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ITF+ Practice Test > Questions > Flashcards

Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which notation is a more efficient method to express large numbers?

A. Hexidecimal
B. Binary
C. Octal
D. Decimal

A

A. Hexidecimal

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2
Q

Convert the decimal number 35 into binary notation?

A. 1000001
B. 100101
C. 11111
D. 100011

A

D. 100011

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3
Q

Convert the hexidecimal number 16 into a decimal notation.

A. 16
B. 22
C. F
D. 10

A

B. 22

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4
Q

Convert the binary number 1000000 into decimal notation.

A. 32
B. 40
C. 64
D. 128

A

C. 64

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5
Q

How many different values can original, non-extended ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) express?

A. 10
B. 26
C. 256
D. 128

A

D. 128

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6
Q

Which Unicode character encoding standard do must websites use?

A. UTF - 8
B. UTF - 16
C. UTF - 32
D. UTF - 7

A

A. UTF - 8

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7
Q

How much storage does a character data type use?

A. 1 bit
B. 1 byte
C. 4 bytes
D. 8 bytes

A

B. 1 byte

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8
Q

What is the proper example of a string definition?

A. “We're so happy to see you!”
B. ‘It’s going to be a great day.’
C. “The sales person said to the customer: “Have a nice day!” and smiled.”
D. “It is polite to say "Thank you"”

A

D. “It is polite to say "Thank you"”

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9
Q

A package delivery service is working with address information, which contains a house number and a street name. What is the best data type to use for the house number?

A. String
B. Integer
C. Float
D. Char

A

A. String

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10
Q

A computer program contains a boolean variable. What are the stored values of this variable?

A. FALSE, TRUE
B. “F”, “T”
C. 0, 1
D. “false”, “true”

A

C. 0,1

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11
Q

What is an advantage of the float data type compared to the integer data type?

A. The float data type consumes less storage.
B. The float data type is not limited to whole numbers.
C. The float data type require less processing time for arithmetic operations.
D. The float data type is a more natural way of expressing numbers in computing systems.

A

B. The float data type is not limited to whole numbers.

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12
Q

How do the CPU (Central Processing Unit) and storage devices in a computer process data?

A. As characters and strings
B. As integers and decimals
C. As bits and bytes
D. As zeroes and ones

A

D. As zeroes and ones

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13
Q

What are the four functions which represent most of the ways that data moves through a computer system?

A. Automation, replication, optimization, recovery
B. Typing, editing, copying, printing
C. Input, output, processing, storage
D. Addition, subtraction, division, multiplication

A

C. Input, output, processing, storage

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14
Q

What is an example of “processing” in a computer system?

A. Data is written to memory and manipulated by the CPU.
B. Data is written to hard disk for later retrieval.
C. Data is entered by the user through a scanner.
D. Data is displayed on the monitor and printed out on paper.

A

A. Data is written to memory and manipulated by the CPU.

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15
Q

Why is it important to write data to a storage device, such as a hard disk?

A. Data stored in system memory is only preserved while the computer is powered on.
B. Data is available for processing only when it’s on a storage device.
C. Data stored in system cannot be shown to the user.
D. Data on a storage device uses less space than when it’s in system memory.

A

A. Data stored in system memory is only preserved while the computer is powered on.

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16
Q

What is an example of an output device?

A. Digital camera
B. keyboard
C. Loudspeaker
D. Optical Disk

A

C. Loudspeaker

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17
Q

Why is it important to protect computer data?

A. Computer data is not intended to be shared.
B. Computer data is difficult to collect.
C. Computer data is confidential.
D. Computer data is an asset.

A

D. Computer data is an asset.

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18
Q

Data encryption, firewalls, and backups are examples of what?

A. Security controls
B. Data breach
C. Data capture
D. Intellectual property

A

A. Security controls

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19
Q

Which term refers to technologies that help ensure data is available in the event of hardware failure?

A. Data exfiltration
B. Access control system
C. Fault tolerance
D. Data capture

A

C. Fault tolerance

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20
Q

What should a company that’s trying to promote its goods and services have on its name and/or logo to protect it from imitators?

A. Copyright
B. Patent
C. Trademark
D. Firewall

A

C. Trademark

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21
Q

What is a key difference between copyright and a patent?

A. Patents are granted automatically, but a copyright must be applied for and registered.
B. Copyright protection happens automatically, but a patent must be applied for and registered.
C. Copyright is valid for a limited time only, but a patent is granted on a permanent basis.
D. Patents are registered for a limited time only, but copyright protection is permanent.

A

B. Copyright protection happens automatically, but a patent must be applied for and registered.

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22
Q

What is a downside to digital products?

A. Digital products are easy to copy and steal.
B. Digital products are limited to software and computer games.
C. Digital products have a high distribution costs.
D. Digital products are of low quality.

A

A. Digital products are easy to copy and steal.

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23
Q

The information layer of data analytics requires software to perform which function?

A. Meaningful reporting
B. Data storage
C. Data collection
D. Data correlation

A

D. Data correlation

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24
Q

What is the basic unit of computer data?

A. Byte
B. KB
C. Bit
D. MB

A

C. Bit

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25
Q

What does 5 GB (GigaBytes) memory mean in the context of the Microsoft Windows operating system?

A. 5000 MB
B. 5120 MB
C. 5210 MB
D. 5000000 MB

A

B. 5120 MB

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26
Q

Which of the following represents the largest amount of storage capacity?

