Questions FSI - Feuille updated Flashcards by Cathy@Brainscape (Tech Support)

The Emergency Descent mode is automatically activated anytime a cabin depressurization is detected and the aircraft altitude is greater than \_\_\_\_\_ ft
A - 15 000
B - 20 000
C - 25 000
D - 30 000

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What components are responsible for the processing power of ACE avionics system?
A - MAU 1 and MAU 2
B - MFD 1 and MFD 2 
C - Autopilot 1 and Autopilot 2
C - DCPU 1 and DCPU 2

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.......... generate the data presented on the flight display units.
A - Pilot flight dispay
B - Modular avionics units
C - Multifunction controllers
C - Advanced graphics modules

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The ........... button on the Multiofunction controller calls up a secondary windows providing additionnal data related to the selected item.
A - DETAIL
B - PAGE
C - CLR
D - MFD

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MFS messages are cleared using the …………
A – CRV TEST/ERASE button on the left side console
B – Msg clear pushbutton on the glareshield
C – DEL button on the Multifunction controller
D - Msg Clear softkey on the right side of the INAV display

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An active and coupled navigation source will be display in...........
A – Green 
B – Cyan 
C – Magenta 
D - White

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(Refer to figure 11) Referencing the provided Passager Moment Table, what is the moment value, (lb. in.) for a passager that weighs 220 lbs, and is seated is ROW 2?
A –29,610 
B –32,900 
C –55,930 
D -72,380

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The PC-24 measures ............... in height, which must be noted in case the aircraft is to be parked in a hangar overnight.
A – 10 ft. 11 in. (3,3 m) 
B – 17 ft. 4 in. (5,3 m) 
C – 23 ft. 1 in. (7 m) 
D - 55 ft. 9 in. (17 m)

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Purging of the water tank assembly is completed by using the connections on the ………..
A – Ground Service Panel
B – Refuel/Defuel Panel
C – Status indication Panel on the vacuum Toilet Assembly
D - ECS Synoptic Page

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The first memory item for the Engine fire on-groud / Tail Pipe Fire non-annunciated Emergency procedure is ………..
A – THRUST LEVER……….. IDENTITY/IDDLE
B – ENG SWITCH ……. OFF
C – ENG START ……… Push to motor
D - FIRE XTING Pushbutton ….. Push to activate

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The Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) provides guidance to turn the aircraft 90° from current heading and performs  VMO/MMO SPD descend to ..........
A –Minimum Off-Route Altitude 
B – Emergency Safe Altitude 
C – 10 000 ft 
D - 15 000 ft

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The ........ button on the flight Controller allows the pilot to select which PFD navigation data is coupled with flight director
A – SENSOR 
B – L/R 
C – FMS/MAN 
D - PFD

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The Utilities Management System (UMS) is made of in part of ………….
A – Two air graphics modules (AGMs)
B – Four data concentrator processing units (DCPUs)
C – Four pneumatics check valves
D - Two electrical power distribution units (EPDUs)

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The COM shortcut key on the multifunction controller set the cursor focus on the .............
A – Lower 1/6 window on Pilot's PFD 
B – INAV display  
C – Next waypoint in the list 
D - DIR field for entry of a waypoint

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The ................ provides control of Electronic Circuit Breakers (ECBs) and also provides load shedding when required?
A – CAS Window 
B – Modular Avionics Unit (MAU)
C – Utiity management System (UMS) 
D -  Power Conversion Units (PCU)

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The predictive RAIM page can be accessed via the ………….
A – PRAIM softkey on the INAV waypoint list
B – STAR/L/dg Tab of the flight Management Window
C – PRAIM softkey on the GPS Sensors Window
D - Electrical Synoptic page

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The maximum cargo load limit is ................
A – 500 lb. (227 kg) 
B – 1 000 lb. (454 kg) 
C – 1250 lb. (567 kg)
D -  2500 lb (1135 kg)

