Quick Quiz 7 Flashcards
Smith built a $250,000 house in a neighborhood in which houses are valued between $75,000 and $85,000. Any resulting loss of value would be an example of A) functional obsolescence. B) physical obsolescence. C) economic and functional obsolescence. D) physical depreciation.
C) economic and functional obsolescence.
Economic obsolescence is a loss in value due to factors away from or outside of the subject property. Additionally, the appraiser must look at the fact the property in question over functions for the area. It is rare to have only one factor affect the property value. This is a good example of two types of obsolescence impacting the property.
Two pest control inspection companies submitted pest control reports on the same property during escrow. The escrow officer should
A) request one of the pest control companies to withdraw its report.
B) use the report that requires the least work to be done.
C) return the reports to the broker and have him get written instructions from the seller and buyer as to which report to use.
D) return the reports to the broker and request written instructions from the seller as to which report to use.
C) return the reports to the broker and have him get written instructions from the seller and buyer as to which report to use.
The escrow officer should return both reports to the broker because a licensee must disclose to any and all purchasers and sellers any knowledge he may have of any infestation on the premises.
Functional utility in a dwelling is dependent upon A) zoning in the area. B) the desires of its occupants. C) its floor plan and equipment. D) the condition of heating system.
B) the desires of its occupants.
For a dwelling to have utility, it must have the power to give satisfaction or arouse desire for possession. The functional utility of a property is the sum of its (1) attractiveness (e.g., architecture) and (2) usefulness or utility. Therefore, the functional utility in a dwelling is dependent upon the desires of its occupants.
A listing agent gave part of his commission to the buyer. He
A) is guilty of committing a civilly wrong act.
B) must disclose this to the seller.
C) may be disciplined by the real estate commissioner.
D) is guilty of criminal action.
B) must disclose this to the seller.
In a sales transaction, an agent is paid by both parties but he did not reveal his dual agency. What could happen in these circumstances?
A) The agent would be subject to discipline by the real estate commissioner.
B) The sale could be rescinded.
C) All of these
D) The agent may not be able to enforce payment of his commission.
C) All of these
Acting for more than one party in a transaction without the knowledge and consent of all parties thereto is a violation of California Real Estate Law and the Civil Code and could therefore result in all the penalties recited.
What type of organization is formed in order to create a real estate investment trust (REIT)? A) General partnership B) Syndication C) Corporation D) Limited partnership
B) Syndication
The REIT is a form of syndication. It can be organized as a corporation, but that is not essential, as it can also be an unincorporated trust or association of investors organized to take advantage of the federal Real Estate Investment Trust Act in the Internal Revenue Code.
In establishing an estimate of value by appraisal, it is very important to differentiate between the purpose of the appraisal and the
A) principles of appraisal.
B) amenities to the owner.
C) appraisal process.
D) function for which the appraisal is being made.
D) function for which the appraisal is being made.
The purpose of the appraisal determines the type of value being sought. It is not the same as function or use. The function of the appraisal is the reason for which the appraisal is made or is intended to be used. It relates to the character of the decision to be based on the appraisal, for example, price at which to buy or sell, amount of mortgage to be made, et cetera. The appraiser under USPAP must state the intended use of users.
Which form of ownership consists of an undivided interest with the right of survivorship? A) Life estate B) Severalty C) Joint tenancy D) Tenancy in common
C) Joint tenancy
Joint tenancy’s most distinguishing characteristic is its right of survivorship. Upon the death of a co-owner, interest of the deceased is dissolved and goes to the co-owner(s) without probate. Joint tenancy requires the four unities of time, title, interest, and possession.
Who is entitled to examine the records of the county recorder, without being an employee of the county recorder’s office?
A) A bank employee
B) Any of these
C) Any interested citizen
D) Employees of the Office of the County Recorder
B) Any of these
The records of the Office of the County Recorder are public records, with access available to all persons.
A fee appraiser A) assesses land for the government. B) is a self-employed appraiser, who, for a fee, appraises property. C) works full time for a lender. D) works full time for a broker.
B) is a self-employed appraiser, who, for a fee, appraises property.
A fee appraiser is one qualified by education, training, and experience who is hired to estimate the value of real and personal property based on experience, judgment, facts, and use of formal appraisal processes and is paid a fee for such services. A fee appraiser must now be state licensed or state certified.
An offer is terminated by A) rejection by the offeror. B) revocation by the offeror. C) a change in the offer made by the offeror. D) revocation by the offeree.
B) revocation by the offeror.
An understanding of the terms revoke and reject is essential in these answers. An offeror revokes an offer, but an offeree can accept or reject an offer.
A landlord and tenant mutually agree to terminate a lease. This is often referred to as A) release. B) surrender. C) abandonment. D) rescission.
B) surrender.
Surrender is a mutual agreement between the landlord and tenant to terminate a lease. Rescission is a mutual agreement to release each other from any contract before performance, under which the parties must restore each other to their former positions.
A real estate salesperson who advertises a property must provide in the advertisement
A) at least the salesperson’s name.
B) the broker’s name.
C) both the broker’s name and address and the salsperson’s name.
D) the broker’s name and address.
A) at least the salesperson’s name.
Advertising of any service for which a license issued under provision of the Real Estate Law is required shall at least set forth the name of a salesperson as an agent.
Mr. Martin contacted Broker Katz to list a property for sale for $200,000. Martin indicated to the broker that he needed a quick sale of the property. The broker contacted a prospective buyer and told him that Martin would sell the property for $180,000. The buyer made an offer in the amount of $180,000, which Mr. Martin did accept when the broker presented it to him. Under these conditions, Katz
A) did not violate the fiduciary relationship as Katz was employed by Martin and acted under such authority.
B) violated the fiduciary relationship but did no harm as the offer was accepted.
C) did not violate the fiduciary relationship as the offer was accepted.
D) violated the fiduciary relationship as he acted in excess of authority given him.
D) violated the fiduciary relationship as he acted in excess of authority given him.
When Broker Katz told the prospective buyer that the owner would sell for less than the listing price, when the broker had not been specifically instructed to disclose that confidential information, the broker violated his fiduciary obligation to his principal.
A proper acknowledgment may be taken by a notary public who is
A) the grantee of a deed.
B) the mortgagee of a mortgage.
C) an employee of a corporation for which the instrument needs to be acknowledged if he has no interest in the property.
D) the grantor of a deed.
C) an employee of a corporation for which the instrument needs to be acknowledged if he has no interest in the property.
An employee or officer of a corporation may take an acknowledgment if such individual is not personally interested and does not execute the instrument as an officer of the corporation. Duties as a notary public or as an officer of the corporation are distinct.