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Private Pilot Glider Checkride > Questions for Oral + Flight Test > Flashcards

Questions for Oral + Flight Test Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

What documents must be in your possession when you are pilot-in-command of a glider?

A

Both an FAA pilot certificate and photo ID (driver’s license, State or military ID, passport…). Must be presented upon request by any official representing FAA, NTSB, TSA or any Federal, State or local law enforcement entity.

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2
Q

If you move to a new address, must you notify FAA in writing of your change in address?

A

Yes, within 30 days.

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3
Q

Is your Private Pilot Glider license permanent?

A

Yes, unless it is surrendered, revoked, or the pilot dies.

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4
Q

Can a private pilot share expenses?

A

Yes, but cannot fly for hire.

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5
Q

When can a private pilot charge for flights?

A

When the money charged is given to an approved charity.

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6
Q

What are the medical requirements for Private Pilot Glider?

A

The pilot must sign a statement stating that they have no known medical defect which would make them unfit to fly.

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7
Q

Is a Third Class Airman’s Medical Certificate necessary to fly as PIC of a glider?

A

No

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8
Q

Do the FARs require that every flight be logged?

A

No

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9
Q

What flights must be logged in order to carry passengers in a glider?

A

At least 3 TOs and landings in a glider preceding 90 days. A biennual flight review (BFR) must also have been accomplished and logged within the preceding 24 months.

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10
Q

Even if you never carry pax when you fly, must you have had and logged a BFR within the preceding 24 months to fly a glider as PIC?

A

Yes

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11
Q

What flights must be logged in order to take an FAA Practical Test?

A

The minimum experience requirements for such a test, as specified in Part 61 of the FARs.

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12
Q

What flights must be logged to fly a glider as PIC?

A

A flight review (BFR in accord with FAR 61.56) must have been accomplished and logged within the preceding 24 months. If you carry a passenger, you must also have accomplished and logged at least 3 TOs and landings in a glider within the preceding 90 days.

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13
Q

What are the minimum requirements for a glider pilot Flight Review (Part 61.56 BFR)?

A

A min of one hour ground instruction and min one hour of flight instruction/at least 3 flights.

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14
Q

When does a Flight Review expire?

A

At the end of the 24th month after the BFR is completed.

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15
Q

What flight information should be logged when making a pilot logbook entry?

A
  1. Date, duration of flight, place, type of glider flown, N-number of glider flown, and type of experience (PIC or dual).
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16
Q

Must you have your pilot logbook in your possession every time you fly?

A

No

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17
Q

What documents must be in the glider to be legal for flight?

A

AROW: Airworthiness certificate, Registration certificate, Operating limitations, Weight and balance information.

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18
Q

Is an Airworthiness Certificate permanent?

A

Yes.

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19
Q

What information is on the Registration certificate?

A

The name and address of the owner of the glider.

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20
Q

What are the acceptable ways that Operating Limits can be aboard?

A

Placard, airspeed indicator markings, or glider operating manual.

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21
Q

What are the required operating limits of the glider?

A

Max ground launch and aerotow speeds, maneuvering speed, rough air speed, and never exceed speed.

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22
Q

Where is the authoritative information regarding the operating limits of a glider found?

A

In the manufacturer’s handbook.

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23
Q

What are the acceptable ways that Weight and Balance information can be abord?

A

Placards or the operating manual.

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24
Q

Why is flight unsafe if the CG is out of aft limits?

A

Lowering the nose to recover from a stall may be difficult or impossible, leading to loss of control of the glider.

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25
Q

Why is flight unsafe if the CG is out of forward limits?

A

It may be difficult or impossible to raise the nose of the glider particularly during landing.

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26
Q

What 2 conditions must be satisfied when solving weight and balance problems?

A

Weight of the loaded glider must be at or below the max gross weight and CG must be within the manufacturer’s specified limits.

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27
Q

What inspections must be performed on a glider operated commercially?