A. 5 PB
B. 2500000000 MB
C. 3000000 GB
D. 10000 TB

A

D. 10000 TB

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27
Q

What does bps measure?

A. Throughput rate
B. HDD performance
C. Display resolution
D. Processing speed

A

A. Throughput rate

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28
Q

Arrange the following values in increasing speed (slowest to fastest):

A. Kbps, Gbps, Mbps, Tbps
B. Tbps, Gbps, Mbps, Kbps
C. Kbps, Mbps, Gbps, Tbps
D. Mbps, Gbps, Tbps, Kbps

A

C. Kbps, Mbps, Gbps, Tbps

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29
Q

Which of the following measure their data transfer capacity in Mbps (megabits per second)?

A. Older computer peripheral interfaces
B. Wireless networks
C. Latest PC bus standards
D. Data center telecommunications links

A

B. Wireless networks

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30
Q

What is the term for the processing speed of 1 billion cycles per second?

A. GBps
B. Bps
C. MHz
D. GHz

A

D. GHz

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31
Q

Which of the following uses MHz (Megahertz) to measure their speed?

A. Older PC bus interfaces
B. Modern computer processors
C. Wireless technologies
D. Bluetooth

A

A. Older PC bus interfaces

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32
Q

Which of the following best describes their capacity in petabytes?

A. Storage networks
B. Hard disk drives
C. Cloud systems
D. Tape drives

A

C. Cloud systems

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33
Q

The first step in the troubleshooting process is to identify the problem. What are some of the components of this step?

A. Research symptoms; consider multiple approaches.
B. Duplicate the problem; determine if anything has changed.
C. Approach multiple problems individually; divide and conquer.
D. Question users; document findings.

A

B. Duplicate the problem; determine if anything has changed.

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34
Q

What is the second step in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model?

A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
B. Establish a theory of probable cause.
C. Identify symptoms.
D. Research knowledge base/Internet, if applicable.

A

D. Research knowledge base/Internet, if applicable.

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35
Q

CompTIA’s troubleshooting model includes having to establish a theory of probably cause. What is one of the components of this step?

A. Question the obvious.
B. Question users.
C. Question the Internet.
D. Question the theory.

A

A. Question the obvious.

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36
Q

The person reporting a problem is likely to be the main source of information about it. However, if this is insufficient to successfully troubleshoot, what is a good next step to take?

A. Escalate the problem.
B. Use a product Knowledge Base.
C. View log files.
D. Suggest workarounds.

A

C. View log files.

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37
Q

What is the end result of the iterative process of establishing and testing a theory while troubleshooting?

A. Resolve the problem
B. Establish a root cause for the problem.
C. Ensure that the problem is never repeated.
D. Identify the person responsible for creating the problem.

A

B. Establish a root cause for the problem.

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38
Q

An essential part of troubleshooting is to establish a plan of action to eliminate the root cause without destabilizing some other part of the system. What needs to be in the plan of action?

A. Recommendations for a workaround
B. Cost analysis of resolving the problem vs. ignoring it
C. Details outlining every occurrence of the problem
D. Steps required to implement the solution

A

D. Steps required to implement the solution

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39
Q

What is the last step in the CompTIA’s troubleshooting model?

A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
B. Implement preventive measure.
C. Verify full system functionality.
D. Document lessons learned, actions, and outcomes.

A

D. Document lessons learned, actions, and out comes.

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40
Q

Which USB (Universal Serial Bus) version first introduced a SuperSpeed mode?

A. USB 3.0
B. USB 1.1
C. USB 2.0
D. USB 3.1

A

A. USB 3.0

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41
Q

What uses the same physical interface as MiniDP (mini DisplayPort format)?

A. Mini HDMI
B. DisplayPort
C. Thunderbolt
D. Micro HDMI

A

C. Thunderbolt

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42
Q

What type of connector does Thunderbolt 3 uses?

A. USB-B
B. USB-C
C. DVI-D
D. HDMI

A

B. USB-C

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43
Q

Besides Video Graphics Array (VGA), what graphic device interface supports analog equipment?

A. DisplayPort
B. HDMI
C. DVI-D
D. DVI-I

A

D. DVI-I

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44
Q

What is the maximum transfer rate for the Firewire standard which uses 6-pin “alpha” connectors and cabling?

A. 400 Mbps
B. 600 Mbps
C. 800 Mbps
D. 1 Gbps

A

A. 400 Mbps

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45
Q

Radio Frequency ID (RFID) is a means of tagging and tracking objects using specially-encoded tags. What is a peer-to-peer version of RFID?

A. NAS
B. NIC
C. NFC
D. NID

A

C. NFC

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46
Q

A bluetooth device is set up by “pairing” or “bonding” the device with the computer. To do this, the devices need to be put into what mode?

A. Work
B. Wireless
C. Discoverable
D. Public

A

C. Discoverable

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47
Q

What port does and Ethernet network adapter use?

A. RJ-11
B. RJ-45
C. USB-A
D. USB-B

A

B. RJ-45

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48
Q

An office computer needs a new keyboard and mouse. Before ordering them. the assistant should check which ports are available, to decide which style to purchase. Which port is NOT part of the consideration?