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As long as the conditions for a CAS message are valid, the .............. will continue to transmit the message as active.
A – Modular Avionics Unit (MAU) 
B – Radio Tuning Unit 
C – PFD Controller 
D - Primary Flight Display

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Processing the AP button on the flight Controller will engage/activate the ………….
A – Autopilot only
B – Autopilot and Autothrottle
C –Yaw damper only
D - Autopilot, Pitch autotrim function and Yaw damper (if not currently active)

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When the flight crew oxygen masks are operated in the Emergency mode, the system supplies ……………
A – 100 % oxygen with positive pressure
B – A mixture of ambiant air to oxygen under pressure
C – Ambient air with positive pressure
D - Only ambient air while wearing the mask (Oxygen saver feature)

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When the Passenger Oxygen Control valve (POCV) is set to the AUTO position, the passenger oxygen masks will deploy when the cabin altitude reaches .............. +/-150 ft.
A – 8000 
B – 10 500 
C – 12 850 
D - 14 800

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When the Passager Oxygen Control Valve (POCV) is selected to the ............. position, the passager masks will drop and deliver oxygen regardless of cabin pressure.
A – EMER 
B – ON 
C – OFF 
D -  AUTO

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The Oxygen system is designated for enough gaseous oxygen to supply for ………… maximum.
A – One pilot and four passengers
B – One pilot and eight passengers (optional)
C – Two pilots and six passengers
D - Two pilots and ten passengers (optional)

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The maximum airspeed to retract the landing gear (VLo - Retract), is ....... KIAS. 
A – 165
B – 195
C – 200 
D -  250

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``` Operation of the weather radar is prohibited ............ A – In icing conditions B – During an approach C – Within a hangar or other enclosure D - Anything during ground operations ```

``` The minimum height for autopilot engagement after takeoff is ........... feet AGL. A – 200 B – 400 C – 600 D - 1000 ```

``` The auto throttle system must be disengaged prior to ............... A – Takeoff B – Landing C – Descend D - An approach ```

``` The minimum Outside Air temperature (OAT) limit at sea level is ..........°C A – -54 B – -50 C – -44 D - +40 ```

``` The maximum operating speed limit (VMO) is ......... kts. for altitudes 28.230 feet and below. A – 290 B – 295 C – 300 D - 310 ```

``` The maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing is .......... kts. A – 13;448 lb. (6,100 kg.) B – 16,250 lb. (7,370 kg.) C – 17, 650 lb (8,005 kg.) D - 17,750 lb (8,050 kg.) ```

``` The maimum crosswind component for engine start is ........... knots (estimated steady wind conditions). A – 10 B – 15 C – 20 D - 25 ```

``` An engine start must be aborted when N1 fails to increase by ..........% N2. A – 15 B – 25 C – 29 D - 45 ```

``` The term ............. means to land without delay at the nearest airport where a safe approach and landing is reasonably assured. A – Land as soon as possible B – Circle-to-land C – Land as soon as practical D - Land when able ```

The first memory item for fire, Smoke or Fumes in Cockpit/Cabin is, .................. A – Oxygen Mask...... DON/100%/Check EMERG B – Smoke goggles ........... DON C – CPCS .............. DUMP D - PASSENGER OXYGEN .......ON. Instruct passengers to don down masks

The first memory item for an Emergency Descent is, ................. A – Crew Oxygen Marks ............ DON / 100 % / Establish COMM B – AIRBRAKE lever ....................OUT C – SEAT BELTS ..........................ON D - THRUST Levers ....................IDLE

The memory for the All Brakes Fail Warning CAS message is, ............... A – Differential braking ................. Use to stop aircraft B – Wheel brakes / EMER brake............... Use if available to stop aircraft C – Aircraft, ........................................... Use NWS to avoid obstacles D - L+R ENG switches .............OFF

The memory item for an Emergency Evacuation is, .................. A – ATC/distress message .......... Notify B – ENG L+R switches .................. Both OFF C – CPCS DUMP pushbutton ............... Press DUMP D - Park Brake ...............Set