A

Annual inspection and 100-hour inspection.

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28
Q

Who can perform an Annual Inspection

A

An Authorized Inspector (IA).

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29
Q

Must these inspections be logged?

A

Yes, in the glider’s airframe logbook.

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30
Q

Who is responsible for determining in the glider is in airworthy condition?

A

The pilot-in-command.

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31
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining a glider in airworthy condition?

A

The ownder.

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32
Q

What is a METAR?

A

Meteorological Aerodrome Reports. A routine aviation weather report.

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33
Q

Decode the following METAR:

METAR KRNO 290456Z AUTO 27016G21KT 10SM SCT100 16/M02 A3001

A

Metar report for Reno, NV airport, 29th day of the month at 0456 Zulu, Automated weather report. Wind from 270deg true at 16 gusting 21 knots. Visibility 10 statute miles with scattered clouds at 10,000ft AGL, temperature 16deg C, dewpoint -2deg C. Altimeter 30.01 inHg.

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34
Q

What is a TAF?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.

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35
Q

Decode the following TAF:

KMSP 241139Z 241212 15007KT 5SM BR SCT015 BKN040
FM1600 16011KT 6SM HZ BKN040
FM2300 14012G20KT P6SM BKN120
FM0300 11010KT P6SM -SHRA OVC040
FM0900 07008KT 4SM -RA OVC020
A

Minneapolis-St Paul Airport, issued on the 24th day of the month at 1139 Zulu, Valid from 1200Z on the 24th day to 1200Z on the 25th day:
From 1200Z, Wind from 150deg at 7knots, Visibility 5 statute miles in mist, Scattered clouds at 1500ft, broken clouds at 4000ft.
From 1600Z, Wind from 160deg at 11knots, Vis 6sm in haze, broken cloud layer at 4000ft.
from 2300Z, Wind from 140deg with 12 gusting 20knots, Vis greater than 6sm, broken cloud layer at 12000ft.
From 0300Z, Wind from 110deg at 10knots, Vis greater than 6sm, light rainshowers, overcast at 4000ft.
from 0900Z, Wind from 70deg at 8knots, Vis 4sm, light rain, overcast at 2000ft.

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36
Q

What is an FA?

A

An Area Forecast is a forecast of VFR clouds and weather conds over an area as large as the size of several states. Must be used in conjunction with IFR bulletin.

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37
Q

Decode the following FA excerpt:

MN…AGL SCT-BKN040 BKN090 TOP 170. OCNL -SHRA. NRN THIRD… AFT 07Z AGL SCT-BKN015 CIG BKN040. AREAS VIS 3-5SM -RA -SN. OTLK… VFR.

A

Minnesota area (altitudes given in feet AGL) 4000ft scattered to broken, ceiling 9000ft broken, 17000ft broken. Occasional light rainshowers. Northern third, after 0700Z, 1500 scattered to broken with ceiling at 4000 broken, scattered areas with Vis 3-5sm, light rain and light snow. Outlook is VFR.

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38
Q

What cloud heights (MSL vs AGL) are FAs?

A

Cloud heights are normally MSL in the western and mountainous states, while AGL is used mainly in the central and eastern states. Thus, 10,000ft broken clouds in Utah and Nevada means that cloudbases are mostly below mountain top level and it is not a very good soaring day. while 10,000ft clouds in Minnesota might be a good day for soaring.

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39
Q

What is an FD?

A

Winds and temperature aloft forecast.

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40
Q

Decode the following FD excerpt:

3000 6000 9000 12000
2124 2524+09 2630+02 2640-06

A

At 3000ft, Winds from 210deg at 24kts. At 6000ft, winds from 250deg at 24kts and 9deg C. At 9000ft, winds from 260deg at 30kts and 2deg C. At 12000ft, winds from 260deg at 40kts and -6deg C.

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41
Q

What is a significant weather prog chart?

