Questions from Practice Exams Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following network devices is used to put each connected network host to its own collision domain?
1. Repeater
2. Unmanaged switch
3. Access point
4. Hub

A
  1. Unmanaged switch
    OBJ-2.2: A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A managed switch is a switch with advanced networking functions and security settings that can be enabled and configured by an administrator. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which slows down the entire network. A repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and retransmits it. Repeaters are used to extend transmissions so that the signal can cover longer distances or be received on the other side of an obstruction. Repeaters may be wired or wireless, and they rebroadcast whatever signal is received through their transmitter. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection.
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2
Q

What type of cable is most commonly used to terminate a serial connection to a modem?
1. LC
2. RJ-11
3. RJ-45
4. DB-9

A
  1. DB-9
    OBJ-3.1: A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable.
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3
Q

A penetration tester wants to build a workstation that will be used to brute force hash digests. Which of the following is the BEST option to ensure sufficient power and speed to crack them?

A

dedicated GPU
OBJ-3.4: Dedicated GPUs are designed to conduct complex mathematical functions extremely quickly. If you want to build a system to perform the cracking of a password, hash, or encryption algorithm, it is important to have a high-speed, dedicated GPU. The reason to use a GPU instead of a CPU for password cracking is that it is much faster for this mathematically intensive type of work. Cracking passwords, hashes, and encryption is a lot like mining cryptocurrency in that using dedicated GPUs will give you the best performance.

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4
Q

Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to deliver broadband internet access using a fiber connection to the user’s home or office?
1. optical network terminal
2. cable modem
3. software-defined networking
4. digital subscriber line

A
  1. optical network terminal
    OBJ-2.2: An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations. A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems.
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5
Q

A computer technician is trying to set up a shared printer on the corporate network. The users must send print jobs directly to the printer, and the printer will be used by multiple operating systems, including Windows, macOS, and Linux. Which of the following should the technician configure to meet these requirements best?
1. TCP/IP print server
2. Bonjour
3. AirPrint
4. Virtual printer

A
  1. TCP/IP print server
    OBJ-3.6: The technician should set up a TCP/IP print server since it will eliminate any compatibility issues associated with using different operating systems and allow the users to send jobs directly to the printer. TCP/IP printing is considered a high-speed and reliable method for sending a print job directly to a printer. AirPrint is a feature in the macOS and iOS operating systems, it does not support Windows or Linux. Bonjour is Apple’s implementation of zero-configuration networking and does not support Windows or Linux systems. Virtual printers can print a document to a PDF or XPS file, therefore this will not let user’s send documents to the printer for physical printing.
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6
Q

What is the lowest layer (bottom layer) of a bare-metal virtualization environment?
1. Hypervisor
2. Guest operating system
3. Physical hardware
4. Host operating system

A
  1. Physical hardware
    OBJ-4.2: The bottom layer is physical hardware in this environment. It is what sits beneath the hypervisor and controls access to guest operating systems. The bare-metal approach doesn’t have a host operating system. A hypervisor is a program used to run and manage one or more virtual machines on a computer. A host operating system is an operating system that is running the hypervisor. A host operating system is an operating system that is running the hypervisor.
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7
Q

While working as a technician, you are trying to help a customer whose PC cannot boot up. When the computer is turned on, an error stating “bootable device not found” appears on the screen. What should you attempt first?

A

Verify that either the Molex or SATA cable is connected to the HDD
OBJ-5.3: The very first step we want to check is to check the physical connections. This falls under step two of the troubleshooting methodology (question the obvious). If a PC was recently moved or repaired, the cable may have become disconnected and is no longer powering the hard drive. When working with these cables, it is considered a best practice to ensure connections are present, remove the connection, and then reseat it to fix the issue effectively. If this doesn’t work, then the issue may be with the HDD itself.

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8
Q

Your company has two office buildings which are connected via a copper network cable that is buried underground. There is some construction being performed near the buildings. Now, the second building discovers they have suffered a network outage that doesn’t appear to be temporary. What is the MOST likely cause of the outage?
1. An open circuit has been created
2. Cross talk on the cable
3. Electromagnetic interference on the cable
4. Signal attenuation on the cable

A
  1. An open circuit has been created
    OBJ-5.7: Since the issue started after construction began, it is most likely that the construction crew broke the cable during digging operations. This can cause an open circuit or short circuit, depending on how the cable was cut or broken by the construction workers. This can be verified using a Time-Domain Reflectometer to determine exactly where in the cable the break has occurred. Once the location is identified, the cable can be repaired or spliced to return it to normal operations.
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9
Q

