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Question for General Revision > Questions I got wrong > Flashcards

Questions I got wrong Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first line treatment for viral encephalitis?

A

IV aciclovir

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2
Q

How does an extradural haemorrhage present on a CT?

A

Biconvex image

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3
Q

What medication should never be prescribed with beta blockers, and why?

A

verapamil, it can cause heart failure

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4
Q

How does syringomyelia usually present?

A

With cape like loss of pain and temperature

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5
Q

When does a patient with Barrett oesophagus require an endoscopic intervention?

A

When there is evidence of dysplasia on a biopsy

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6
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

The abnormal development of cells within tissues or organs

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7
Q

If you patient has acute heart failure and is not responding to treatment what is your next line of treatment?

A

CPAP

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8
Q

What blood results will you see in a patient with Addisons disease?

A

Low sodium
High potassium
Low cortisol

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9
Q

What blood results would you see in a patient with Conn’s syndrome?

A

Increased aldosterone
Decreased potassium

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10
Q

What drugs should you NEVER prescribe with statins?

A

Erythromycin and clarithromycin

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11
Q

What is the nephritic triad?

A

Haematuria, oliguria and HTN

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12
Q

If a patient presents with neurological symptoms AND liver disease what should your main differential diagnosis be?

A

Wilson’s disease

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13
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

A

It is a rare inherited disorder that that causes copper to accumulate in your liver, brain and other vital organs

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14
Q

If you have diagnosed Lyme’s then what drugs do you need to prescribe ASAP, give an example of the drug you would use

A

Antibiotics, doxycycline

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15
Q

What are the daily requirements for potassium?

A

1.0 mmol/kg/day

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16
Q

What are you looking for in blood results when you are testing for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies

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17
Q

If a patient presents with an AKI and their urea is significantly higher than their creatinine, what is the most likely cause of the AKI?

A

Dehydration

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18
Q

What intervention is used for patients in severe type 1 respiratory failure?

A

CPAP

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19
Q

What intervention is used for patients in severe type 2 respiratory failure?

A

BiPAP

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20
Q

What is your first line treatment for a UC flare up?

A

Aminosalicylates

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21
Q

How do you test for or monitor lupus?

A

Look at ANA levels

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22
Q

In a PCI are bare metal stents or drug eluting stents preferred?

A

Drug eluting stents

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23
Q

Can patients with AKIs remain on their ACEi?

A

NO, stop them ASAP

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24
Q

When looking at a coeliac screen what are the two results that you are looking at?

A

TTG and IgA

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25
Q

If you patient has liver cirrhosis and has developed heart failure or ascites, what drug should you be thinking of prescribing?

A

Spirinolactone

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26
Q

If your patient has AF and presents with sudden abdo pain with no abdo examination findings, what should be your differential diagnosis?

A

Acute mesenteric ischaemia

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27
Q

What will you hear from a tricuspid regurgitation murmur?

A

Pansystolic murmur
Heard loudest in the 4th intercostal space
Heard loudest on inspiration

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28
Q

If you see ring or tram like markings on an X-Ray what should you be thinking for a diagnosis?

A

Bronchiectasis

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29
Q

What scoring system is used to calculate the % risk of rebleeding and mortality after an endoscopy?

A

Rockall score system

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30
Q

What drug should never be prescribe to a patient with Parkinsons?

A

Metoclopramide

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31
Q

What can occur after an MI due to mitral valve regurgitation?

A

Flash pulmonary oedema

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32
Q

What type of murmur is heard with mitral valve regurgitation?

A

Pan systolic murmur

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33
Q

If you ALP > ALT (with great proportion) what is your differential diagnosis?

A

Cholestasis (the slowing or stalling of bile flow through your biliary system)

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34
Q

What LFT result will be significantly raised in alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Bilirubin (AST/ALT 2:1)

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35
Q

At what age do patients with haemoptysis need a 2ww referral?

A

If they are over 40 years old

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36
Q

If your patient has low Hb and high bilirubin what condition should you be thinking about?