A

A prog chart forecasts cloud cover, turbulence, and freezing level. Prog charts also predict the location of fronts and high/low pressure systems.

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42
Q

What information is shown on a radar summary chart?

A

The location of precipitation radar echoes and their coverage, movement, and tops. Precipitation type and intensity are also identified.

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43
Q

What information is shown on a surface analysis chart?

A

Fronts, pressure systems, isobars, wind direction and velocity, temperature and dewpoint.

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44
Q

What information is shown on a weather depiction chart?

A

Areas of VFR, marginal VFR, and IFR weather. Also shown are visibility, ceiling height and sky coverage.

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45
Q

How are PIREPS files?

A

By radio to the nearest flight service facility or by telephone after landing. In flight, you can use FSS Flight Watch (EFAS 122.00MHz). On land, call 1-800-WX-BRIEF.

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46
Q

What useful information do PIREPs contain?

A

Weather observations which would otherwise not be available to ground-based personnel.

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47
Q

What does UA mean in weather report coding?

A

UA means PIREP

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48
Q

Decode this UA:

DEC UA /OV DEC /TM 1236 /FLDURD/TP LR35 /RM +/-5KTS ON FINAL

A

Pilot report, Decatur Illinois: Over Decatur / time 1236Zulu / flight level: during descent / type: Learjet 35 / Report: airspeed fluctuating +/- 5 knots on final approach (low level wind shear warning).

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49
Q

SIGMET

A

Significant Meteorological Information. Advisories of nonconvective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft. Issues for severe icing, sever or extreme turbulence, or clear air turbulence, dust storms or sandstorms lowering surface or in-flight vis to below 3 miles. Convective SIGMETs are issued in the conterminous US for the following:
1. Severe thunderstorms (sfc winds >= 50kts and/or hail >= 3/4in dia)
2. Tornadoes
3. Embedded t-storms
4. A line of t-storms
5. T-storms producing precipitation >= a VIP level 4 affecting +40% of an area over 3000 sq.miles.
Convective SIGMET implies sever or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low level wind shear.

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50
Q

AIRMET

A

Airman’s Meteorological Information. Advisories of significant weather phenomena but describe conds at intensities lower than those which require the issuance of SIGMETs. Intended for dissemination to all pilots in preflight and in flight to enhance safety. Issued for moderate icing, moderate turbulence, sustained sfc winds +30kts, widespread area of IFR and extensive mountain obscuration.

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51
Q

How are SIGMETs and AIRMETs disseminated?

A

By Flight Service Stations

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52
Q

Decode the following SIGMET:

BOS 021340 SIGMET VICTOR 1 VALID UNTIL 021740 ME NH MA VT RI CT AND CSTL WTRS…FROM MPV TO BGR TO ACK TO BDR TO MPV… MOD TO OCNL SEV TURB BLW 070. LLWS POTENTIAL OVR RGN. CONDS EXP TO DVLP 14-15Z CONTG BYD 1740Z.

A

Boston SIGMET Victor 1 on 2nd day at 1340Z valid until 1740Z. For Maine, New Hampshire, Massachusetts, Vermont, Rhode Island, Connecticut, and coastal waters. Montpelier VT, Bangor ME, Nantucket MA, Bridgeport VT, and back to Montpelier (area on map)… moderate to occasional severe turbulence below 7000ft. Low level wind shear potential over region. Conditions expected to develop from 1400-1500Z continuing beyond 1740Z.

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53
Q

Decode the following convective SIGMET:

MKCC WST 281155 CONVECTIVE SIGMET 55C VALID UNTIL 1355Z
MO KS FROM 60N MKC 20NW MKC30SSE SLN LINE SEV TS 20 NM WIDE MOV FROM 31025KT. TOPS TO FL440. HAIL TO 1IN…WIND GUSTS TO 50KT POSS.