Which of the following types of networks would be created if a wireless access point, a microwave link, and a satellite link were combined in a mesh?
1. WAN
2. WMN
3. PAN
4. LAN

A
  1. WMN
    OBJ-2.3: The 802.11s standard defines a Wireless Mesh Network (WMN). Unlike an ad hoc network, nodes in a WMN (called Mesh Stations) can discover one another and peer, forming a Mesh Basic Service Set (MBSS). The mesh stations can perform path discovery and forwarding between peers, using a routing protocol, such as the Hybrid Wireless Mesh Protocol (HWMP). A wireless mesh network (WMN) is a wireless network topology where all nodes, including client stations, can provide forwarding and path discovery to improve coverage and throughput compared to using just fixed access points and extenders. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices.
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10
Q

Which motherboard form factor measures 6.7” x 6.7” (17 cm x 17cm) in size?
1. ATX
2. ITX
3. mATX
4. mITX

A
  1. mITX
    OBJ-3.4: The mITX (Mini-ITX) form factor is 6.7” x 6.7” in size (17 cm x 17cm). The mITX is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. These motherboards are usually used in computers designed for passive cooling and a low power consumption architecture, such as a home theater PC system. The mATX (microATX) motherboard’s form factor is 9.6” x 9.6” in size (24 cm x 24 cm). The mATX form factor is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. An mATX motherboard is backward-compatible with the larger ATX motherboard since it contains the same mounting point locations as the full-size board. An ATX motherboard’s form factor is 12” x 9.6” in size (305mm x 244mm). ITX is a series of form factors that began with the mini-ITX, but there is no specific size called ITX.
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11
Q

An administrator arrives at work and is told that network users are unable to access the shared drive on a Windows server. The administrator logs into the server and sees that some Windows Updates were automatically installed last night successfully, but now the network connection shows “limited” with no availability. What rollback action should the technician perform?
1. Anti-virus updates
2. Server’s IP address
3. Web browser
4. Server’s NIC drivers

A
  1. Server’s NIC drivers
    OBJ-5.7: When automatically receiving updates through the Windows Update service, your server can receive driver updates for its network interface card (NIC), graphics cards, and other peripherals. This can accidentally install an incompatible driver that causes network connectivity issues to occur. A best practice is to always set driver updates to “manual” so that you can download and test them in a lab before upgrading your production servers. If your drivers were updated and this is causing the connectivity issue, you can perform a driver rollback to the last known working version of the drivers. An IP address is bound to a network interface card using DHCP and there is no such thing as a “rollback” for a server’s IP address. The error of “limited” connectivity is associated with the network interface card and the network connection, not the antivirus or the web browser.
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12
Q

What type of wiring standard is used with POTS?
1. ST
2. F type
3. RJ-45
4. RJ-11

A
  1. RJ-11
    OBJ-3.1: POTS (Plain Old Telephone System) is an older standard used for telephone systems. An RJ-11 wiring standard is used to terminate both ends of a standard phone line. This is also used for DSL lines and VoIP ATA (Analog Telephony Adapter) devices. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. The F-type connector is used with coaxial cables. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable.
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13
Q

A customer is complaining that they cannot connect to the local network share drive. You run the command ‘ipconfig /all’ from their workstation, and it returns an IP of 169.254.34.12. Which of the following is the problem with this workstation?

A

The workstation couldn’t reach the DHCP server
OBJ-5.7: Since the customer’s IP address is 169.254.34.12, it is an APIPA address. Since the workstation has an APIPA address, it means the DHCP server was unreachable. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. APIPA serves as a DHCP server failover mechanism and makes it easier to configure and support small local area networks (LANs). If no DHCP server is currently available, either because the server is temporarily down or because none exists on the network, the computer selects an IP address from a range of addresses (from 169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255) reserved for that purpose.

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14
Q

Dion Training’s graphic designer is having an issue printing full-page color images using an older color laser printer on the network. The graphic designer can print smaller images such as full-page vector graphic logos, but if they attempt to print a full-page bitmap photo the printer will print only 60% to 70% of the page and then fail. The vector images are less than 100 MB in size, but the larger bitmap photos can be 400 MB to 800 MB in size. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the print failure of the photos?
1. The connection to the printer server is timing out.
2. The printer is low on black toner
3. The graphic designer is not printing using PCL
4. The printer is running out of memory