A

Haemolytic anaemia

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37
Q

What is pneumoconiosis also known as?

A

Coal miners disease

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38
Q

Is pneumoconiosis obstructive or restrictive?

A

Restrictive

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39
Q

At what point do you need to add in an additional drug for patients with T2DM on max dose metformin?

A

When their HbA1c reaches 58 or above

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40
Q

How can alcohol binging affect ADH?

A

It can lead to ADH supression

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41
Q

What is a common complication of SAH?

A

SIADH

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42
Q

How long should your patients stop driving for after an MI?

A

4 weeks

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43
Q

What are the symptoms of polycythemia?

A

“Ruddy” complexion, gout and a history of peptic ulcer disease

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44
Q

What is a common side effect of lithium?

A

Polyuria

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45
Q

What drug can cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

Lithium

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46
Q

Will patients with diabetes insipidus respond to vasopressin?

A

No

47
Q

What will pts with diabetes insipidus respond to, to increase the sodium in their urine?

A

Thiazide diuretics

48
Q

If the sodium in the urine increases what happens to the serum osmolarity of the urine?

A

Decreases

49
Q

What does dehydration do to the plasma osmolarity?

A

Raises

50
Q

What is more sensitive when testing B12 levels, intrinsic antibody testing, or parietal cell antibody testing?

A

Intrinsic antibody testing

51
Q

When should you be cautious prescribing cyclizine, and why?

A

When the pt has HF, as it can reduce the cardiac output

52
Q

Patients with diabetes insipidus will have what kind of plasma and serum osmolarity?

A

High plasma osmolarity and low urine osmolarity

53
Q

How long should pts who have had a TIA refrain from driving and after that time do they need to inform the DVLA?

A

1 month, and they DONT have to inform the DVLA

54
Q

If your patient has raised/normal total gas transfer and a raised transfer coefficient, what diagnosis are you thinking of?

A

Asthma

55
Q

How do you calculate a patients osmolarity?

A

2(Na) + 2(K) + Urea + blood glucose

56
Q

If your patient is male, a smoker, and is suffering from limb ischaemia, what disease should you think of?

A

Buergers Disease

57
Q

What disease is commonly associated with SAH?

A

Polycystic kidney disease

58
Q

If you patient has cancer and they suffer from a blood clot, what is the treatment and for how long?

A

DOAC for 6 months

59
Q

How do the thyroid lobes present in Graves disase?

A

Enlargement of both of them in a uniform manner

60
Q

How can you view demylinating lesions?

A

By requesting an MRI with contrast

61
Q

What supplements must you ensure Parkinson’s patients are on?

A

Vitamin D

62
Q

What TIBC and transferrin levels will you see in patients with iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Increased TIBC and transferrin levels

63
Q

Name one of the main causes of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

A

Systemic lupus erythemosis

64
Q

If you have a pre-renal uraemia, what will happen to the sodium levels?

A

They will be low, as the kidneys are holding onto the sodium to try and maintain volume

65
Q

What must you ensure you start when starting a patient on phenytoin?

A

Cardiac monitoring

66
Q

What symptoms are seen if the patient has had a stroke that effected their middle cerebral artery?

A

Sensory loss in the upper extremeties, hemianopia, aphasia

67
Q

How can you tell whether a patient has chronic or acute kidney injury?

A

Looking at the calcium, if its chronic the calcium will be low

68
Q

What is the acronym that we use to remember myeloma signs and symtoms?

A

CRAB
C - Calcium high
R - Renal failure
A - Anaemia
B - Bone pain

69
Q

What is sideroblastic anaemia?

A

When your body produces enough iron, but the body cant put it onto haemoglobin, and hence you become anaemic

70
Q

What is the rate at which you should be replacing potassium?

A

10mmol/hour

71
Q

What can frothy urine be a symptom of?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

72
Q

What disease puts you at higher risk of developing Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?

A

HIV

73
Q

If you patient is hypoglycaemic and has reduced conciousness, how should you give glucose, and what percentage?

A

IV 20% glucose

74
Q

What is Hoffman’s sign?