A

Convective SIGMET 55c issued on the 28th day at 1155Z. Valid until 1355Z in Missouri and Kansas. Sigmet from 60 nm north of Kansas City to 20 nm northwest of Kansas City to 30 nm SSE of Saline, KS. The sigmet is for a line of sever thunderstorms 20nm wide moving from 310deg at 25kts. Tops to flight level 440. Hail to 1in (dia), wind gusts to 50kts possible.

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54
Q

Decode the following AIRMET:

CHIT WA 280745 AIRMET TANGO UPDT 1 FORTUB VALID UNTIL 281400 AIRMET TURB…NE KS IA MO FROM IOW TO COU TO LBL TO HLC TO OVR TO IOW OCV=NL MOD TURB BLW 060 DUE TO INCRSG SWRLY LOW MID LEVEL FLOW. CONDS CONTG BYD 14Z…ENG 16-18Z

A

AIRMET Tango update #1 for turbulence, valid until 28th day at 0745Z Area covers the states… Occasional moderate turbulence below 6000ft due to increasing southwesterly low to mid level flow. Conditions continuing beyond 1400z but ending bw 16-1800z.

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55
Q

NOTAMS

A

Notices to airmen.

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56
Q

What kind of information is available through NOTAMS?

A

A broad array of info which may be useful to pilots. Includes notices of airshows, runway closings, TFRs…

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57
Q

Wind-Shear Reports

A

Warn pilots of potentially hazardous wind shear which may affect airspeed during approach to landing. Significant wind shear may have substantial affect on glide angle of glider, airspeed, and glide angle over the ground.

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58
Q

What is pressure lapse rate?

A

The reduction in barometric pressure that occurs with altitude increase in the atmosphere.

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59
Q

What is the approximate pressure lapse rate in the lowest portion of the atmosphere?

A

From sea level to roughly 14,000ft MSL, approximately 1inch of barometric pressure is lost per thousand ft of ascent.

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60
Q

What is the barometric pressure at sea level in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere?

A

29.92 in Hg

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61
Q

What are temperature lapse rates?

A

Decrease in temperature with increasing altitude above sea level.

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62
Q

What is the temperature at sea level in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere?

A

59deg F or 15deg C

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63
Q

What is the temperature lapse rate in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere?

A

3.5deg F per thousand ft of ascent.

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64
Q

What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate useful for?

A

It tells us how much a rising parcel of air will cool as it ascents. The cooling occurs as a result of reduced atmospheric pressure at increasing altitudes.

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65
Q

What is the dry adiabatic rate of cooling for a rising parcel of dry air?

A

5.4deg F per thousand ft of ascent.

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66
Q

Why is the temperature-dewpoint convergence rate useful?

A

It allows us to predict the height of cumulus cloudbases.

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67
Q

What is the rate of temperature-dewpoint convergence in a rising parcel of air?

A

4.4deg F per thousand ft of ascent.

68
Q

Calculate the height of cumulus cloudbases using the temperature-dewpoint convergence rate.

A

[1000 x (surface temp - dewpoint)] / 4.4

69
Q

Atmospheric Instability

A

Tendency of the lifted parcel to continue its ascent without any added outside energy. (parcel will continue to be warmer and less dense than the air it encounters at alt.)

70
Q

Thermal Index

A

Measure of atmospheric stability/instability.

71
Q

What power triggers most thermals?

A

Solar heating of the earth’s surface.

72
Q

Why do thermal bubbles of air rise?

A

They are less dense than the cooler surrounding air.

73
Q

What are thermal streets?

A

Long lines of thermals, usually arranged parallel to wind. They can be present w/ or w/out cumulus clouds to identify them.

74
Q

What does the prefix “alto” mean?

A

High

75
Q

What does “stratus” mean?

A

Layered, stratified

76
Q

What does “cumulus” mean?

A

Heaped up

77
Q

What does “cirro-/cirrus” mean?

A

Clouds composed primarily of ice crystals rather than liquid water droplets. Often found high in the atmosphere.

