Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

what are 2 overall types of bone? what are 2 types of lamellar bone? which is more elastic? which has high turnover rate?

A
  • woven and lamellar
  • cortical and cancellous
  • cancellous
  • cancellous
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2
Q

Bone cells: OPG cells come from ___ lineage, differentiation based on low ___ and high ___, what transcription factors signal the Wnt pathway to make osteoblasts?

A
  • mesenchymal
  • low strain and high oxygen
  • RunX2, Osc, beta-catenin
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3
Q

Wnt proteins are released by ___ cells and bind to ___ which release ___ and activate RunX2

A
  • OPG
  • osteoblasts
  • beta-catenin
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4
Q

what transcription factor for chondrocytes? how about adipocytes?

A
  • Sox9

- PPARy

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5
Q

what 2 things bind to osteoblasts to make bone? in addition to making bone (type I collagen and alkaline phosphotase), PTH also causes osteoblasts to release ___

A
  1. pulsed PTH
  2. vitamin D3
    - RANKL
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6
Q

Osteocyte: lives for ___ days, how do they communicate? secrete ____ which inhibits ___, higher levels of sclerostin lead to ___ bone mass

A
  • 90
  • canaliculi
  • sclerostin
  • osteoblasts
  • lower
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7
Q

Osteoclasts: ___ bone, ___ cells in the ___ lineage, resorption occurs at the ___ ___ via ___ ___, how do they bind to the ruffled border? ___ is secreted to lower the pH utilizing what enzyme? this activates ___ K

A
  • resorb
  • hematopoetic cells
  • macrophage/monocyte
  • ruffled border
  • Howship’s lacunae
  • integrins and vibronectin (Arg-Gly-Asp)
  • TRAP
  • carbonic anhydrase
  • cathepsin
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8
Q

Carbonic anhydrase gives you ___ and cathepsin K gives you ___

A
  • osteopetrosis

- pycknodysostosis

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9
Q

what secretes OPG and what does it do?

A
  • osteoblasts

- binds to RANKL

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10
Q

Calcitonin binds to ___, released from ___ cells, tones down ___ by inhibiting osteoclasts

A
  • osteoclasts
  • parafollicular
  • Ca
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11
Q

Wolff’s law? Hueter-Volkmann law?

A
  • remodeling occurs in response to stress

- growth is inhibited by compressive forces

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12
Q

fracture callus is ___ bone formation, embryonic flat bones and distraction osteogenesis is ___ bone formation

A
  • enchondral

- intramembranous

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13
Q

primary bone healing is ___ bone formation through ___ ___, secondary bone healing is ___ bone formation with ___ formation

A
  • intramembranous
  • cutting cones
  • enchondral
  • callus
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14
Q

what drugs can decrease bone mineralization

A
prednisone
PPI
SSRI
heparin
anti-epileptic drugs
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15
Q

what is the most likely predictor of a low energy fracture? 1 vertebral compression fx increases chances of hip fracture by ___

A
  • previous fragility fracture

- 5 times

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16
Q

T score is ____ and Z score is ___, use ___ score for treatment,

A
  • not the same age
  • same age
  • T
17
Q

FRAX score dx of osteoporosis: 10 year risk of hip fracture and major osteoporotic fx

A
  • 3%

- 20%

18
Q

Bisphosphonates: 2 types, which makes the ATP analogue and causes apoptosis?

A
  • nitrogen and non-nitrogen containing

- non-nitrogen containing

19
Q

Prolia aka ____ is an ___ antibody to ____

A
  • denosumab
  • IgG
  • RANKL
20
Q

2 types of people forteo is contraindicated in and why?

A
  • paget’s and prior mets

- secondary osteosarcoma transformation

21
Q

Tendons: 95% type ___ collagen; ___ is the proteoglycan that regulates tendon diameter, ___ binds to water for proteogycans, weakest at ___ days and back to original strength at ___ days; strongest at ___ months

A
  • I
  • decorin
  • aggrecan
  • 7-10
  • 21 days
  • 6
22
Q

what is the % of organic and inorganic components of bone? what is the formula for the main inorganic component of bone?

A
  • 40/60

- Ca10 (PO4)6 OH2

23
Q

OPG is made by ___ and it decoy binds to ___ to prevent the activation of osteoclasts, what hormone in females has this same effect?

A
  • osteoblasts
  • RANKL
  • estrogen
24
Q

vitamin ___ helps with the hydroxylation of collagen, made ___ but assembled ___

A
  • C (deficiency results in scurvy)
  • intra-cellular
  • extra-cellular
25
Q

Motor endplate conditions: Myasthenia gravis? botox?

A
  • antibodies against the Ach receptors

- prevents the release of Ach

26
Q

Post polio rehab is ___

A
  • daily exercise at sub-exhaustion level
27
Q

Reserve Zone Disorders: PKGD

A
  • Pseudoachondroplasia: COMP
  • Kniest syndrome: COL2
  • Gaucher: beta-glucocerbrosidase
  • diastrophic dysplasia: DTDST sulfate transport gene
28
Q

Proliferative Zone Disorders: MeGA

A
  • MHE: EXT 1, 2, 3 (AD)
  • Gigantism
  • Achondroplasia: FGFR3 (AD)
29
Q

Hypertrophic zone disorders: 3 S’s

where do endocrine/secondary SCFE’s occur?

A
  • SH fractures
  • SCFE
  • Schmid
  • secondary spongiosa*
30
Q

What regulates physeal maturation in the hypertrophic zone? poisoning with what inhibits PTHrP?

A
  • PTHrP

- Lead

31
Q

PTH: made by ___ cells, ___ Ca resorption in the kidney and ___ PO4 resorption, increases ___ production and activates ___ which in turn make RANKL and activate ___

A
  • chief
  • increases
  • decreases
  • vitamin D
  • osteoblasts
  • osteoclasts
32
Q

PTH promotes the conversion of 25 to 1,25 vit D in the ___, this increases the intestinal absorption of ___ and ___

A
  • kidney

- Ca and PO4

33
Q

Nutritional rickets: low ___ thus have less intestinal absorption of ___ and ___, PTH and alk phos would ___

A
  • vitamin d3
  • Ca and PO4
  • increase
34
Q

Renal osteodystrophy: kidneys fail thus you get ___ retention, low ___, high ___ and ___

A
  • PO4
  • Ca
  • PTH and alk phos
35
Q

what must occur for cartilage injury to heal?

A
  • it must go past the tidemark
36
Q

Aggrecan has a ___ charge in cartilage, what is responsible for preventing diffuse swelling of articular cartilage?

A
  • negative

- type II collagen

37
Q

low strain and high O2 = ____, medium strain and low O2 = ____, high strain = ____

A
  • osteoblasts
  • chondrocytes
  • fibroblast
38
Q

Hypophosphatasia: inheritance? phosphate level? alkaline phosphatase level and why?

A
  • AR
  • normal
  • low because the mutation is in these enzyme leading to low bone turnover