A
  1. The printer is running out of memory.
    OBJ-5.6: The most likely reason for this failure is a lack of memory in the printer. A laser printer must load the entire image into memory before it can process it and print the image to the page. If the laser printer runs out of memory, it will print the part of the image it has processed in memory to the page and then fails. For example, if this printer only has 256 MB of RAM, then it will be able to print the vector graphics without any issues and will fail when trying to print full-size high-resolution photos that are 400 MB to 800 MB in size. There is no indication that there is fading in the printed images to indicate the toner is low. Whether using PCL or PostScript, the lack of memory will still cause the print job to fail. The print server is not timing out since the printer can load most of the image to its memory before failing.
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15
Q

Which of the following statements about the 5.0 GHz wireless frequency used by Wi-Fi is correct?
1. The 5.0 GHz frequency has more channels available than 2.4 GHz
2. The 5.0 GHz frequency is more effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 GHz
3. The 5.0 GHz frequency has a shorter wavelength that allows the signal to travel further than 2.4 GHz using the same power levels
4. The 5.0 GHz frequency supports lower data rates than 2.4 GHz

A
  1. The 5.0 GHz frequency has more channels available than 2.4 GHz
    OBJ-2.3: The 5.0 GHz frequency has more individual channels giving it less congestion and interference than the 2.4 GHz frequency. The 5.0 GHz frequency supports higher data rates than the 2.4 GHz frequency due to lower levels of congestion and interference. The longer wavelength of 2.4 GHz makes it better at propagating through solid surfaces than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The 2.4 GHz frequency has a longer wavelength than the 5.0 GHz frequency. This longer wavelength gives the 2.4 GHz frequency the ability to cover a longer range using the same power output levels.
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16
Q

A customer tried to install a PCIe x8 expansion card into a PCIe x16 slot on the motherboard. While the expansion card fits into the slot without any issues, it does not perform as the customer expected. How fast will a PCIe x8 expansion card run if installed in a PCIe x16 slot?

A

The card will run at x1 speed
OBJ-3.4: While a PCIe x8 card will fit into either an x8 or x16 slot, it will only run at optimal speed when placed into an x8 slot. If the x8 card is placed into an x16 slot, it will reduce the speed to the equivalent of a 1x slot to ensure compatibility and reliability. Even though placing an x8 card into an x16 slot is supported, it is generally considered a bad practice. Instead, you should only insert an x8 card into an x8 slot for optimal performance.

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17
Q

A cybersecurity analyst wants to install a network appliance to conduct packet capturing of the network traffic between the router and the firewall on the network. The device should not be installed in line with the network, so it must receive a copy of all traffic flowing to or from the firewall. Which of the following tools is required to meet these requirements?
1. WiFi analyzer
2. Network tap
3. Toner probe
4. Loopback plug

A
  1. Network tap
    OBJ-2.8: A network tap is used to create a physical connection to the network that sends a copy of every packet received to a monitoring device for capture and analysis. A WiFi analyzer can determine the wireless network’s signal strength, the frequencies in use, and any possible radio frequency interference. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics.
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18
Q

You are troubleshooting an issue with an impact printer in an automotive service department. The printer has begun to print unevenly. As the print head goes from left to right across the page, the printout goes from darker to lighter. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
1. Defective ribbon advance mechanism
2. Broken feed assembly
3. Clogged print head
4. Worn out printer ribbon

A
  1. Defective ribbon advance mechanism
    OBJ-5.6: An impact printer has teeth along the paper’s edges that pull the paper along a tractor as it prints. This moves the paper up one line at a time. The print head moves from left to right across the page, impacting the print head through the ribbon to mark the paper. If the ribbon advance mechanism is defective, the ribbon will not advance as the print head goes across the page, leading to a lightening of the ink being marked on the paper. If the printer ribbon itself were worn out, it would be lighter in color as you went down the page (not from left to right).
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19
Q

You just printed a new sign for your office using thick cardstock paper with your network printer. Unfortunately, when you pick up the cardstock from the laser printer’s output tray, the printed image smears across the paper. Attempting to troubleshoot this problem, you decide to print another sign using regular printer paper and determine that the image does not smear when touched on the regular printer paper. Which of the following would be the NEXT step to perform in your troubleshooting efforts?
1. Change the feed rate of the paper
2. Clean the printer’s transfer roller
3. Replace the toner cartridge in the printer
4. Increase the temperature of the fuser element

A
  1. Increase the temperature of the fuser element
    OBJ-5.6: When printing with a laser printer, the paper passes through rollers in the fuser assembly, where temperatures up to 801 F (427 C) and pressure are used to bond the toner to the paper permanently. If you often print with specialty paper (i.e., envelopes, cardstock, & labels), you may want to turn up the fuser temperature on your printer. With thicker paper types, heat does not transfer as easily as it does with standard paper so the toner may not bond as well and the image could smear when it is touched.
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20
Q