A. Bluetooth
B. USB
C. PS/2
D. HDMI

A

D. HDMI

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49
Q

An older digital camera without wireless networking support is malfunctioning, so the photos need to be backed up to the computer. Which port on the computer can the camera owner use?

A. USB
B. HDMI
C. Pink 3.5mm jack
D. Black 3.5mm jack

A

A. USB

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50
Q

A new scanner is purchased for the office, and the technician is using a disk with driver software instead of Plug-and-Play. What is the most likely reason?

A. The scanner is wireless and therefore does not qualify for Plug-and-Play.
B. The technician does not have enough expertise to use Plug-and-Play
C. Plug-and-Play installation did not work for this scanner model.
D. The computer is running Windows 7, which does not have Plug-and-Play.

A

C. Plug-and-Play installation did not work for the scanner model.

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51
Q

A student is replacing an old computer with a new one, with the help of an external hard drive to transfer the contents of the old computer. The external hard drive arrives with an enclosure. What is the purpose of the enclosure?

A. The enclosure converts the external hard drive into internal.
B. The enclosure provides ports to connect the drive to the computer.
C. The enclosure converts a 2.5” portable drive into the 3.5” desktop standard.
D. The enclosure protects the fragile drive from water damage.

A

B. The enclosure provides ports to connect the drive to the computer.

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52
Q

An office building is using a Wi-Fi access point. The computer used to configure the access point’s device options is located on the other side of the building. What does a technician need to make it work?

A. Move the access point closer to the computer
B. Move the computer closer to the access point
C. A longer cable to connect the computer to the access point
D. IP address of the web configuration page

A

D. IP address of the web configuration page

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53
Q

What does the motherboard determine about a desktop computer?

A. Upgrade potential
B. Width and height
C. Lifespan
D. Price

A

A. Upgrade potential

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54
Q

What kind of computer firmware provides support for mouse operation at boot?

A. CMOS
B. BIOS
C. UEFI
D. DOS

A

C. UEFI

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55
Q

What does a PC (personal computer) need more of to open more programs simultaneously and work on large files more efficiently?

A. HDD
B. RAM
C. SSD
D. CPU

A

B. RAM

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56
Q

Which device is likely to use ARM (Advanced RISC Machine) CPU (Central Processing Unit)?

A. iMac
B. IBM PC
C. Laptop
D. Tablet

A

D. Tablet

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57
Q

What is true regarding a 32-bit vs. a 64-bit CPU (Central Processing Unit)?

A. A 64-bit CPU can run a 32-bit OS.
B. A 32-bit CPU can run a 64-bit OS.
C. All smartphones use a 32-bit CPU.
D. All tablets use a 64-bit CPU.

A

A. A 64-bit CPU can run a 32-bit OS.

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58
Q

A laptop built a year ago is likely to have which CPU (Central Processing Unit)?

A. 16-bit
B. 32-bit
C. 64-bit
D. 128-bit

A

C. 64-bit

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59
Q

Which is a true statement about a GPU (Graphics Processing Unit)?

A. Computers used primarily for gaming require a GPU in place of a CPU.
B. GPU works with the CPU to handle complex high-resolution images.
C. GPU must be on its own graphics card.
D. GPU uses analog signals

A

B. GPU works with the CPU to handle complex high-resolution images.

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60
Q

Why do laptops use a heat spreader instead of heatsinks in their cooling systems?

A. Heatsinks are filled with liquid and not conducive to laptop mobility.
B. Heatsinks require a lot of extra electricity to run.
C. Heatsinks are too expensive and reserved for high-end systems.
D. Heatsinks are bulky objects with a lot of height.

A

D. Heatsinks are bulky objects with a lot of height.

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61
Q

What is the main purpose of NIC (Network Interface Card) expansion card?

A. To provide additional NICs to servers on a wired business network
B. To allow workstation computers to connect to the network.
C. To replace the outdated NIC on the motherboard
D. To serve as a faster alternative to the onboard NIC.

A

A. To provide additional NICs to servers on a wired business network

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62
Q

What is the fastest downlink speed that the typical cable Internet service providers offer to their customers?

A. 24 Mbps
B. 1.2 Gbps
C. 100 Mbps
D. 52 Mbps

A

C. 100 Mbps

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63
Q

Why would a business choose satellite service instead of DSL (Digital Subscriber Line)?

A. Satellite connection is more reliable.
B. Satellite systems provide bigger area of coverage.
C. Satellite connection is faster.
D. Satellite service requires no special installation.

A

B. Satellite system provide bigger area of coverage.

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64
Q

Which wireless Internet service does a computer use when it connects by tethering?

A. Satellite
B. Radio frequency
C. Wi-fi
D. Cellular radio

A

D. Cellular radio

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65
Q

What storage technology do SSDs (Solid State Drives) use?

A. Flash memory
B. Spinning disk
C. Magnetic tape
D. Optical drive

A

A. Flash memory

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66
Q

What is the bandwidth available to the memory controller, MBps (megabytes per second), if the SDRAM (Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory) bus is running at 100 MHz (megahertz)?

A. 100
B. 6400
C. 800
D. 1600

A

C. 800

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67
Q

What is the advantage of DAS (Direct Attached Storage) over NAS (Network Attached Storage)?

A. DAS is easier to upgrade
B. DAS is less expensive.
C. DAS provides more flexibility to the user.
D. DAS is more convenient when using multiple devices.

A

B. DAS is less expensive.

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68
Q

What is the difference between DropBox and OneDrive?