The first memory item for a Rejected takeoff is, ................... A – THRUST levers ................ IDLE B – BRAKES ..................... Max Braking / As Required C – ATC .......................... INFORM D - THRUST levers .....................ATR

``` In the event that an Essential Bus circuit breaker trips in flight, only ............ attempt (s) is/are permitted to reset the circuit breaker if the pilot in command dertermines that the system or equipment is needed for safe completion of the flight. A – One B – Two C – Three D - Four ```

``` The selected Navigation Source is displayed in the ................... A – Upper right of the HSI B – Upper right of the INAV C – System Summary synoptic D - Top left portion of the PFD ```

A stored FPI.N can be selected and inserted via the ..................... on the Flight Management Window. A – Arrival Phase of Flight - Tcomp Tab B – Departure Phase of Flight - Runway/SID button C – INIT Phase of Flight - Data Bases Tab D - Preflight Phase of Flight - Flight Plan Tab

``` If FMSI has been seclected as the navigation source on the both PFDs, the FMSI source annunciator on the top right of the HSI will return ............ in color. A – White B – Red C – Amber D - Magenta ```

An amber "MSG" annunciation will appear on the PFD when .................. A – Caution CAS messages appear in the CAS Window B – Warning CAS messages appear in the CAS Window C – FMS messages are displayed on the INAV D - FMS messages are displayed on the PFD Radio Window

``` Factored Landing Distance for a Dry runway is ............x the Actual Landing Distance. A – 1,15 B – 1,33 C – 1,67 D - 1,92 ```

V-Speeds for the approach and landing phases of flight are entered into the ACE system via the ............... A – STAR/L.dg tab of the Flight Management Window (FMW) B – SID /Takeoff Tab of the flight Management Window (FMW) C – ECS synoptic page D - Manual Speed knob on the Flight Controller

``` The pilot can place the cabin Pressurization Control System into barometric mode by selecting the ....... softkey on the Environmental Window. This selection will allow for the Landind Field Elevation to be used as the cabin altitude target. A – CKPT TEMP B – BARO MODE C – CAB LO D - DEST ELEV ```

C – CAB LO

``` The ................ sends commands to reduce brake pressure to an affected wheel to prevent lock-up at speeds greater than 25 kts. A – Master cylinder B – Digital Anti-skid Control Unit C – Hydraulic isolation valve D - Main wheel de-spin valve ```

B – Digital Anti-skid Control Unit

When the lading gear is extended, all three gear legs are held in the down and locked position by their own .......... A – Down lock B – Hinged doors C – Drag Link in the over-center position D - Proximity switches

C – Drag Link in the over-center position

``` Rudder trim tab deflection is commanded by using the .......... in the cockpit. A – YAW TRIM knob B – AIL TRIM switches C- RUD TRIM switches D - SEC STAB TRIM button ```

C- RUD TRIM switches

``` If VFE is exceeded while the flaps are extending, the crew alerting system will indicate the ............... A- CAS FLAPS INHIBIT (advisory) B – Amber flaps position indication C – Red flaps position indication D - CAS FLAPS FAIL (caution) ```

A- CAS FLAPS INHIBIT (advisory)

``` The rudder differs from the aileron and elevator in that it has .......... which operate (s) directly onto the rudder aft quadrant via independant circuits. A – One autopilot/yaw damper servo B – No balance tabs C- Two autopilot / yaw damper servos D - Two balance tabs ```

C- Two autopilot - yaw damper servos

Manuel fuel transfer is controlled using the ............. A – TRANS Softkey on the Fuel synoptic page B – XFER softkey on the Fuel synoptic page C – Engine switch on the overhead panel D - XFER rotary knob on the overhead panel

B- XFER softkey on the fuel synoptic page

``` The FUEL IMBALANCE amber CAS annunciates when more than a ........... difference between the L an R main fuel tank quantities exists. A – 165 lbs. / 75 kg. B – 187 lbs lbs. / 85 kg. C – 220 lbs. / 100 kg. D - 330 lbs. / 150 kg. ```