What is the sixth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

A

Document findings, actions and outcomes
OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

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21
Q

Jason wants to order a new gaming laptop for his son for his birthday. The laptop display must support a high refresh rate of 120 Hz or 144 Hz. Which of the following types of laptop displays should Jason purchase to meet this requirement?
1. TN
2. VA
3. Plasma
4. IPS

A
  1. TN
    OBJ-1.2: A twisted nematic (TN) LCD panel uses technology where the panel is black when no electric current is running through the liquid crystal cells because the cells align themselves in a twisted state. When an electric current is applied, the liquid crystal cells untwist, allowing light to pass through, resulting in a white display screen. TN displays can be made with high refresh rates of 120 Hz or 144 Hz which makes them popular with gamers. An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. IPS displays have great color accuracy, but they do not support higher refresh rates sought after by gamers. A vertical alignment (VA) LCD panel uses technology designed to have liquid crystals lay perpendicular to the glass substrate when power is removed and in a vertical position when voltage is applied. This allows light to move through the liquid pixels when voltage is applied and the image is then produced. VA displays are a good middle-ground between IPS and TN panel displays. A plasma display is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.
22
Q

Which of the following operating systems cannot be installed as a guest inside of a virtual machine on a Windows 10 laptop running Virtual Box?
1. Windows 8
2. Red Hat Linux
3. macOS
4. Kali Linux

A
  1. macOS
    OBJ-4.2: The macOS software can only be installed in a Virtual Box virtual machine running on a macOS system. If you are running Virtual Box on Windows, it can only install other versions of Windows, Linux, and Unix. This is because Apple’s operating system is a free product but can only be installed on official Apple hardware as part of the licensing agreement. A Windows or Linux virtual machine can be installed on any host operating system.
23
Q

A user submits a trouble ticket for their laptop. The user states that every time they move the laptop from one place to another, the system loses power and shuts down You have examined the laptop fully and then removed and reinstalled the hard drive, RAM, ribbon cable to the LCD, and the battery, but the laptop is still shutting down whenever it is moved. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue with this laptop shutting down?
1. Laptop is overheating
2. Laptop is unplugged
3. Battery connection is loose
4. Failed CMOS battery

A
  1. Batter connection is loose
    OBJ-5.5: Based on the symptoms provided (laptop shutting down whenever it is moved), it is most likely a loose battery connection causing the issue. If the battery connection wasn’t loos and the laptop was unplugged, the laptop would continue to run on battery power. Overheating can cause a laptop to shut down, but it wouldn’t necessarily happen each time the laptop is moved. If the CMOS battery fails, it will not cause the laptop to shut down, but instead will cause the laptop to lose the correct date/time.
24
Q

You have just installed a new hard disk drive into your computer, but the motherboard does not recognize it within the BIOS/UEFI. You have verified the drive is properly connected to the motherboard and the power supply with the correct cables, but it still is not recognized. Which of the following actions would BEST solve this problem?
1, Update the firmware of the motherboard
2. Format the new hard drive as FAT-32
3. Configure a RAID in the BIOS/UEFI
4. Format the new hard drive as NTFS

A
  1. Update the firmware of the motherboard
    OBJ-5.3: This type of error (drive not recognized) is usually the result of the motherboard’s firmware not supporting a newer hard drive model or the cables not being properly connected. Since we already established that the cables were properly connected, we have to consider the firmware as the issue. To troubleshoot this issue, you should restart the computer and enter the BIOS/UEFI configuration. If the BIOS/UEFI does not recognize the hard drive, then the motherboard’s firmware will need to be updated. If the BIOS/UEFI cannot detect the hard drive, then the operating system cannot detect the drive either (since it relies on the underlying BIOS/UEFI to make the connection). This means that you cannot format the hard drive or configure a RAID.
25
Q

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps?

A

802.11a
OBJ-2.3: The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. Unfortunately, when this was first released, the radios to operate with this standard were fairly expensive, so it did not sell well or become widespread. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6.

