Questions I Got Wrong Flashcards

1
Q

What class of drug is indapamide?

A

Thiazide-like diuretics

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2
Q

What classification is Isosorbide mononitrate?

A

P - so can be bought OTC

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3
Q

What is the strange side effect of spironolatone?

A

Gynacomastia

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4
Q

What is the treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine

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5
Q

What can cause insulin needs to drop?

A

Stress

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6
Q

Why is ramipril preferred over catopril?

A

Ramipril is OD
Catopril is TDS

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7
Q

What is the treatment for uncomplicated clamydia?

A

Azithromycin 1g stat for 1 day, then 500mg BD for 2 days

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8
Q

What is the treatment for uncomplicated gonorrhoea?

A

Azithromycin 2g stat

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9
Q

What is the treatment for Lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline 200mg daily in 1-2 divided doses for 21 days

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10
Q

What is the dosing for doxycycline used as malaria prophylaxis?

A

100mg OD

start 1-2 days before entering the endemic area and continue for 4 weeks after leaving

Same dose for both adults and children (over 12 years)

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11
Q

What is a side effect of rivaroxaban?

A

Anaemia

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12
Q

What is a side effect of theophylline? (4)

A

GORD
Tremor
Skin reactions
Hyperuricaemia

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13
Q

How should theophylline levels be monitored?

A

Take levels 5 days after starting and 3 days after any dose change

4-6 hours post oral dose

Target 10-20mg/L

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14
Q

When should warfarin be reviewed and potentially switched?

A

2 INRs less than 1.5
2 INRs greater than 5
1 INR greater than 8 in the past 6 months
A time in therapeutic range of less than 65%

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15
Q

How long before referral for sinusitis?

A

10 days

Is likely viral so reassure that is self limiting and provide pain relief

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16
Q

Scabies treatment

A

Permethrin - apply to whole body (apart from head) for 8-12 hours then wash off
Repeat this in a week

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17
Q

Paracetamol dosing in 3 month old child

A

60mg QDS

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18
Q

What are the treatments for gestational hypertension and preeclampsia?

A

1st line: labetalol
2nd line: nifedipine
3rd line: methyldopa

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19
Q

What is the treatment for mastitis during breast feeding? What if they are penicillin allergic?

A

1st line: fluclox
2nd line: erythromycin

Treat for 10-14 days

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20
Q

How should impetigo be treated? What about bullous or if they are systemically unwell?

A

Fusidic acid 2% TDS for 5 days
Mupirosin 2% TDS for 5 days if resistant to fusidic acid

Oral if systemic symptoms:
Flucloxacillin 500mg QDS for 5 days

If pen allergy:
Clarithromycin or erythromycin (pregnancy)

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21
Q

When should gradual withdrawal of corticosteroids be considered? (6)

A

More than 40mg prednisolone for more than 1 week
Repeated evening doses
More than 3 weeks of treatment
Recently received repeated courses
Taken a short course within 1 year of stopping long-term therapy
Other possible causes of adrenal suppression

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22
Q

Which cytotoxic drugs do NOT cause bone-marrow suppression?

A

Vincristine and bleomycin

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23
Q

Which cytotoxic drugs do not cause bone-marrow depression? (2)

A

Vincristine and bleomycin

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24
Q

When should gradual withdrawal of corticosteroids be considered? (6)

A

Taken more than 40 mg oral prednisolone daily or equivalent for more than 1 week.

Taken repeated evening doses of corticosteroids.

Received more than 3 weeks of corticosteroid treatment.

Recently received repeated courses of corticosteroids (especially if taken for longer than 3 weeks)

A history of previous long-term therapy (months or years).

Other possible causes of adrenal suppression, such as excessive alcohol consumption or stress.

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25
Q

How frequently should liver function tests be performed in patients taking amiodarone?

A

Before starting and every 6 months

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26
Q

What are the contraindications for sildenafil?

A

Recent stroke or MI

Systolic BP below 90 mmHg

Hereditary degenerative retinal disorders

27
Q

Which DOACs are more appropriate for a patient with dyspepsia?

A

Apixaban or Edoxaban

28
Q

Within how many days can a patient take a missed dose of methotrexate?

A

2 days

If 3 or more days late then the patient must contact a doctor or specialist for advice

29
Q

How long should a patient wait to conceive after stopping methotrexate? (Both male and female)

A

6 months

30
Q

Is a stye bacterial or viral? How is it treated?