D- 330 lbs. - 150 kg.

``` In normal operation, the FADEC channel A and B will take power from the ............. . In the event this source does not provide the amount of power required, another source will automatically take over supplying power to the FADEC. A – Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA) B – Right bus (channel B) C – ESS bus D - Left bus (channel A) ```

A- Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)

``` Both engines have the capability to be synchronized in all power setting except .............. A – T/O and ATR B – Low Cruise C – MCT D - IDDLE ```

A- T O and ATR

Pilots may engage the Auto-Throttle system by ............... A – Using an engage button on the throttle quadrant assembly (TQA) B – Moving the TQA to the NTO position C – Pushing the flight Controller AT pushbutton or the TQA engage button D - Pishing the AT pushbutton on the Flight Controller

D- Pushing the AT pushbutton on the Flight Controller

``` As an additionnal safety function, one fire warning, fully independent from the UMS, is the word FIRE indicated on the ................. A – Extinguisher button B – Crew Alerting System (CAS) window C – Engine synoptic page ITT indicator D - Engine isolation switch ```

D- Engine isolation switch

Pressing the yaw damper (YD) button on the Flight Controller while the autopilot is engaged will .................. A – Only disengage the yaw damper B – Engage secondary stab trim C – Only disconnect the autopilot D - Disngage both the yaw damper and autopilot

``` The Flight crew can isolate the passenger oxygen supply from the crew supply by selecting the............... A – Oxygen System lever to OFF B – Nose bay oxygen valve lever to OFF C – POVC to OFF D - CPCS controller to AUTO ```

``` Maximum takeoff thrust in ATR mode is limited to .................. minutes with one engine inoperative (OEI). A – 5 B – 10 C – 12 D - 15 ```

``` The Electronic Standby Instrument System (ESIS) does not display ............... A – Airspeed data B – Navigation data C – Altitude data D - A slip/skid indicator ```

B- Advanced graphics modules

``` The ................. button on the multifunction controller calls up a secondary window providing additionnal data related to the selected item. A – DETAIL B – CLR C – MFD D - PAGE ```

B- DETAIL

``` The Maximum Zero Fuel Weight limit is ................ A – 13,448 lbs. (6,100 kg.) B – 16,250 lb. (7,370 kg.) C – 17,650 lb. (8,005 kg.) D - 17,750 lb. (8,050 kg.) ```

A- 13,448 lb. (6,100 kg.)

``` The pilot can place the Cabin Pressurization Control System into barometric mode by selecting the ..............., softkey on the Environmental window. This selection will allow for the Landing Field Elevation to be used as the cabin altitude target. A – CKPT TEMP B – BARO MODE C – CAB LO D - DEST ELEV ```

C- CAB LO

``` The .................. sends commands to reduce brake pressure to an affected wheel to prevent lock-up at speeds greater than 25 kts. A – Master cylinder B – Digital Anti-skid Control Unit C – Hydraulic Isolation valve D - Main wheel de-spin valve ```

B – Digital Anti-skid Control Unit

When the landing gear is extended, all three gear legs are held in the down and locked position by their own ........................ A – Down Lock B – Hinged doors C – Drags Ling in the over-center position D - Proximity switches

C- Drag Link in the over-center position

``` Rudder trim tab deflection is commanded by using the .......... in the cockpit. A – YAW TRIM knob B – AIL TRIM switches C- RUD TRIM switches D - SEC STAB TRIM button ```

C- RUD TRIM switches

C- Two autopilot - yaw damper servos

A- CAS FLAPS INHIBIT (advisory)

Water tank quantity for the Water and Waste system is foud on the ............................. A – Pneumatic Synoptic page B – Status indication panel attached to the Vacuum Toilet Assembly (VTA) C – Refuel/Defuel panel D - Waste and Water synoptic page