26
Q

You are building a virtualization server that runs on Windows Server 2016. The server will host multiple virtual machines, each with a different operating system. Which type of hypervisor should you select for this environment?
1. Type 1
2. Type 2
3. Bare metal
4. Iaas

A
  1. Type 2
    OBJ-4.2: A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of an existing operating system. In this case, the scenario states that the virtualization server is already running Windows 2016, so you must install your hypervisor on Windows 2016. A Type 1 hypervisor, also known as bare metal, uses a specialized hypervisor OS to run the virtual machines (such as VM Ware’s ESXi). Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.
27
Q

Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a coaxial cable for your cable modem?
1. RJ-45
2. RJ-11
3. DB-9
4. F type

A
  1. F type
    OBJ-3.1: F type is the connector used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. A copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable is usually terminated with an RJ-45 connector. An RS-232 serial cable is normally terminated with a DB-9 connector. A fiber optic cable normally uses an ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector.
28
Q

You have been asked to configure your neighbor’s SOHO network. Your neighbor wants to build a Minecraft server so that all their friends can play together over the internet. When configuring their firewall, where should you place the server?
1. WAN
2. Perimeter network
3. MAN
4. LAN

A
  1. Perimeter network
    OBJ-2.5: A perimeter network (formerly called a Demilitarized Zone or DMZ) is a portion of a private network connected to the Internet and protected against intrusion. Certain services may need to be made publicly accessible from the Internet (such as a web, email, or Minecraft server) and they should be installed in the perimeter network instead of in your intranet. If communication is required between hosts on either side of a perimeter network, then a host within the perimeter network will act as a proxy to take the request. If the request is valid, it re-transmits it to the destination. External hosts have no idea about what is behind the perimeter network so that the intranet remains secure. A perimeter network can be implemented using either two firewalls (screened subnet) or a single three-legged firewall (one with three network ports). In this SOHO network, it would use a single three-legged firewall approach to separate the perimeter network from the LAN and WAN. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a network that covers a geographical area equivalent to a city or municipality.
29
Q

John connected his MacBook to the corporate network and is trying to print to the office’s large network printer. John notices that the print job is failing to print. The other employees in the office are having no issues printing from their Windows workstations. Which of the following should be done to resolve John’s issue?
1. Install and enable the OS X printing option on the network printer
2. Enable Bonjour on John’s MacBook
3. Install the print drivers for OS X on the print server
4. Restart the print spooler on the print server

A
  1. Install the print drivers for OS X on the print server
    OBJ-3.6: You should install the print drivers for OS X (macOS) on the print server to ensure compatibility with MacBooks and iMac devices. Since the Windows users can print to the network printer without any issues, the printer and the network are working properly. Instead, the most likely explanation is that the print server does not have the print drivers for OS X (macOS) installed on it.
30
Q

You are currently conducting passive reconnaissance in preparation for an upcoming penetration test against Dion Training. You are reviewing the DNS records for the company and are trying to identify which of their servers accept email messages for their domain name. Which of the following DNS records should you analyze?
1. NS
2. SRV
3. TXT
4. MX

A
  1. MX
    OBJ-2.6: Mail Exchange (MX) records are used to provide the mail server that accepts email messages for a particular domain. Nameserver (NS) records are used to list the authoritative DNS server for a particular domain. Text (TXT) records are used to provide information about a resource such as a server, network, or service in human-readable form. They often contain domain verification and domain authentications for third-party tools that can send information on behalf of a domain name. Service (SRV) records are used to provide host and port information on services such as voice over IP (VoIP) and instant messaging (IM) applications.
31
Q

Which of the following technologies would allow an organization to secure and manage their customer enterprise applications that are installed on a user’s smartphone or tablet?
1. MDM
2. GSM
3. MAM
4. CDMA

A
  1. MAM
    OBJ-1.4: Mobile application management (MAM) is software that secures and enables IT administrators to have control over enterprise applications on end users’ corporate and personal smartphones and tablets. MAM software allows IT administrators to apply and enforce corporate policies on mobile apps and limit the sharing of corporate data among apps. Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. MAMs focus on the application while MDMs focus on the device. The global system for mobile (GSM) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal.
32
Q

What type of connector is used to terminate a coaxial cable?
1. RJ-11
2. DB-9
3. RJ-45
4. F type

A
  1. F type
    OBJ-3.1: The F type connector is used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines.
33
Q

A car dealer recently set up an impact printer in their automotive repair shop. Unfortunately, the printer’s output is now starting to crease the paper as it is printed which can lead to a paper jam during feeding. Which of the following might be causing these issues? (Choose TWO)
1. Incorrect paper size
2. Excess paper in the feed path
3. The print head needs to be replaced
4. Incorrect tension setting

A
  1. Incorrect paper size and 2. Excess paper in the feed path
    OBJ-5.6: An impact printer is widely used in situations where multi-part documents, invoices, or contracts need to be produced on carbon paper. These printers use specialized paper fed through the printer by holes on the edges of the paper on what is called a tractor. The paper can crease if the wrong size paper is used or excess paper in the feed path causes bunching up of the paper being fed. The print head does not affect the feeding of the paper in an impact printer. The tension setting being incorrect will lead to the paper pooling or bubbling up during feeding, but it wouldn’t necessarily cause creasing.
34
Q

What are the dimensions of a MicroATX motherboard?

