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1
Q

One has a legal obligation to inform his/her patient that implants can fail. It is wise to get a written consent.

A

Both statements are true

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2
Q

Implant stability is determined by:

  • Volume of bone
  • Quality of bone
  • Diameter and length of implant
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

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3
Q

T/F: Diagnostic models and photographs are vital in EVERY implant case

A

False

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4
Q

All of the following measurements are critical for implant placement except one, which is the exception?

  • 1 mm from sinus/nasal floor
  • 5 mm anterior to mental foramen
  • 2 mm superior to mandibular canal
  • All of the measurements are correct
A

All of the measurements are correct

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5
Q

There should be 1.5 mm between an implant and an adjacent tooth. There should be 4 mm between adjacent implants

A

both statements are true

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6
Q

An immediate implant is one that is placed:

A

At the time of extraction

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7
Q

Indications of failed implants include

  • Persistant pain
  • Mobility
  • Recurrent infections
  • Bone loss
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

  • Persistant pain
  • Mobility
  • Recurrent infections
  • Bone loss
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8
Q

Clinical expression of stressed implants includes

  • Persistant pain
  • Mobility
  • Recurrent infections
  • Bone loss
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

  • Persistant pain
  • Mobility
  • Recurrent infections
  • Bone loss
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9
Q

Causes of implant failure include

  • poor treatment plan
  • compromised fixture placement
  • infection
  • compromised restorations
  • poor coordination
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

  • poor treatment plan
  • compromised fixture placement
  • infection
  • compromised restorations
  • poor coordination
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10
Q

Patients reports a loose implant-supported crown. A reasonable assessment would include which sequence?

A

Loose abutment screw
Fractured abutment screw
Abscess
Fractured porcelain

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11
Q

T/F: Implants should be splinted to adjacent teeth

A

False (no PDL)

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12
Q

T/F: when a single implant is attached to a natural tooth, biting forces on the natural tooth and pontic may cause stress to be concentrated at the superior portion of the implant

A

True

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13
Q

T/F: During the placement of an implant, bone heating is NOT an important factor

A

False

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14
Q

T/F: the ideal crown: implant ratio is > 1:1

A

True

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15
Q

T/F: during the prosthetic treatment planning, the anterior posterior (AP) spread is the distance measured between a line drawn through the middle of the anterior implant and a line drawn through the distal of the posterior implant

A

True

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16
Q

T/F: contusion is a soft tissue injury without a break in the surface, representing hemorrhage subcutaneously or submucosally

A

True

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17
Q

T/F: The Andreasen Classification is the most widely used and includes a description of injuries to the teeth, supporting structures, gingiva and oral mucosa

A

True

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18
Q

Which one shows the correct steps for laceration treatment

  • Cleanse, debride, hemostasis, closure
  • Debride, cleanse, hemostasis, pressure
  • Debride, cleanse, hemostasis, closure
  • Cleanse, debride, hemostasis, pressure
A

Cleanse, debride, hemostasis, closure

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19
Q

T/F: basic principles of management of maxillofacial trauma patients with overlying soft tissue injury is to repair the soft tissue FIRST

A

False

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20
Q

T/F: It is correct to say that abrasion is a lesion presenting usually as a superficial denuding epithelium

A

True

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21
Q

T/F: When repairing lacerations from facial trauma, work from the outside inwards

A

False

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22
Q

T/F: A laceration is more commonly called a bruise and indicates that some amount of tissue disruption has occurred within the tissues, which resulted in subcutaneous or submucosal hemorrhage without a break in the soft tissue surface

A

False - contusion

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23
Q

A panorex x-ray is a good screening radiograph for all of the following situations except?

A

Symphysis or midline fractures of the mandible

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24
Q

Concussion?

A

reaction to percussion in BOTH horizontal and vertical directions

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25
Q

Subluxation?

A

Occur when there is an injury to the tooth supporting structure that causes abnormal loosening; however, there is no clinical or radiographic displacement of the involved tissue

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26
Q

Treatment of subluxated tooth?

A

Occlusal adjustment on opposing dentition, light wire or composite stabilization for 1-2 weeks, soft diet, vitality monitoring

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27
Q

Treatment of concussion

A

Relieve occlusion, palliative and soft diet, monitor pulp vitality

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28
Q

Intrusive luxation when tested with percussion responds with a dull sound. Erupting teeth respond with a “ting”

A

Both statements are false (intrusion = high pitched ting, eruption = dull sound)

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29
Q

Pulpal necrosis following luxation injuries to the dentition is most common in which type of injury?

