kidney, and brain (hypophyseal)

Answer 150

**Foramen ovule:** connects left and right atria (skip pulmonary step). **Ductus arteriosus:** connects pulmonary artery to aorta. Along with foramen ovale, shunts blood away from lungs. **Ductus venosus:** connects umbilical vein to inferior vena cava, connecting umbilical circulation to central circulation.

Answer 151

Blood plasma is an aqueous mix of nutrients, wastes, hormones, blood proteins, gases, and salts

Answer 152

Factors leading to a right shift of the curve: * Increase in temperature. * The Bohr Effect: Decrease in pH, increase in pCO2 * O2 releases to tissues enhanced when H+ allosterically binds to Hb. Increase in pCO2 increases [H+]: * CO₂ + H₂O \<-\> H₂CO₃ \<-\> H⁺ + HCO₃^-

Answer 153

**Platelets** release thromboplastin, which (along with cofactorrs calcium and vitamin K) converts inactive prothrombin to active thrombin. Thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin, which surrounds blood cells to form the clot.

Answer 154

* Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin. * Gas and nutrient exchanges occur across the placenta.

Answer 155

**Production site:** salivary glands **Function site:** mouth **Hydrolysis reaction:** Starch -\> maltose

Answer 156

**Production site:** Pancreas **Function site:** Small intestine **Hydrolysis reaction:** Starch -\> maltose

Answer 157

**Production site:** intestinal glands. **Function site:** small intestine **Hydrolysis reaction:** Maltose -\> 2 glucose

Answer 158

**Production site:** intestinal glands **Function site:** small intestine **Hydrolysis reaction:** Sucrose -\> glucose, fructose

Answer 159

**Production site:** intestinal glands. **Function site:** small intestine. **Hydrolysis reaction:** Lactose -\> glucose, galactose

Answer 160

**Production site:** gastric glands (chief cells) **Function site:** stomach **Function:** hydrolyzes specific peptide bonds.

Answer 161

**Production site:** Pancrease **Function site:** Small intestine. **Function:** Hydrolyzes specific peptide bonds, converts chymotrypsinogen (a zymogen) into chymotrypsin

Answer 162

**Production site:** Pancreas **Function site:** Small intestine **Function:** Hydrolyze specific peptide bonds.

Answer 163

**Production site:** Pancreas. **Function site:** Small intestine. **Function:** Hydrolyzes terminal peptide bond at C-Terminus (*it's a carboxy peptidase...*)

Answer 164

**Production site:** Intestinal glands **Function site:** Small intestine **Function:** Hydrolyzes terminal peptide bond at N-terminus (*it's an amino peptidase...*)

Answer 165

**Production site:** Intestinal glands. **Function site:** Small intestine. **Function:** hydrolyzes pairs of amino acids.

Answer 166

**Production site:** intestinal glands. **Function site:** small intestine. **Function:** Converts trypsinogen to trypsin.

Answer 167

Includes skin, passages lined with cilia, macrophages, inflammatory response, and interferons (proteins that help prevent the spread of a virus)

Answer 168

* Lymph vessels meet at the thoracic duct in the upper chest and neck, draining in to the left subclavian vein of the cardiovascular system. * Vessels carry **lymph** (excess interstitital fluid), and **lacteals** collect fats by absorbing chylomicrons in the small intestine. * **Lymph nodes** are swellings along the vells with phagocytic cells (leukocytes); they remove foreign particles from lymph.

Answer 169

1. When chyme (acidic-half-digested fluid which passes from the stomach to small intestine) the duodenum secretes the hormone cholecytoskinin (CCK) into the blood. 2. CCK stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile, and promotes satiety. 3. Bile is made in the liver and emulsifies fat in the small intestine; it's not an enzyme. 4. **Lipase** is an enzyme made in the pancreas that hydrolyzes lipids in the small intestine.

Answer 170

**Autosomal recessive**: skips generations **Autosomal dominant:** appears in every generation **X-linked (sex-linked)**: no male-to-male transmission, and more males affected.