A

9.6 x 9.6
OBJ-3.4: The mATX (microATX) motherboard’s form factor is 9.6” x 9.6” in size (24 cm x 24 cm). The mATX form factor is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. An mATX motherboard is backward-compatible with the larger ATX motherboard since it contains the same mounting point locations as the full-size board. An ATX motherboard’s form factor is 12” x 9.6” in size (305mm x 244mm). ITX is a series of form factors that began with the mini-ITX, but there is no specific size called ITX. The mITX (Mini-ITX) form factor is 6.7” x 6.7” in size (17 cm x 17cm). The mITX is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. These motherboards are usually used in computers designed for passive cooling and a low power consumption architecture, such as a home theater PC system.

35
Q

The large multi-function printer in your office is shared between 12 people. Unfortunately, it has stopped working, and the technicians have determined it must be replaced. A new printer has been ordered, but it will be 2 weeks until it arrives. The only other printer available in your office is the manager’s printer, but it is connected via USB to their workstation. One of the technicians would like to share the manager’s printer with the other 12 employees for the next 2 weeks as a temporary workaround. Unfortunately, there are no spare wired network jacks available in the office to connect the printer to the network directly, but there is a wireless access point nearby. Which of the following is the BEST way for the technician to allow the 12 employees to access the manager’s printer?

A

portable wireless print server and connect it to the printer via USB
OBJ-3.6: The BEST solution would be to use a wireless print server to connect the printer to it using USB. This wireless print server can then receive the print jobs directly from all of the network users. It is not recommended that the technician create a share on the manager’s computer or set the printer configuration to the manager’s IP address since all print jobs would fail anytime the manager shut down or restarted their computer. Using a USB drive to transfer the files to the manager’s computer each time someone wanted to print is also not a good solution since this is difficult for the users and will be disrupting the manager’s work every time someone needed to print something.

36
Q

Which of the following types of data should you transmit over UDP?
1. Paying your credit card bill
2. Attaching photos to an email
3. Streaming videos on Netflix
4. Updating your Facebook status

A
  1. Streaming videos on Netflix
    OBJ-2.1: UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless, non-guaranteed method of data communication. It does not provide any sequencing or flow control. Data sent over UDP could be lost and never resent. For this reason, UDP is not used for general web browsing or activity over HTTP/HTTPS (Ports 80 and 443). UDP is very good at delivering streaming media, though, since UDP is faster than TCP. Streaming videos or making Voice over IP (VoIP) calls are examples of use cases that rely upon UDP for their transmission.
37
Q

Which of the following cloud computing resources are MOST important when determining a cloud file-storage synchronization application’s performance?
1. CPU utilization
2. RAM utilization
3. Disk speed
4. I/O bandwidth

A
  1. I/O bandwidth
    OBJ-4.1: I/O bandwidth is the measurement of the amount of input and output operations that can be performed within a given time. The higher the I/O bandwidth, the faster and more efficient a cloud file-storage synchronization application will become. Applications that rely on large amounts of reading and writing of data require a high amount of I/O bandwidth. Disk speed is not nearly as important since most cloud file-storage systems use a virtualized file system for storage and do not rely on a single disk. Instead, they rely on a storage area network or a virtualized storage solution. The CPU and RAM utilization on the system would not have as large of an impact on the performance as the I/O bandwidth.
38
Q

What type of Virtual Desktop should be chosen to reduce capital expenditures and have the hardware maintained by the cloud service provider?
1. Remote hosted virtual desktops
2. Local hosted virtual desktops
3. local virtual appliances
4. Remote virtual appliances

A
  1. Remote hosted virtual desktops
    OBJ-4.1: A remote hosted virtual desktop (HVD) is a full, thick-client user environment run as a virtual machine (VM) on a server and accessed remotely. Using a hosted virtual desktop allows a company to utilize the cloud for its desktop infrastructure, reduce its maintenance cost, and shift capital expenses (such as new desktops) to operational expenses (monthly fees to pay for virtual desktop services). Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.
39
Q

Several users from the Sales & Marketing department have called the service desk complaining that they cannot access the internet from their workstations. You arrive at the salesperson’s workstation, open the command prompt, and enter the command IPCONFIG. The command returns an IPv4 address of 10.1.2.3, a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, and a default gateway of 10.1.2.1. You attempt to run the command “ping 8.8.8.8” but get the message “Request timed out” displayed four times on the screen. You attempt to ping the IP of the salesperson’s workstation sitting next to this workstation and receive four successful replies from the command. You then try to ping the gateway (10.1.2.1) but again receive the message of “Request timed out” on your screen. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem with the salespeople’s internet connectivity?