78
Q

What does “nimbo-/nimbus” mean?

A

Rain

79
Q

What does “lenticular” mean?

A

Lens-shaped, almond-shaped.

80
Q

What does “rotor” mean?

A

Horizontally rotating air, often with a cap cloud on the top of the rotor.. Found on the lee side of mountains when mountain wave is present due to wind direction and strength.

81
Q

What type of cloud marks the beginning stage of a t-storm?

A

Cumulus cloud

82
Q

What is a squall line?

A

A pre-frontal line of cumulonimbus clouds. Squall lines are often associated with violent weather and tornadoes.

83
Q

What weather phenomenon is most closely associated with lenticular clouds?

A

Mountain wave (standing wave).

84
Q

Can mountain wave be present even if no lenticular clouds are visible?

A

Yes. If the air is too dry for condensation to occur, no visible moisture will form.

85
Q

While flying in mountain wave, you observe that the clear air gaps between successive lenticular clouds beneath you are decreasing in size. What should you do?

A

Descend immediately to a level beneath the clouds to assure continued visual contact with the horizon.

86
Q

What class of clouds often heralds the approach of a warm front?

A

Status clouds

87
Q

What type of precipitation often accompanies the approach of a warm front?

A

Steady precipitation

88
Q

What class of clouds often accompanies a cold front?

A

Cumulus clouds

89
Q

What type of precipitation often accompanies a cold front passage?

A

Showery, episodic precipitation

90
Q

What is a stationary front?

A

A boundary between two unlike air masses which moves very slowly or not at all.

91
Q

What is an occluded front?

A

An airmass of relatively lighter, less dense air caught bw two air masses with denser air. As the 2 denser masses move closer together, the lighter mass is lifted above the surface of the earth to “float” on the two denser airmasses below. These often bring steady showers and low vis due to condensation of moisture from the lifted mass.

92
Q

What is another name for ridge lift?

A

Orographic lift.

93
Q

What is necessary for ridge lift to occur?

A

Winds and a line of hills or ridges which are more or less at right angle to the wind direction.

94
Q

What hazard is present on the downwind side of a ridge which is producing lift?

A

Often heavy sink

95
Q

What is mountain wave?

A

Sinusoidal waves of lift and sink in the lee of a mountain or mountain range.

96
Q

What conditions are conducive to formation of mountain wave?

A

Stable air aloft, winds appx. +20kts, wind more or less at right angles to mountain range.

97
Q

What type of cloud often marks the presence of wave lift?

A

Lenticular clouds

98
Q

What is the name given to the atmospheric feature which sometimes underlies the wave, close to the downwind side of the mountains.

A

The rotor

99
Q

What is the principal hazard the rotor presents?

A

Moderate to sever turbulence and strong winds

100
Q

What hazards can accompany flight in the vicinity of t-storms?

A

Turbulence, powerful downdrafts and updrafts, wind shear, obstructions to vis, very heavy rain, lightning, hail, downbursts, strong winds, rapid change of wind direction.

101
Q

You arrive at a gliderport for a long-planned xc flight, only to find weather reports of embedded t-storm along the route of flight. What do you do?

A

Postpone the flight.

102
Q

On a day with a thermal index of +2 to +5 at all alts below 10,000ft MSL, would you expect to have much luck using thermals to sustain your flight?

A

No, the positive thermal indices suggest stable air w/out much in the way of thermals.

103
Q

What is magnetic variation?

A

The difference bw Magnetic North and True North

104
Q

Is magnetic variation indicated on sectional charts?

A

Yes, isogonic lines on sectional charts show the amount of easterly or westerly variation

105
Q

What is magnetic deviation?

A

The disturbance of compass cause by magnetic influences in the glider, such as a steel tube framework fuselage or an electrical field.

106
Q

When is a compass indication most reliable?