``` There are ................ Data Concentrator Power Units (DCPUs) that together make up the utilities Management System (UMS) A – 3 B – 4 C – 5 D - 6 ```

To conduct pressure refueling operations, ................ is required? A – Connected battery power (hot bus) B – Selecting the Overhead Battery 2 switch to ON C – Selecting the Overhead Battery 1 switch to ON D - An external air cart

``` On the ground, with the right engine in Quiet Power Mode, starter generator 2 will support loads up to a limit of ........... Amps. A – 250 B – 270 C – 280 D - 400 ```

``` The Wing Inspection light is powered from the ........... bus, and is available with the loss of both generators satisfying CSFL requirements. A – Essential B – Right C – Left and Right D - left ```

Manual fuel transfer is controlled using the .............. A – TRANS softkey on the fuel synoptic page B – XFER softkey on the Fuel synoptic page C – Engine switch on the overhead panel D - XFER rotary knob on the overhead panel

B- XFER softkey on the Fuel synoptic page

D- 330 lbs. 150 kg

A- Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)

``` Both engines have the capability to be synchronized in all power setting except ............... A – T/O and ATR B – Low Cruise C – MCT D - IDLE ```

A- T O and ATR

D- Pushing the AT pushbutton or the TQA engage button

D- Engine isolation switch

Pressing the .................. button will isolate the associate engine and initiate the fire extinguisher arming sequence. A – ENG FIRE B – ENG ISOL C – FIRE ARM D - FIRE XTING

The first fire extinguisher arms ............... seconds after the engine isolation pushbutton is pressed. A – 5 B – 10 C – 15 D - 30

If the UMS detects a defective bleed source, the appropriate bleed shutoff valve closes and the ......... valve opens. A – Cross bleed B – Diverter C – Flow control D - Pressure regulating

The PC-24 has ................ probe-style ice accretion detector(s) on the aircraft cockpit fuselage. A – One B – Two C – Three D - Four

Pilots can activate the deshumidifying function by selecting the ............ ECS softkey to ON. A – De-Humid B – De-Fog C – Heat/Cool D - CAB Fan

The smoke goggle stowage box is located ..................... A – In the cockpit, behind the pilot's seat B – In the baggage / Cargo compartement C – iI the lavatory D - Behind the last passenger seat in the cabin

There are ................ Data Concentrator Power Units (DCPUs) that together make up the utilities Management System (UMS) A – 3 B – 4 C – 5 D - 6

B- 4

The ACE pre-departure mode requires ................. to power selected equipment for flight preparation. A – A Ground Power Unit B – Quiet Power Mode activated C – Battery 1 D - batteries 1 and 2

C- Battery 1

The Refuel/Defuel and Ground Support Equipment compartments have individual compartment lights controlled by ....................... A – The overhead panel B – A baggage compartment switch panel C – The maintenance lighting panel D - Individual compartment switches

D- Individual compartment switches

The PC-24 CAS message priority order is .................... A – CAUTION, ADVISORY, STATUS, WARNING B – WARNING, ADVISORY, CAUTION, STATUS C – WARNING, CAUTION, ADVISORY, STATUS D - ADVISORY, STATUS, WARNING, CAUTION

C- WARNING, CAUTION, ADVISORY, STATUS

The pneumatic system is protected against over-pressure by the pressure regulating valves, the bleed air shut-off valves, and the .............. A – Temperature regulating valve B – Pre-coolers C – Burst disk D - Diverter valves

C- Burst disk

During automatic mode, the UMS will activate, control, and monitor the IPS subsystems when......... ice Detector(s) is/are triggered. A – Neither B - One or both C – Only both D - Three

B- One or both

The Primary Flight Ice detection System does not provide ice detection ................... A – On the ground B – During climb C – During cruise flight D - During descent

A- On the ground

In AUTO mode, when the ice detected signal has ceased, the HDSI is deactivated by the UMS once ............. additionnal inflation/deflation cycles have been completed. A – Three B – Four C – Five D - Six

A- Three