A

The router that connects the Sales and Marketing department to the rest of the company is not functioning properly
OBJ-5.7: Since you can ping other workstations within the Sales & Marketing department, but you cannot successfully ping the gateway device (the router), this indicates that the router is non-functioning at this time. If the router is not functioning, the workstations will be unable to access any devices or servers outside of the Sales & Marketing department since the router is necessary to connect them to those devices.

40
Q

A user is complaining that they are hearing a grinding noise coming from their workstation. You begin to troubleshoot the issue and determine that it is not an issue with the hard drive but is instead caused by the power supply’s fan. Which of the following actions would BEST solve this issue?

A

Replace the power supply
OBJ-5.2: If the fan in the power supply is faulty, replace the entire power supply. You should never attempt to repair or fix a broken power supply or broken power supply cooling fan due to the power supply’s high voltage electrical components. When a fan creates a grinding sounds, this is evidence of an impending failure and the device needs to be replaced. Techicians should never open a power supply or replace any of its internal components, therefore the entire power supply should be replaced in this scenario.

41
Q

Tim’s iPhone was starting to flicker randomly during use. He attempted to turn the phone off and on again to fix the flickering, but it keeps flickering randomly. Which of the following components MOST likely causing the issues in the iPhone?
1. Inverter
2. Display
3. Converter
4. Backlight

A
  1. Backlight
    OBJ-5.5: For mobile phones, flickering is often caused by a failing backlight that needs to be replaced by a certified technician. In a laptop or mobile device, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen.
42
Q

Which of the following network performance metrics is used to represent variable delay experienced by a client when receiving packets from a sender?
1. Throughput
2. Jitter
3. Bandwidth
4. Latency

A
  1. Jitter
    OBJ-5.7: Jitter is a network condition that occurs when a time delay in the sending of data packets over a network connection occurs. Jitter is a big problem for any real-time applications you may be supporting on your networks, like video conferences, voice-over IP, and virtual desktop infrastructure clients. Latency is the measure of time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a network. Usually, we measure network latency as the round-trip time from a workstation to the distant end and back. Throughput is an actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from the source to a destination. Bandwidth is the maximum rate of data transfer across a given network. Now, bandwidth is more of a theoretical concept that measures how much data could be transferred from a source to a destination under ideal conditions. Therefore, we often measure throughput, instead of bandwidth, to monitor our network performance.
43
Q

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency bands and reaches speeds of 108 Mbps to 600 Mbps?

A

802.11n
OBJ-2.3: The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6.

44
Q

Which of the following components of a laser printer is used to apply an electric charge to the paper so that the paper attracts toner to it during the imaging process?
1. Separation pad
2. Transfer roller
3. Pickup roller
4. Fuser assembly

A
  1. Transfer roller
    OBJ-3.7: The transfer roller is the component in a laser printer that applies an electric charge to the paper to attract toner from the photoconductor during the imaging process. The pickup roller is the component in a laser printer that turns above a stack of paper to feed a sheet into the feed roller. The separation pad is the component in a laser printer that acts as a stationary pad in the paper tray to push the stack of paper backward to allow only a single sheet to be fed into the printer. The fuser assembly is the component in a laser printer that fixes toner to media. This is typically a combination of a heat and pressure roller, though non-contact flash fusing using xenon lamps is found on some high-end printers.
45
Q

A workstation in Dion Training’s conference room is experiencing an issue when trying to boot up. When the workstation is powered on, the workstation displays an error stating that a bootable device cannot be found. The technician enters the UEFI environment and sees that the hard disk drive is no longer being recognized by the system. The technician shut down the workstation, opened the case, and verified that the memory modules and cables are properly connected to the internal hard disk drive. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the workstation’s failure to recognize the internal hard disk drive?
1. The boot order of the devices is incorrect
2. There is a mix of DDR3 and DDR4 modules installed
3. The workstation’s hard drive is failing
4. The workstation is overheating