A. DropBox can be operated with a smartphone app.
B. DropBox is built into the Window OS.
C. OneDrive is a cloud-based storage solution.
D. OneDrive is built into the Windows OS.

A

D. OneDrive is built into the Windows OS.

69
Q

What is the difference between the address length of IPv4 (Internet Protocol version 4) and IPv6 (Internet Protocol version 6)?

A. IPv4 addresses are 32 bits, and IPv6 addresses are 128 bits.
B. IPv4 addresses are 32 bits, and IPv6 addresses are 64 bits.
C. IPv4 addresses are 4 bits, and IPv6 addresses are 6 bits.
D. IPv4 addresses are 4 bits, and IPv6 addresses are 8 bits.

A

A. IPv4 addresses are 32 bits, and IPv6 addresses are 128 bits.

70
Q

A company operates in 2 offices. Both offices are located in the same town, with about 100 employees in each building. What type of network does it need to connect all of its employees, LAN (Local Area Network), or WAN (Wide Area Network)?

A. LAN, because the offices are local to each other.
B. WAN, because LAN is unable to accommodate more then a few computers.
C. WAN, because there are multiple locations.
D. LAN, because the company owns the equipment and cabling required to set it up.

A

C. WAN, because there are multiple locations.

71
Q

Which protocol supports interactive mechanisms GET and POST?

A. POP3
B. HTTP
C. IMAP
D. SMTP

A

B. HTTP

72
Q

What is true about firewalls?

A. Computers connected to the Internet need to have several host firewalls running for complete protection.
B. Firewalls are physical devices that have to be connected to the computer for protection against threats.
C. A firewall needs to block all outside access to a computer, creating a barrier (or wall) of protection around it.
D. A firewall provides a way to restrict access to a computer or network.

A

D. A firewall provides a way restrict access to a computer or network.

73
Q

Which 802.11 wireless standard can us both 2.4 GHz (Gigahertz) and 5 GHz frequency bands?

A. 802.11n
B. 802.11g
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11ac

A

A. 802.11n

74
Q

A wireless network in a small home office generated poor signal quality. The signal improved when an old cordless phone stopped working. What problem did the cordless phone cause when it was active?

A. Modulation
B. Attenuation
C. Interference
D. Bluetooth signal overlap

A

C. Interference

75
Q

What is the easiest way to install a standard mouse, and configure it to use basic settings?

A. Get the disk with a special driver.
B. Use Control Panel/Settings
C. Download online driver from the manufacturer.
D. Use the Mouse app on the smartphone.

A

B. Use Control Panel/Settings

76
Q

A home network needs its second printer set as the default printer. The computer runs Windows 10 version 1809. Which page contains the relevant options to complete the setup?

A. Device Drivers
B. Device Manager
C. Devices and Printers
D. Settings/Devices

A

D. Settings/Devices

77
Q

What is the advantage of using DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) over fiber optic in a SOHO (Small Office Home Office)?

A. DSL is more easily available to individual homes.
B. DSL supports faster uplink speeds.
C. DSL supports faster downlink speeds.
D. DSL cables perform better over long distances.

A

A. DSL is more easily available to individual homes.

78
Q

Why are USB (Universal Serial Bus) thumb drives non-volatile?

A. They are easy to connect to the computer.
B. They can be inserted and removed while the computer is powered on.
C. They retain data without power.
D. They are very small and light.

A

C. They retain data without power.

79
Q

Which of the following is an example of an optical drive?

A. HDD
B. DVD
C. SSD
D. DDR

A

B. DVD

80
Q

Which statement holds true about a desktop/workstation when comparing it to a server?

A. Server components cost less than those of a desktop.
B. Desktop components are more reliable.
C. Desktop components are more powerful.
D. Servers use the same type of components as a desktop.

A

D. Servers use the same type of components as a desktop.

81
Q

Which of the following does NOT follow accepted MAC (Media Access Control) address format?

A. 192:168:0.10/100
B. a1-b2-c3-d4-e5-f6
C. 0123456789ff
D. 1111.2222.3333

A

A. 192:168:0.10/100

82
Q

A home office with 3 networks uses devices, which include 2 desktops, 4 laptops, 5 smartphones, 3 tablets, and a wireless printer. What device switches the communications between the wired and wireless networks in this office?

A. Modem
B. Switch
C. Access point
D. Router

A

C. Access point

83
Q

An access point is set up in a small home office. What is the best setting for the SSID (Service Set ID)?

A. The default name set up by the vendor of the device
B. Something unique to the network but without personal information
C. The address where the access point is located
D. Something that cannot be cracked by password-guessing software

A

B. Something unique to the network but without personal information.

84
Q

What is the difference between WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) and WPA2 wireless encryption standards?

A. WPA2 uses captive portals.
B. WPA2 uses Temporal key integrity protocol.
C. WPA2 uses Rivest cipher.
D. WPA2 uses Advanced Encryption Standard.

A

D. WPA2 uses Advanced Encryption Standard.

85
Q

What is the Microsoft Edge web browser?

A. Application software
B. Operating system
C. Command-line interface
D. System utility

A

A. Application software

86
Q

Which type of OS (Operating System) allows a user to unistall Windows XP and replace it with Linux?

A. Server OS
B. Mobile device OS
C. Workstation OS
D. Embedded OS

A

C. Workstation OS

87
Q

What problem is Windows’ UAC (User Account Control) designed to solve?