A

Intrusion (96%)

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30
Q

T/F: Horizontal root fractures have a better prognosis than vertical root fractures

A

True

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31
Q

All of the following involving an invulsed tooth are true except:

  • Unlikely to be associated with pulpal necrosis
  • More commonly seen in the maxilla
  • A primary tooth may impinge on the tooth bud if the permanent successors in a buccal-occlusal position
A

Unlikely to be associated with pulpal necrosis

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32
Q

T/F: A root fracture near the alveolar crest needs immediate endodontic therapy and stabilization or extraction

A

True

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33
Q

Avulsion is all of the following except:

  • Is not painful
  • Is painful
  • Does not cause scarring
A

Is not painful

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34
Q

Regarding tooth avulsion treatment, which is incorrect?

  • Sterilized teeth
  • irrigate tooth with saline
  • don’t re=implant deciduous teeth
  • do not scrape teeth
A

Sterilize teeth

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35
Q

Success in maintaining a re-implanted tooth that is an ex-articulated or avulsion injury is greatest when the time of implantation is:

A

Less than 30 minutes

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36
Q

T/F: regarding tooth avulsion treatment, success of reimplantation is inversely related to the length of time the tooth is out of the socket

A

True

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37
Q

T/F: Evidence supports closed reduction as the primary treatment modality for condylar fractures regardless of the degree of displacement

A

True

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38
Q

T/F: A mandibular tooth with a horizontally favorable fracture line resists upward displacing forces, such as the pull of the masseter and temporalis muscles on the proximal fragment when viewed in the horizontal plane

A

True

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39
Q

T/F: A graft can be defined as “transplanted tissue that is expected to become part of the host?

A

True

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40
Q

Which of the following transplant descriptions is not correct?

  • Alloplast - self
  • Allograft - same species
  • Xenograft - different species
  • Alloplast - synthetic
A

Alloplast - self =WRONG

Autograph = self

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41
Q

T/F: osteoconduction is formation of new bone from osteoprogenitor cells along a biologic and alloplstic scaffold

A

True

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42
Q

T/F: Osteogenesis is new bone formation from osteocompetent (bone-forming) cells

A

True

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43
Q

T/F: Osteoinduction is formation of new bone by guided differentiation of stem-cell precursors into osteoblasts by bone inductive proteins (BMP)

A

True

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44
Q

Management of root fracture

A

Purchase point, reflect flap, remove bone as needed

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45
Q

T/F: Osteoid forms within the first 2 weeks

A

False

- synthesis of osteoid is during weeks 2-6

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46
Q

Which of the following is NOT essential for a graft?

  • mobility
  • placement into healthy tissue
  • adequate blood supply at recipient site
  • appropriate bone-graft contact
  • Immobility
A

Mobility

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47
Q

Platelet rich plasma advantages

  • Enhances bone and soft tissue regeneration
  • is autologous
  • easy to process
  • all of the above
A

All of the above

  • Enhances bone and soft tissue regeneration
  • is autologous
  • easy to process
48
Q

Platelet rich plasma disadvantages

  • Is not osteogenic
  • Is not osteoinductive
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

  • Is not osteogenic
  • Is not osteoinductive
49
Q

T/F: xenografts are derived from inorganic portion of bone from a species that is genetically different than recipient

50
Q

T/F: Bone grafting is completed after stabilization and intermaxillary fixation and/or rigid fixation

51
Q

T/F: Traditionally, the length of IMF (intermaxillary fixation) used for adult mandibular fractures have been 6 to 8 months

A

False

6-8 weeks

52
Q

An advantage of xenograft is that there is no additional site required. A disadvantage is that there is a lack of osteocompetent cells

A

Both statements are true

53
Q

T/F: Autographs are immunocompatible

54
Q

T/F: there is no need for a second surgery when an autograft is utilized

A

False (need 2nd site)

55
Q

T/F: AN allograft has osteoconduction but minimal osteoinduction

56
Q

T/F: Bovine is the most common xenograft material

57
Q

T/F: with sinus augmentation, it is necessary/vital to ensure continuity of Schneiderian membrane

A

True

must keep sinus membrane intact

58
Q

Prevents the inward growth of fibrous tissue

A

Guided bone regeneration/bone graft

59
Q

T/F: cancellous graft composition is considered the “gold standard” when compared with cortical bone