A

Wings-level, unaccelerated glide

107
Q

What is the component of magnetic north which causes a gymbal compass to have northerly turn errors and acceleration errors?

A

Magnetic dip

108
Q

In a banked turn to the left, if the tail of the yaw string is left of the glider centerline, what type of turn is occuring?

A

Skidding. Excess of rudder was used.

109
Q

In a forward slip with the right wing low and left rudder applied, which way will the tail of the yaw string be offset from the glider centerline?

A

Left

110
Q

When the yaw string indicates a skidding turn and the airspeed indicator indicates a slow airspeed, what type of stall may result?

A

A spin

111
Q

When flying final approach in a crosswind, and using a crab for crosswind drift control, where would the tail of the yaw string be?

A

On the centerline. Crabbing is coordinated flight.

112
Q

What is an inclinometer?

A

A sealed, fluid-damped clear tube with a slight bend, horizontally mounted and with a ball in it to indicate slips or skids.

113
Q

During a left banked turn, the inclinometer ball moves left of the centerline. Which rudder pedal should you pressure to coordinate the turn and make the ball return to centerline?

A

The left. “Step on the ball” when using an inclinometer.

114
Q

What two sources is the airspeed indicator connected to?

A

Pitot and static pressure.

115
Q

Does an airspeed indicator actually measure speed?

A

No, it measure the pressure difference between pitot and static. Greater the diff, greater the indication.

116
Q

Can the pitot tube or static ports become inoperative on a glider?

A

Yes.

117
Q

When does indicated airspeed equal true airspeed?

A

At sea level in the ICAO standard atmosphere (when density alt is 0).

118
Q

When flying at very high alt in mountain wave, does indicated airspeed equal true airspeed?

A

No, true airspeed will be faster than indicated airspeed.

119
Q

What info is necessary to convert indicated airspeed to true airspeed?

A

Density alt info and a flight comp/chart.

120
Q

What color arc on the airspeed indicator (ASI) shows the flap operating range?

A

White

121
Q

What color on the ASI shows the normal operating range of the glider?

A

Green

122
Q

What color on the ASI shows Never Exceed speed?

A

Red

123
Q

What speed is associated with the bottom of the green arc on the ASI?

A

Stall speed of glider in clean conditions (flaps up).

124
Q

What speed is associated with the bottom of the yellow arc?

A

Max speed for flying in rough air

125
Q

What speed is associated with the top of the yellow arc?

A

Never exceed speed

126
Q

When is it advisable to fly faster than redline airspeed?

A

Never!

127
Q

What does an altimeter sense?

A

The barometric pressure in the atmosphere

128
Q

What is the sensing unit inside the altimeter called?

A

An aneroid

129
Q

How does an aneroid altimeter work?

A

Changes in pressure cause measurable change in the size of the aneroid. This change in size is relayed through a gear train to the hands on the altimeter face.

130
Q

What is the altimeter connected to?

A

The static ports of the glider.

131
Q

Can static ports or static lines become clogged and lead to inaccurate altimeter indications?

A

Yes

132
Q

Is the altimeter the primary source of landing information when landing off-field after a xc flight?

A

No, approach should be made primarily by judging the angles on approach.

133
Q

Can changing weather conditions render an altimeter inaccurate?

A

Yes, pressure change will affect the altimeter indication.

134
Q

During a long flight, how can you get a current altimeter setting?

A

Use the radio to obtain the current altimeter setting from a nearby airport or FSS.

135
Q

Why should the altimeter setting be checked before each takeoff?

A

Because changes in temp and pressure affect the alt indication and must be accounted for by adjusting the alt setting.

136
Q

What does a variometer measure?

A

Changes in pressure and convert that info into rate of climb/descent.

137
Q

What is a capacity flask?

A

An insulated flask of fixed volume which serves as a reference chamber for certain types of variometers.

138
Q

If the tubing connections leak on a capacity flask-type variometer, will the accuracy of the vario be affected?