A

Shaky hands

75
Q

What is Kernig’s sign?

A

Its an UMN sign thats commonly seen in MS

76
Q

What disease is associated with a mitral prolapse?

A

Polycystic kidney disease

77
Q

If you have altered U&Es and a hx of NSAID use, what disease can it suggest?

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

78
Q

What are some signs of Beta-thalassaemia trait?

A

Raised HBa2 levels and low Hb

79
Q

What’s the first line treatment for C.diff?

A

Fluids and oral metronidazole

80
Q

Female, fat and forty points to what?

A

Biliary colic or gallstones

81
Q

Do patients with suspected GORD need to be started on high or low PPI doses?

A

High doses

82
Q

What is Charcot’s triad?

A

Fever, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain

83
Q

How can oesophageal strictures present?

A

Difficulty swallowing solid foods, but not liquids. Pts usually have a hx of GORD

84
Q

If you patient has COPD but NOT asthma, and is still SOB and only on a SABA/SAMA what is the next treatment step?

A

LABA/LAMA

85
Q

Ptosis and dilated pupils are associated with what CN problem?

A

CN3, oculomotor nerve

86
Q

What drugs can cause hypercalcaemia?

A

Thiazides

87
Q

What drugs should you use to treat ascites?

A

Spironolactone

88
Q

What type of drug is spironolactone?

A

Aldosterone antagonist

89
Q

How much should you increase a pts morphine if they are palliative and their pain is not controlled?

A

30-50%

90
Q

What’s the treatment for SVT if the patient is haemodynamically stable?

A

Adenosine

91
Q

Should you prescribe PPIs if you suspect an acute upper GI bleed?

A

NO

92
Q

What is your first stage of treatment if you suspect an acute upper GI bleed?

A

Urgent endoscopy

93
Q

What are the 3 main symptoms of mesenteric ischaemia?

A

Triad of CVD, high lactate and SNT abdomen

94
Q

Painful rash and a cough are symptoms of what?

A

Sarcoidosis

95
Q

What do you need to test if you suspect sarcoidosis?

A

Serum ACE levels

96
Q

If your patient experiences significant renal impairment after starting an ACE inhibitor, what is the underlying pathology?

A

Bilateral underlying renal artery stenosis

97
Q

What are some of the symptoms of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Depression, nausea, constipation and bone pain

98
Q

What drugs can cause hypokalaemia?

A

Thiazide diuretics

99
Q

What should you test to confirm T1DM?

A

C-peptide levels, they will be low

100
Q

What disease can several perianal skin tags suggest?

A

Crohn’s disease

101
Q

What pathology would lead to patients developing a high stepping gate?

A

Foot drop

102
Q

What is the target BP measurement for a T2DM, that is under 80?

A

<135/85

103
Q

Which regurgative murmur becomes louder on inspiration?

A

Tricuspid Regurgitation

104
Q

Which regurgative murmur does not become louder on inspiration?

A

Mitral Valve regurgitation

105
Q

Where is a mitral regurgitation murmur head at its loudest?

A

Left mid-clavicular 4th intercostal space

106
Q

When should T2DM patients be started on an SGLT2- inhibitor?

A

When they present with signs of CVD

107
Q

How can acute pancreatitis present when looking at calcium levels?

A

Hypocalcaemia

108
Q

What’s the most common pathogen to cause acute pyelonephritis?

A

E.Coli

109
Q

What’s the most common type of nephropathy?

A

IgA nephropathy

110
Q

How does IgA nephropathy usually present?

A

With haematuria

111
Q

What illness usually precedes IgA nephropathy?

A

Upper respiratory tract infections

112
Q

If a male patient (especially younger males) presents with dysuria, what 3 things should you be thinking about?

A

Sexual health, prostatitis or cancer

113
Q

What would you expect to see on a endoscopy if the patient has UC?

A

Pseudopolyps

114
Q

If you see pseudopolyps on endoscopy what does this indicate?

A

UC

Question for General Revision (2 decks)

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