A. Too many guest accounts
B. Elevated privileges
C. Too many administrative accounts
D. Inadequate account authentication

A

B. Elevated privileges

88
Q

What is a clean uninstall of a program?

A. Restarting the computer after performing the uninstall
B. Closing all applications prior to performing the uninstall
C. Using the uninstall option from the program’s folder
D. Removing files and settings manually

A

D. Removing files and settings manually

89
Q

What is the main cause of memory leaks?

A. Programming errors
B. Outdated software
C. Damaged memory chips
D. Operating system upgrades

A

A. Programming errors

90
Q

What type of process is the Windows Task Scheduler?

A. Batch file
B. Application
C. Service
D. Cron job

A

C. Service

91
Q

Which file system allows a file with the name “Encyclopedia:Volume 1.txt”?

A. HFS+
B. Ext4
C. NTFS
D. FAT32

A

B. Ext4

92
Q

Which file system feature uses a change log?

A. Compression
B. Permissions
C. Encryption
D. Journaling

A

D. Journaling

93
Q

What are the properties of a file “Books/CoverPhoto.js”?

A. It’s an executable file named “CoverPhoto.js” in folder “Books”.
B. It’s an image file named “CoverPhoto.js” in folder “Books”.
C. It’s an image file named “Books/CoverPhoto.js”.
D. It’s a document file named “Books/CoverPhoto.js”.

A

A. It’s an executable file named “CoverPhoto.js” in folder “Books”.

94
Q

Who can view the contents of a text file located in the public profile?

A. The owner of the file can always access that file.
B. Administrator has full access to all files in all folders.
C. Only users who are granted permission to view the file can access it.
D. Any user has access to files in the public profile.

A

C. Only users who are granted permission to view the file can access it.

95
Q

A web browser is an example of productivity software. What type of software is an email client?

A. Productivity software
B. Collaboration software
C. Business software
D. Open source software

A

B. Collaboration software

96
Q

What type of software is project management software?

A. Networking software
B. Collaboration software
C. Productivity software
D. Business software

A

D. Business software

97
Q

What type of software is Google Drive?

A. Collaboration software
B. Productivity software
C. Business software
D. Networking software

A

A. Collaboration software

98
Q

A senior manager of a regional office branch needs a payroll report of all staff, to calculate next year’s budget. Which program is NOT useful for that?

A. Database software
B. Accounting software
C. Project management software
D. Spreadsheet software

A

C. Project management software

99
Q

Which of the following types of collaboration software is least sensitive to latency?

A. Screen sharing
B. Document sharing
C. Instant messaging
D. Video conferencing

A

B. Document sharing

100
Q

Why would a locally installed application store data files in a user folder and not the application folder?

A. For faster backups of the data files
B. To be able to uninstall the application without deleting the data files
C. To separate the data layer from the application layer
D. To prevent users from modifying application folders

A

D. To prevent users from modifying application folders

101
Q

What is an example of using a locally installed application without network access?

A. Using Microsoft Word to write a letter
B. Using Microsoft Outlook to check email
C. Using the Intuit Quicken banking application to pay bills
D. Using Apple iTunes to listen to a podcast

A

A. Using Microsoft Word to write a letter

102
Q

What is NOT one of the features of an application virtualization software such as Citrix XenApp, which installs on a network server instead of individual workstations?

A. The data files are easier to back up.
B. The data can be made more secure.
C. Users can use the application without a network connection.
D. The application can be used on multiple operating systems without being developed as a cross-platform application.

A

C. Users can use the application without a network connection.

103
Q

A website visitor realizes that an important notification is not showing because the browser has a pop-up blocker. What’s the best thing to do?

A. Disable the pop-up blocker.
B. Add an exception for this website.
C. Use a different browser.
D. Avoid visiting this website.

A

B. Add an exception for this website.

104
Q

What should a user do to protect sensitive information from malware, when working on a public workstation?

A. Set up a firewall.
B. Enable pop-up blocker.
C. Disable cookies.
D. Clear the browser cache.

A

D. Clear the browser cache.

105
Q

What indicates that a website has a highly trusted certificate?

A. Green padlock icon in front of address bar
C. Padlock icon in front of address bar
B. Green address bar with no icon
A. URL starting with “https“

A

A. Green padlock icon in front of address bar

106
Q

Which of the following is the most likely example of cross-platform software?

A. Application that runs on a Samsung tablet and a Motorola smartphone
B. Application that runs on a Dell PC and a Samsung laptop
C. Application that runs on a Dell PC and a Samsung smartphone
D. Application that runs from the Chrome browser on a Dell PC and Safari browser on an iMac

A

C. Application that runs on a Dell PC and a Samsung smartphone

107
Q

What’s a true statement about compiled programming languages?

A. Compiled programming languages only work on one platform.
B. Compiled programming languages have to transform the code to an executable binary.
C. Compiled programming languages are not as efficient at runtime as interpreted languages.
D. Compiled programming languages are not human-readable.

A

B. Compiled programming languages have to transform the code to an executable binary.

108
Q

What’s a true statement about markup languages?

A. Markup languages are only used to program web pages.
B. Markup languages can only be used on one platform.
C. Markup languages are not human-readable.
D. Markup languages are not programming languages.

A

D. Markup languages are not programming languages.

109
Q

What’s a true statement about query languages?