The ECS synoptic Heat/Cool soft key, operated in the AUTO mode will allowed the ECS controller to .................... A – Inhibit the cabin and cockpit electrical heaters only B – Maintain the selected zone temperature C – Inhibit the cabin, cockpit electrical heaters and vapor cycle system D - Inhibit the vapor cycle system

B- Maintain the selected zone temperature

The ECS synoptic Heat/Cool soft key, COOL selection, will cause the ECS controller to ................ A – Maintain the selected zone temperature B – Allow the pilot to manually control the cabin, cockpit electical heaters C – Inhibit the Vapor Cycle System D - Inhibit the cabin and cockpit electrical heaters

D- Inhinit the cabin and cockpit electrical heaters

A grill located .................. exhausts outflow valve discharge overhead A – On the aft belly fairing B – On the left side of the nose bay C – On the right side of the aft fuselage D - Under the nose bay

............... protect(s) the structural integrity of the aircraft in the event of a failure of either the outflow valve or Electrical Control Monitoring Unit (ECMU). A – The ram air inlet B – Positioning the CPCS control AUTO/MAN switch to MAN C – The emergency valve inlet D - The positive pressure and negative pressure relief valves

When the emergency landing gear handle is pulled, Bowden cables allow the gear to free-fall by ............... A – Releasing a centrifugal clutch B – De-coupling the motor and gear box of cach actuator and releasing the shaft brake C – Deactivating the landing gear control unit solenoids D - Activating a micro switch in the motor pump housing

Flaps 8° and 15 ° are limited to a maximum extend airspeed (Vfe), of ................ KIAS. A – 175 B – 180 C – 190 D - 200

Automatic pitch trim is provided .................... A – After pressing the Auto Trim button on the Flight Controller B – Only when the autopilot is disengaged C – Only when the autopilot is engaged D - When the autopilot is engaged or disengaged

The flight control trim position indications are shown on the ...................... A – Flight Controls Synoptic page B – MFD 2/3 or 1/6 window C – Lower 1/6 window on the PFDs D - Flight Alert System page

C- Burst disk

During automatic mode, the UMS will activate, control, and monitor the IPS subsystems when......... ice Detector(s) is/are triggered. A – Neither B - One or both C – Only both D - Three

B- One or both

The Primary Flight Ice detection System does not provide ice detection ................... A – On the ground B – During climb C – During cruise flight D - During descent

A- On the ground

A- Three

B- Maintain the selected zone temperature

The ECS synoptic Heat Cool soft key, cool selection,will cause the ECS controller to .................... A – Maintain the selected zone temperature B – Allow the pilot to manually control the cabin, cockpit electrical heaters C – Inhibit the Vapor Cycle System D - Inhibit the cabin and cockpit electrical heaters

D- Inhibit the cabin and cockpit electrical heaters

The main tank fuel temperature is controlled using ..................... A – HP Bleed air from the Right Engine B – Wing Anti-ice C – A warm Fuel Recirculation System D - Internal Electrical Fuel Tank Heaters

Automatic fuel balancing is disabled for takeoff and approach, if tank quantity difference increases over 441 lbs, ................. and .................... . A – When either fuel tank exceeds the other by 220 lb. ; after a Fuel Level Low CAS Warning message B – After a Fuel Level Low CAS Caution message ; after fuel quantity measurements have degraded or failed C – During normal climb ; after fuel quantity measurements have degraded or failed D - After a Fuel Level Low CAS caution message ; during normal cruise flight

The Williams International FJ44-4A-QPM engines are rated at .................. lbs, maximum continuous thrust per engine. A – 3,300 B – 3,400 C – 3,550 D - 3,600

When a FADEC system fault occurs, a reset may be accomplished using the .................. A – FADEC RESET soft on the Engine synoptic page B – FADEC RESET button on the overhead panel C – ATR softkey on the Engine sypnotic page D - QPM softkey on the Engine Instrument window the Pilot's PFD