A

Yes, particularly if the leak affects the line between the vario and the flask.

139
Q

What is an audio variometer?

A

A vario that provides an audible tone to tell the pilot about lift or sink.

140
Q

What is the main safety advantage of the audio vario?

A

It allows the pilot to hear the rate of climb, so the pilot can continually look outside the cockpit to see other aircraft.

141
Q

What is the purpose of a total energy probe?

A

To factor out false indications of lift and sink on the variometer resulting from airspeed changes.

142
Q

What is a “stick thermal”?

A

A false indication of lift on the vario when the glider exchh

143
Q

Why is the compensator called a “Total Energy” compensator?

A

It recognizes the sum of height energy and speed energy. Any glider in a flight possess both height energy energy and speed energy. When height is exchanged for speed (dive) or vv (zoom), total energy is compensated variometer shows little change.

144
Q

Why is total energy compensation useful to the cross-country pilot?

A

Because it assists in evaluating lift and sing areas in the atmosphere despite airspeed changes.

145
Q

What does a Netto (Net Total Energy) variometer indicate when in level flight in a steady glide?

A

The vertical motion of the airmass independently of the sink rate of the glider.

146
Q

Are gyro instruments necessary for flying in cloud?

A

Yes

147
Q

What hazard will almost certainly result from flying in cloud without gyro instruments?

A

Spatial disorientation, loss of control of the glider, and a high-speed spiral dive leading to possible loss of the glider and pilot.

148
Q

What type of electrical power is used in battery powered electrical systems?

A

DC

149
Q

Color for negative polarity?

A

Black

150
Q

Can lead/acid batteries outgas corrosive material?

A

Yes, hydrogen outgassing and acid vapor can cause problems including possible explosion or fire as well as corrosion of metal structures.

151
Q

What does NiCad mean?

A

Nickel-cadmium battery metals.

152
Q

How and where should a battery be installed in a glider with an electrical system?

A

The battery should be located and securely installed such that it cannot impede the flight controls or become a missile and injure the pilot in event of an accident.

153
Q

How can you avoid gear-up landings?

A

By always employing a checklist before landing.

154
Q

Landing Checklist

A

FUSTALL: Flaps, Undercarriage down and locked, Speed, Trim, Airbrakes checked. Look for traffic, Land the glider.

155
Q

What is the frequency range reserved for VHF civil aircraft navigation/communication transceivers?

A

108 to 136 MHz

156
Q

What is the frequency range of the communication portion of the VHF transceiver?

A

118.0 to 136.0 MHz

157
Q

Is VHF communication usually limited to line-of-sight?

A

yes

158
Q

What are the 3 things you usually want to communication when using an aircraft VHF radio?

A

Address your Party (New Castle Traffic), Who you are (this is Delta 1), Where you are (entering Right downwind), What you want (landing to the south), party (New Castle).

159
Q

Does lightning cause large static bursts on VHF radios?

A

No

160
Q

What does GPS stand for?

A

Global Positioning Satellite

161
Q

What effect does lowering wing flaps have on lift and drag?

A

Increases lift and increases drag

162
Q

What effect does lowering flaps have on the stall speed of the glider?

A

Reduces stall speed

163
Q

Why is it risky to reduce flap settings during the flare?

A

The reduction in lift may cause a hard landing.

164
Q

What effect does deploying airbrakes/spoilers have on lift and drag?

A

Reduces lift, increases drag

165
Q

What effect does deploying airbrakes/spoilers have on the stall speed of the glider?

A

Increases stall speed

166
Q

Why is it risky to increase airbrake/spoiler deployment during the flare?

A

The reduction in lift and increase in drag may cause a hard landing.

167
Q

What type of breathing oxygen is safe to use in gliders?

A

Only aviator’s breathing oxygen. Other types may contain water vapor which can freeze inside the oxygen system and cut off flow.

Private Pilot Glider Checkride (1 decks)

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