A. Query language code does not need to be compiled.
B. Query languages can only be used on one platform.
C. Query language code is the most complex code.
D. Query language code is not human-readable.

A

A. Query language code does not need to be compiled.

110
Q

What’s the difference between scripted and scripting languages?

A. Scripted languages have to transform the code to an executable binary.
B. Scripting languages have to transform the code to an executable binary.
C. Scripting languages are for configuring an operating system.
D. Scripted languages only run on one platform.

A

C. Scripting languages are for configuring an operating system.

111
Q

What type of language consists primarily of a series of nested tags?

A. Query
B. Markup
C. Scripting
D. Scripted

A

B. Markup

112
Q

What type of language has working with datasets as its primary purpose?

A. Compiled
B. Markup
C. Assembly
D. Query

A

D. Query

113
Q

Which of the following computer components does an “all-in-one” workstation contain within the monitor case?

A. Microphone
B. Keyboard
C. Mouse
D. Scanner

A

A. Microphone

114
Q

What does the term “hybrid laptop” mean?

A. Laptop that can be used like a desktop
B. Laptop that can be used like a phone
C. Laptop that can be used like a tablet
D. Laptop that can be used like a gaming console

A

C. Laptop that can be used like a tablet

115
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of IoT (Internet of Things) home automation?

A. HVAC
B. Insulin pump
C. Door lock
D. Sprinkler system

A

B. Insulin pump

116
Q

Which feature of IoT (Internet of Things) for motor vehicles uses a component of IoT home automation?

A. In-vehicle entertainment
B. Sat-nav
C. Black box
D. Parking assist

A

A. In-vehicle entertainment

117
Q

Which TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) layer encapsulates packets and deals with routing between different networks?

A. Transport
B. Network interface
C. Internet
D. Application

A

C. Internet

118
Q

What is an example of a cloud hosted application?

A. Microsoft Excel
B. Google mail
C. Adobe Photoshop
D. Windows Media Player

A

B. Google mail

119
Q

A guest at a friend’s home needs to use the friend’s computer for a few hours to browse the Internet and send out some emails. The browser has many extensions and plug-ins which slow down page loading. What should the guest do with the add-ons?

A. Block
B. Uninstall
C. Remove
D. Disable

A

D. Disable

120
Q

A user wants the easiest and most secure way to prevent websites from discovering the IP (Internet Protocol) address of the computer. What should the user do?

A. Use a Virtual Private Network.
B. Use an SSL proxy.
C. Go into private browsing mode.
D. Switch to incognito mode.

A

A. Use a Virtual Private Network.

121
Q

What’s a true statement about the assembly language?

A. Assembly languages are not programming languages.
B. Assembly code is not human-readable.
C. Only specialists use assembly code.
D. Each assembly language can run on any platform.

A

C. Only specialists use assembly code.

122
Q

What type of programming language has the fastest execution time?

A. Scripting
B. Compiled
C. Scripted
D. Markup

A

B. Compiled

123
Q

What does a programmer use to visualize a program sequence?

A. Batch file
B. Object attribute
C. Pseudocode
D. Flow chart

A

D. Flow chart

124
Q

A program is a sequence of what?

A. Instructions
B. Functions
C. Flow charts
D. Attributes

A

A. Instructions

125
Q 
What do the instructions in this pseudocode do?
declare Animal(9) as String
For i = 0 to 9
     If i > 5 Then
              Animal(i) = "dog"
     Else
              Animal(i) = "cat"
     End If
Next

A. Set the first 5 elements of the array Animal to “dog”, and the rest to “cat”.
B. Set the first 5 elements of the array Animal to “cat”, and the rest to “dog”.
C. Set the first 6 elements of the array Animal to “cat”, and the rest to “dog”.
D. Set the first 6 elements of the array Animal to “dog”, and the rest to “cat”.

A

C. Set the first 6 elements of the array Animal to “cat”, and the rest to “dog”.

126
Q 
Which numbers does this pseudocode display?
declare i as Number = 10
Do While i > 0
     If i < 7 Then
          i = i - 1
     End If
     print i
     i = i - 1
Loop

A. 10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
B. 10, 9, 8, 7, 5, 3, 1
C. 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 0
D. 9, 7, 5, 3, 1

A

B. 10, 9, 8, 7, 5, 3, 1

127
Q 
What does this pseudocode do?
declare i as Number = 0
Do While i <= 100
     i = i + 1
     print i
     i = i - 1
Loop

A. Displays number “1” 100 times
B. Displays numbers from 0 to 99
C. Displays numbers from 1 to 100
D. Produces an infinite loop

A

D. Produces an infinite loop

128
Q

What’s a true statement about variables?

A. A variable can have any data type that the programming language supports.
B. A program has to declare all variables before using them.
C. A variable contains a value that must change during the execution of the program.
D. Each procedure must assign an initial value, when declaring variables.

A

A. A variable can have any data type that the programming language supports.

129
Q

What does this pseudocode declare?
declare MinutesPerHour as Number = 60

A. An array
B. A variable
C. A constant
D. A primary key

A

C. A constant

130
Q

Which of the following declarations represents a 2-dimensional array?

A. declare Animal(1) as String
B. declare Animal(9,9) as String
C. declare Animal(2) as String
D. declare Animal(2,2,2) as String

A

B. declare Animal(9,9) as String

131
Q

A user installs VirtualBox on a Linux OS (Operating System). Which class of hypervisor is it?