Answer 171

A **nucleotide**: sugar, nitrogenous base, and a phosphate

Answer 172

DNA's sugar: deoxyribose, RNA's sugar: ribose RNA is usually single-stranded: A pairs with U, not T

Answer 173

**The operon:** Structural genes: have DNA that codes for protein Operator gene: repressor binding site Promotor gene: RNA polymerase's 1st binding site (note: in Lac, catabolite activating protein must be present) Inducible systems need an inducer for transcription to occur, whilst repressible systems need a corepressor to inhibit transcription.

Answer 174

**Point mutation**: one nucleotide is substituted by another; they are silent if the sequence of amino acids doesn't change.

Answer 175

**Frameshift:** insertions or deletions shift reading frame. Protein doesn't form, or is non-functional.

Answer 176

DNA/RNA can be single or double stranded (**must be only of one type**) in a protein coat. Acellular structures. Lytic cycle: virus kills the host cell (causing it to lyse with replicates) Lsogenic cycle: virus enters host genome. UV-light can cause lytic cycle later.

Answer 177

**Transformation** occurs when a bacterium acquires a piece of genetic material from the environment and integrates that piece of genetic material into the host cell genome. This is a common method by which antibiotic resistance can be acquired.

Answer 178

**Conjugation** is the bacterial form of mating (sexual reproduction). It involves two cells forming a cytoplasmic bridge between them that allows for the transfer of genetic material. The transfer is one way, from the donor male (+) to the recipient female (-). The bridge is made from appendages called **sex pili** that are found on the donor male. To form the pili, the bacteria must conatin plasmids known as **sex factors.**

Answer 179

**Transduction** occurs when a bacteriophage acquires genetic information from a host cell. Sometimes, when the new virions are assembled in a host cell, some of the genetic material fromo the host cell is packaged along with the viral genetic material. Then, the bacteriophage infects another bacterium, resulting in transfer of bacterial genetic material.

Answer 180

**Atomic weight:** The weighted average of the masses of the naturally occuring isotopes of an element (proportioned out), in amu per molecule or grams per mole

Answer 181

6.022 \* 10^23

Answer 182

For a given element, multiple species of atoms with the same number of protons (i.e., **same atomic number**) but with different numbers neutrons (i.e., **different mass numbers**).

Answer 183

**Planck's quantum theory:** Energy emitted as electro-magnetic radiation from matter exists in discrete bundles called quanta.

Answer 184

**Absorption spectrum:** Characteristic energy bands where electrons absorb energy.

Answer 185

**Heisenberg uncertainty principle:** it is impossible to determine with perfect accuracy the momentum and the position of an electron simultaneously. (hence *electron density*)

Answer 186

**Principle quantum number (n)**: The larger the integer value of n, the higher the energy level and radius of the electron's orbit. The maximum number of electrons in energy level *n is* 2*n*².

Answer 187

**Azumuthal quantum number (l):** Refers to subshells. The four subshells correspoonding to *l* = 0, 1, 2, and 3 are known as *s, p, d,* and *f*, respectively. The maximum number of electrons that can exist within a subshell is given by the equation 4*l* + 2.

Answer 188

**Magnetic quantum number (*m_l*):** This specifies the particular orbital within a subshell where an electron is highly likely to be found at a given point in time.

Answer 189

**Spin quantum number (*m_s*):** The spin of a particle is its intrinsic angular momentum and is a characteristic of the particle, like its charge.

Answer 190

**Hund's rule**: Within a given subshell, orbitals are filled such that there are a maximum number of half-filled orbitals with parallel spins.

Answer 191

**Valence electrons**: Electrons of an atom that are in its outer energy shell and that are available for bonding.

Answer 192

**Formal charge** is the charge an atom would have if all the electrons in bonds were shared equally.

Answer 193

The **polarity of molecules** depends on the polarity of the constituent bonds and on the shape of the molecule. * Nonpolar bonds -\> nonpolar molecule * Polar bonds -\> **either** polar or nonpolar molecule (see below)

Answer 194

The values of *k,* *x,* and *y*, in the rate law equation rate = *k*[A]*^x*[B]^y must be experimentally determined for a given *reaction* at a given **temperature**. The rate is usually measured as a function of the initiation concentratioons of the reactants, A and B.

Answer 195

A **mole** is the amount of a substance that contains the same number of particles that are found in a 12.000 g sample of carbon-12.