A

Bacterial

Soak a clean flannel in warm water and hold against the eye for 5-10 minutes

Repeat this 3 or 4 times a day

31
Q

What needs to be monitored when taking methylphenidate?

A

Pulse
BP
Appetite
Weight and height
Psychiatric symptoms

Measure theses at initiation, following any dose adjustments and every 6 months thereafter

32
Q

Which TB drug can cause ocular toxicity?

A

Ethambutol

33
Q

What are the symptoms of phenytoin overdose?

A

Nystagmus
Slurred speech
Diplopia (double vision)
Ataxia
Confusion
Hyperglycaemia

34
Q

What is the drug therapy for stable angina?

A

1st:
Beta blocker or CCB

Then, use both together (dihydropyridine CCB e.g amlodipine)

2nd:
Long acting nitrate OR ivabradine OR nicorandil OR ranolazine

35
Q

At what percentile is a child a) over weight and b) very overweight

A

a) 91st and above

b) 98th and above

36
Q

When are lithium levels taken?

A

12 hours post dose or just before next dose (trough)

37
Q

What HRT should be provided for a patient whose last period was less than 12 months ago and has no risk factors for VTE?

A

Cyclical combined HRT tablets

38
Q

Can hypothyroidism cause constipation?

A

Yes

39
Q

What are the brand names for the very potent topical corticosteroids? (2) What are the active ingredients?

A

Dermovate (clobetasol)
Nerisone forte (diflutocotolone)

40
Q

What is the active ingredient of Elocon and what is the potency?

A

Mometasone 0.1%

Potent

41
Q

What potency is betamethasone valarate 0.1%?

A

Potent

42
Q

What is the potency if cuticate? What is the active ingredient?

A

Potent

Fluticasone

43
Q

Which topical corticosteroids are classed as mild?

A

Hydrocortisone 0.1-2.5%

Synalar 1 in 10 dilution

44
Q

What is in Eumovate and what is the potency?

A

Clobetasone butyrate 0.05%

Moderate

45
Q

What is in diprosone cream and what is the potency?

A

Betametasone dipropionate 0.05%

Potent

46
Q

What potency is betnovate-RD?

A

Moderate

47
Q

What is the difference between fusidin and fucibet?

A

Fusidin has hydrocortisone therefore mild
Fusibet has betamethasone 0.1% in therefore potent

48
Q

What complementary therapies can be considered for vasomotor symptoms of the menopause?

A

Black cohosh
Isoflavones

49
Q

What are the risks of tamoxifen?

A

Endometrial cancer

Thromboembolism

50
Q

What is the main caution for letrozole?

A

Osteoporosis

51
Q

What is the treatment for breast cancer for both pre/post-menopausal women and men?

A

For pre-menopause and men: tamoxifen
For post-menopause: aromatase inhibitor e.g letrozole (2nd line tamoxifen)

52
Q

If a patient with breast cancer has been previously treated with tamoxifen, what should be offered?

A

Aromatase inhibitor (letrozole)

53
Q

What is 1st line for urinary incontinence?

A

Anticholinergics immediate release:
Oxybutynin
Tolteridone
Darifenacin

54
Q

When should you review anticholinergic treatment for urinary incontinence?

A

4 weeks after starting
If effective, review again @ 12 weeks then every 12 months (6 months of over 75 years)

55
Q

Which drugs cause blue/green urine?

A

Amitriptyline
Cimetidine
Promethazine
Indometacin

56
Q

Sulfasalazine turns urine what colour?

A

Yellow/orange

57
Q

Phenytoin turns urine what colour?

A

Pink/brown

58
Q

Levodopa turns urine what colour?

A

Reddish / darker in colour

59
Q

The ‘rubacins turn urine what colour?

A

Pink/red (1-2 days post treatment)

60
Q

Senna turns urine what colour?

A

Yellow/red

61
Q

What are the P450 inducers?

A

Carbamazepine
Rifampicin
Alcohol
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbitone
Sulfonureas / St John’s wort / smoking

62
Q

What are the P450 inhibitors?

A

Sodium valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Alcohol and grapefruit juice
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Sulfonamides
Ciprofloxacin
Omeprazole
Metronidazole

63
Q

Patients which a sensitivity to which drug class should avoid tacrolimus?

A

Macrolides (cross-sensitivity)