A. Type I, because the Linux OS is installed directly on the computer
B. Type I, because VirtualBox manages the virtual machine environment
C. Type II, because Linux provides the resources for the virtual environment
D. Type II, because VirtualBox is a software application within a host operating system

A

D. Type II, because VirtualBox is a software application within a host operating system

132
Q

What is an advantage of using a CLI (Command Line Interface) instead of GUI (Graphical User Interface)?

A. CLI takes up less system resources to run.
B. Non-technical users can learn how to use CLI faster than GUI.
C. More people use CLI, so there is more help available.
D. With CLI, it is easier to multitask when working on different things at once.

A

A. CLI takes up less system resources to run.

133
Q

How is business software different from productivity software?

A. Business software is for business owners, and productivity software is for employees.
B. Business software is for managers and executives, and productivity software is for general office staff.
C. Business software is for a particular process, and productivity software is for general office functions.
D. Business software is for conducting business meetings, and productivity software is for increasing productivity.

A

C. Business software is for a particular process, and productivity software is for general office functions.

134
Q

What type of software is Microsoft Office?

A. Business software
B. Productivity software
C. Collaboration software
D. Project management software

A

B. Productivity software

135
Q

A workstation experiences slowdowns while running Microsoft Word. The program does not respond to attempts to close it, therefore the user executes the Task Manager utility to quit the program. What does this fall under?

A. Service management
B. Device management
C. Disk management
D. Process management

A

D. Process management

136
Q

A user needs to uninstall a driver on a computer running Windows OS (Operating System). Which page or window does NOT contain the relevant options to accomplish this?

A. Driver Manager
B. Programs and Features
C. Device Manager
D. Command Prompt

A

A. Driver Manager

137
Q

A user needs to back up a 6 GB (GigaByte) video file from a Windows desktop to a new 64 GB flash drive. An error message warns that the file cannot copy over to the flash drive, due to file size limitations. What does the user need to do?

A. Reformat the flash drive into HFS.
B. Reformat the flash drive into FAT32.
C. Reformat the flash drive into NTFS.
D. Increase the size of the flash drive’s partition.

A

C. Reformat the flash drive into NTFS.

138
Q

The accountant of a small company uses a database application to maintain the list of vendors, their services, and their invoices to the company. The application uses Microsoft Access for the database layer, with the front-end interface layer in Visual Basic, to work with the data and to generate custom reports. What is the application architecture of this system, which resides on the accountant’s desktop computer?

A. Two-tier
B. One-tier
C. Three-tier
D. N-tier

A

B. One-tier

139
Q

A user’s Windows 8 laptop has the latest version of the Safari browser. The user tries to use a web application and receives a message that the browser does not support all features. What is the best course of action?

A.Upgrade to the Windows 10 operating system to see if it works there.
B. Wait until the next version of Safari comes out, in the hope that it will be fully supported.
C. Find a different web application that performs the same functions.
D. Install the browser which is fully supported by the application.

A

D. Install the browser which is fully supported by the application.

140
Q

Which of the following encrypts data at rest?

A. File-level encryption
B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS)
C. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)
D. A transport encryption protocol

A

A. File-level encryption

141
Q

In addition to making a copy of an entire database, a program can invoke the SQL (Structured Query Language) BACKUP command to work at which level?

A. Application
B. Field
C. Table
D. Record

A

C. Table

142
Q

An employee makes unauthorized copies of customer Social Security numbers, saves them in an unencrypted spreadsheet, and transfers them to the employee’s personal email account. The employee then opens new credit card accounts with this information and uses the cards to buy personal items. Which of the following did NOT occur?

A. Identity theft
B. Identity fraud
C. Identity checks
D. Mishandling Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

A

C. Identity checks

143
Q

In a SQL (Structured Query Language) command, what does the WHERE clause determine in the result set?

A. The number of columns
B. The number of rows
C. The number of fields
D. The number of tables

A

B. The number of rows

144
Q

A complex software application collects requests from general users for certain sets of data through a form, connects to a Microsoft SQL (Structured Query Language) Server database with ODBC (Open Database Connectivity), submits the criteria for the data query, receives the results, and displays them to the users as a report on the screen. Which combination of database access methods best describes this process?

A. Manual access and utility access
B. User interface and programmatic access
C. Programmatic access and report builder
D. Direct access and query builder

A

B. User interface and programmatic access

145
Q

A manager requests to see the information on all of the company’s customers, listed by geographical regions, with the totals of purchases made by each customer. What is the best tool to produce this list?

A. Input form
B. Flat file
C. Query
D. Report

A

D. Report

146
Q

A web application needs to make changes to the contents of a table in a database, in response to a user’s input. What method contains the command to do that?

A. DDL (Data Definition Language)
B. DCL (Data Control Language)
C. XML (eXtensible Markup Language)
D. DML (Data Manipulation Language)

A

D. DML (Data Manipulation Language)

147
Q

An attacker successfully connects to an open wireless access point, and proceeds to monitor and capture the plain text traffic on the network. Which of the following integrity concerns does this describe?

A. A replay attack
B. A Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack
C. An impersonation attack
D. A Denial of Service (DoS) attack

A

B. A Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack

148
Q

Which type of data uses whole disk encryption?