A
  1. The workstation’s hard drive is failing.
    OBJ-5.3: If the hard drive fails, the workstation will experience data loss or fail to boot up. Since the BIOS/UEFI does not recognize the internal hard disk drive, it has either failed or is disconnected. Since the technician verified the hard drive was properly cabled, the drive itself must have failed. If the boot order of the devices is incorrect, the system would still try to boot from each connected drive before issuing the no bootable device error message. If the system was overheating, it would cause intermittent reboots instead of failing to find a bootable device. Each motherboard will only support certain types of memory modules, so it is not possible to use both DDR3 and DDR4 in the same workstation. DDR3 and DDR4 are two different form factors that use different notches, therefore, they will physically not fit into a different type of slot.
46
Q

Dion Training’s RAID 5 array consists of three 10,000 RPM 3.5” hard disk drives. The RAID is reporting that its health has become degraded. A technician replaces a faulty hard drive in the RAID with a new hard drive that is the same size and model as the previously failed drive. Users are now reporting that access to the share drive hosted by this RAID is slower than normal. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the slower performance on the RAID?
1. The technician should have installed an SSD
2. The technician replaced the incorrect drive
3. I/O caching has been disabled on the RAID
4. The RAID array is rebuilding itself

A
  1. The RAID array is rebuilding itself
    OBJ-5.3: The RAID 5 array is rebuilding itself and causing slower performance. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks. When a disk fails in the RAID 5 array, the drive can continue to operate without data loss using the remaining two hard drives. When a failed drive is replaced, the RAID array must be rebuilt by calculating the missing data that was previously stored on the failed drive and copying it to the new drive. This process will slow down the overall performance of the RAID until the array is fully rebuilt and performance returns to normal. The technician cannot replace an HDD with an SSD without replacing the entire RAID. RAID arrays should use the same size and model of hard drives for best performance. The technician could not have replaced the wrong drive otherwise the entire RAID would fail since only a portion of the data on the RAID would remain (one of three drives). The technician did not change any settings in the question so it is unlikely that I/O caching was changed or disabled.
47
Q

Which of the following hard drive form factors would support a 15,000 RPM hard drive for us in a desktop computer with a SATA connector?
1. 2.5
2. 3.5
3. 1.8
4. M.2

A
  1. 3.5
    OBJ-3.3: A 3.5” drive is only used in desktops and some networked file servers using a SATA Connector. While some desktops may use a 2.5” drive, the highest speed hard drives require the larger 3.5” form factor. A laptop hard drive comes in either the 2.5” form factor or the 1.8” form factor. When a 1.8” form factor is used, the drive is connected to the laptop using a Micro SATA connector since a regular SATA connector will not fit due to the connector’s larger size. An M.2 is a new set of form factors for an SSD that uses a mini card interface that is faster than a SATA connection.
48
Q

What printer concept is a page description language that produces faster outputs at the expense of quality?
1. Printer Control Language
2. Line Printer Daemon
3. PostScript
4. Internet Printing Protocol

A
  1. Printer Control Language
    OBJ-3.6: Both the printer control language (PCL) and PostScript (PS) are page description languages, but PCL produces faster outputs that are of lower quality. The printer control language (PCL) is a page description language used to tell printers how to properly layout and print the contents of a document on a page. PCL is a common printing language that is supported by many different printer manufacturers. PostScript (PS) is a page description language used in the electronic publishing and desktop publishing business. PCL is faster to print than PS. PS is slower but produces higher quality outputs. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP.
49
Q

Dion Training has just installed a brand new email server. Which of the following DNS records would need to be created to allow the new server to receive email on behalf of diontraining.com?
1. PTR
2. A
3. MX
4. CNAME

A
  1. MX
    OBJ-2.6: An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic. An A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address. An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address. A CNAME record is a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another (like beta.diontraining.com and www.diontraining.com could refer to the same website using a CNAME).
50
Q

As a PC Technician, you are on the road most of the day and use a laptop. When you get back to your office at the end of the day, you would like to be able to quickly connect a larger external monitor, keyboard, and mouse to your laptop through a single USB port to perform additional work on the larger screen. Which type of device should you choose to provide all the functionality above?
1. Docking station
2. Thunderbolt
3. Port replicator
4. USB 4-port hub

A
  1. Port replicator
    OBJ-1.3: A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop whereas a port replicator can only reproduce the same ports that already exist on the laptop. Thunderbolt is a connector type that can be used either as a display interface (like DisplayPort) or as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). Thunderbolt 3 uses USB-C connectors. A USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available.