Answer 196

Reactant concentrations, temperature, medium, catalysts

Answer 197

Catalysts are unique substances that increase reaction rate without being consumed; they do this by lowering activation energy.

Answer 198

**Le Chatlier's Principle:** used to determine the direction in which a reaction at equilibrium will proceed when subjected to a stress, such as a change in concentration, pressure, volume, or temperature. They key is to remember that a system to which these kinds of stresses are applied tends to **change to relieve to the applied stress.**

Answer 199

The **law of** **conservation of energy** dicates that energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but that all thermal, chemical, potential, and kinetic energies are interconvertible.

Answer 200

**Isothermal**: temperature of system remains constant **Adiabatic:** no heat exchange occurs

Answer 201

**Isobaric:** pressure of system remains constant **Isovolumetric (isochoric)**: volume remains constant

Answer 202

**Heat**: the transfer of thermal energy from one object to another **Endothermic**: reactions that absorb heat energy **Exothermic**: reactions that release heat energy

Answer 203

**Constant-volume and constant-pressure calorimetry** is used to indicate coonditions under which the heat changes are measured. *q = mc(T_f- T_i)* Where q is the heat absorbed or rleased in a given process, m is the mass, c is the specific heat, and deltaT is the change in temperature.

Answer 204

**Enthalpy**: used to express heat changes at constant pressure

Answer 205

**Standard heat of formation (∆H°_f):** the enthalpy change that would occurt if onoe mole of a compound was formed directly from its elements in their standard states.

Answer 206

**Hess's law**: states that enthalpies of reactions are additive. The reverse of any reaction has an enthalpy of the same magnitude as that of the forward reaction, but of opposite sign.

Answer 207

STP (273K, 1`atm) is generally used for gas law calculations. Standard conditions (298K, 1 atm, 1*M* concentrations) is used when measuring standard enthalpy, entropy, gibbs free energy, or electromotive force.

Answer 208

**The kinetic molecular theory of gases:** an explanation of gaseus molecular behavior based on the mootion of individual molecules.

Answer 209

**Colligative properties**: These are physical properties derived solely from the number of particles present, not the nature of those particles. These properties are usually associated with dilute solutions. Molality (m) must be used, in addition to the van 't Hoff factor (i) for ionic compounds. Solutions with small amounts of solute prefer to keep the solution in its liquid phase, thereby increasing the boiling temperature and decreasing the freezing temperature.

Answer 210

**Manifest function:** explicit, intended function of an institution **Latent function:** unintended function of an institution

Answer 211

(Mass of solute)/(mass of solution) \* 100%

Answer 212

Molality = # of mol of solute / kg of solvent

Answer 213

Normailty = # of gram equivalent weights of solute / liter of solution

Answer 214

**Arrhenius definition:** An acid is a species that produces excess H+ (protons) in an aqueous solution, and a base is a species that produces excess OH- (hydroxide ions).

Answer 215

**Bronsted-Lowry definition:** An acid is a species that donates protons, while a base is a species that accepts protons.

Answer 216

**Lewis definition:** An acid is an electron pair acceptor, and a base is an electron pair donor.

Answer 217

**Amphoteric species:** one that can act either as an acid or a base, depending on its chemical environment.

Answer 218

A redox reaction occurring in a galvanic cell has a negative deltaG and is therefore a spontaneous reaction. Galvanic cell reactions supply energy and are used to do work. The energy of these spontaneous reactions can be harnessed by placing the oxidation reduction half-reactions in seperate containers called **half-cells**. The half-cells are then connected by an apparatus that allows for the flow of electrons. Note that a salt bridge prevents buildup of molecules on either side.

Answer 219

A redox reaction occuring in an electrolytic cell has a positive deltaG and is therefore nonspontaneous. In electrolysis, electrical energy is required to induce a reaction. The oxidation and reduction half-reactions are usually placed in one container.

Answer 220

**Reduction potential** of each species is defined as the tendency of a species to acquire electrons and be reduced. Standard reduction potential, Enot, is smeasured under standard conditions: 25C, 1*M* concentration for each ion in the reaction, a partial presssure of 1 atm for each gas and metals in their pure state.

Answer 221

emf = E˚ _{red, cathode} – E˚ _{red, anode}