A. An email
B. Data transmitted over a network
C. Data at rest
D. A web page via Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

A

C. Data at rest

149
Q

Why do companies pay for a software license subscription plan instead of a less expensive one-time purchase?

A. One-time purchases provide a limited-time use of the software.
B. One-time purchases do not include full-feature upgrades.
C. One-time purchases are for only one computer installation.
D. One-time purchases do not include customer support.

A

B. One-time purchases do not include full-feature upgrades.

150
Q

What is a true statement about interpreters and interpreted programming languages?

A. Interpreted programming languages can run on any platform.
B. An interpreter converts machine code into a human-readable format.
C. An interpreter converts the program into machine code at runtime.
D. Interpreted programming languages only run on one platform.

A

C. An interpreter converts the program into machine code at runtime.

151
Q

What is the difference between a software product key and a product ID?

A. The product ID activates the software, and the product key is for technical support.
B. The product key is on the screen when the application starts, and the product ID is on the About page of the application.
C. The product ID is on the software box, and the product key is on the About page of the application.
D. The product key activates the software, and the product ID is for technical support.

A

D. The product key activates the software, and the product ID is for technical support.

152
Q

A table contains information about the company’s customers. The information includes First Name, Last Name, Address, Phone, and Email for each customer. What’s the best way to set up a primary key for this table?

A. Use the Phone field as the primary key.
B. Create a new field called Id.
C. Use the Email field as the primary key.
D. Use the combination of the First Name and Last Name fields as the primary key.

A

B. Create a new field called Id.

153
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about critical data when configuring file backups?

A. Critical data can store within a settings file located within a database.
B. Replication allows critical data backup, which protects from accidental deletion of a record.
C. Critical data might include Personally Identifiable Information (PII).
D. Critical data does not always store in files within a user or shared folder.

A

B. Replication allows critical data backup, which protects from accidental deletion of a record.

154
Q

The systems administrator just found out that a user has been using the same password for the last two years. Which of the following password best practices should the systems administrator enforce?

A. History/expiration
B. Memorability
C. Maintain confidentiality
D. Reuse across sites

A

A. History/expiration

155
Q

When does this pseudocode execute the print command?
If i == 0 XOR i != 0 Then
print “Yes”
End If

A. When i is equal to 0
B. When i is not equal to 0
C. Always
D. Never

A

C. Always

156
Q

If the password policy for a company requires a user to authenticate with a smart card certification as well as with a PIN, what is this type of authentication?

A. Single sign-on (SSO)
B. Single-factor authentication
C. A software token
D. Multifactor

A

D. Multifactor

157
Q

If one part of the network fails, what should the networking team do to keep the rest of the network operational?

A. Implement network cabling to allow for multiple paths between servers.
B. Focus on the integrity of the data.
C. Be convincing or establish trust.
D. Implement solutions to prevent masquerading.

A

A. Implement network cabling to allow for multiple paths between servers.

158
Q

Which of the following poses a higher risk to ensuring business continuity?

A. Real-time synchronization
B. A converged network
C. Service and data replication
D. Syncing data between servers

A

B. A converged network

159
Q

Which document contains the information about how the software vendor will use any data that the software gathers and processes?

A. Software instructions
B. Software usage best practices
C. Software agreement
D. Software installation best practices

A

C. Software agreement

160
Q

Which of these practices is unsecure as your security becomes dependent on other organizations’ security measures?

A. Shortening password expiration
B. Reusing across sites
C. Using passphrase with special characters
D. Writing down password

A

B. Reusing across sites

161
Q

What could a network administrator implement to allow employees to securely connect remotely to the corporate network?

A. A password manager
B. Reusing passwords across sites
C. A Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. A password reset mechanism

A

C. A Virtual Private Network (VPN)

162
Q

A table in a relational database receives imported data from a text document. In what format does the table store the new data?

A. In an unstructured way
B. In a semi-structured way
C. In a structured way
D. As key/value pairs

A

C. In a structured way

163
Q

What type of database uses a schema?

A. Document
B. Relational
C. Semi-structured
D. Key/value pair

A

B. Relational

164
Q

A company has employees who write down passwords, which should be kept private, on sticky notes. Given this scenario, what should the IT security department implement to prevent this type of mishandling of confidential information?

A. Data monitoring
B. Acceptable Use Policy
C. CCTV surveillance cameras installation
D. IT security training

A

D. IT security training

165
Q

An attacker taps into a wired network to intercept unencrypted wireless transmissions. Which of the following is a type of confidentiality concern that describes this activity?

A. Snooping
B. Impersonation
C. Eavesdropping
D. Social engineering

A

C. Eavesdropping

166
Q

Which of the following best describes containers and identifiers?

A. A container is a set of constants.
B. A container is a type of identifier.
C. Identifiers have attributes, properties, and methods.
D. An identifier is a type of container.

A

B. A container is a type of identifier.

167
Q

If a system goes down, which of these will NOT help recover from data loss due to a natural disaster?

A. Syncing the data
B. Replication between data centers
C. Restoring the data from file backups
D. Implementing a Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID)

A

D. Implementing a Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID)

168
Q

What is an authorization policy that would help a systems administrator grant rights to users to perform their job and no more?

A. Reviewing logging events
B. Non-repudiation
C. Requiring digital signatures
D. Least privilege

A

D. Least privilege

ITF+ Practice Test (1 decks)

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