60
Q

T/F: examination of the C-spine radiographically should always occur when a patient presents with potential maxillofacial trauma

61
Q

T/F: The most frequent mandibular fractures occur in the coronoid process

62
Q

T/F: Tugging on a mandible with bilateral non-displaced condylar fractures will elicit pain

63
Q

Adults need _____ of time for stabilization for dentoalveolar fractures using a segmental arch bar

64
Q

Treatment of alveodental fractures includes all of the following except

  • Stabilization for 1-2 weeks
  • occlusal adjustments
  • Vitality monitoring
A

Stabilization for 1-2 weeks

needs to be stabilized for 4-6 weeks w/rigid bar

65
Q

Unilateral condylar fracture on a patient may register as a deviation at rest or upon opening. In both instances, this is toward the side of the fracture and is a result of the ramus and less of the effect of lateral pterygoid musculature

A

First statement true

second statement false

66
Q

Deviation of the jaw on the ____ side of the fracture

A

Deviate = same side

67
Q

T/F: a patient presents with a subcondylar fracture. On opening, the mandible frequently shifts more toward the side of the fracture as a result of decreased translation of the condyle on the injured side

68
Q

T/F: Regarding a condylar fracture in children, it is correct to say that fragments of highly vascularized osteogenic material that are dispersed throughout the joint space may increase the incidence of ankylose

69
Q

Horizontal mandibular fractures resist upward forces of masseter/temporalis. A vertical mandibular fracture resists the medial pull of the medial pterygoid

A

Both statements are true

70
Q

Mandibular limitation on opening is indicative of:

A

Injury to bony skeleton, perhaps with severely depressed zygomatic arch

71
Q

Displaced right condylar neck fracture of the mandible is classified as an ____

A

unfavorable ocmpound

72
Q

A patient with significant facial injury has upper lip paresthesia. Which CN is involved?

73
Q

Which CN has been damaged leading to left orbital rim paresthesia?

A

If paralysis = CN VII (7)

If paresthesia = CN V2

74
Q

Evaluation of facial injuries in young children should always include the possibility that the child is being abused. Frequent visits to the ER for injuries to a child can sometimes be revealed by reviewing the patients chart

A

Both statements are true

75
Q

T/F: One factor in evaluating pain characteristics are those situations that aggravate as well as those that relieve pain

76
Q

T/F: Bruising NEVER exists intraorally

77
Q

The maxilla up is most stable and mandible forward is least stable

A

First statement true

Second statement false (Maxilla wider = least stable)

78
Q

The parotid gland is largest salivary gland and produces 70% of saliva

A 
First statement true
Second false
(only produces 25%)
79
Q

The parotid gland is associated with the highest incidence of tumors including pleomorphic adenoma

A

Bothe statements are true

80
Q

T/F: The submandibular gland produces just 3-4% of daily saliva

81
Q

Sialoliths are associated with all of the following except:

  • swelling
  • difficulty opening
  • palpable bulges
  • purulence
A

difficulty opening

82
Q

T/F: Most salivary gland tumors present bilaterally

A

False - only 2% bilateral

83
Q

T/F: stones in mandibular salivary ducts are more common than stones in the parotid duct

84
Q

T/F: mucocele formation results in an elevated, thinned, and stretched overlying mucosa that appears as a vesicle filled with a clear or blue/gray mucus. The Patient frequently relates a history of the lesion filling with fluid, rupture of the fluid collection, and refilling of the lesion

85
Q

When removing a mucous retention phenomenon (mucoceles), underlying anatomy often dictates the direction of the incision. The closer the mucocele is to the vermillion border, the greater the concern for cosmetic repair

A

Both statements are true

86
Q

The parotid gland is split into superficial and deep lobes by _____

A

CN VII (innervated by CN 9)

87
Q

A common complaint of patients experiencing obstructive salivary gland disease is swelling when eating. Salivary gland obstruction usually dissipates over several hours after meals

A

Both statements are true

88
Q

Mucoceles are best treated by ___

A

Surgical excision including the salivary glands surrounding it

89
Q

T/F: the incidence of stone formation varies, depending on the specific gland involved. The submandibular gland is involved in 85% of cases, which is more common than all other glands

90
Q

Patient exposed to an oral bisphosphonate more than 4 years may want to consider discontinuing BPs for 2 months prior and _____ following elective invasive dental surgery in patients or until osseous healing has occured

A

3 months following

91
Q

Muscle and nerve cells have _______ to radiation

A

little sensitivity

92
Q

Germinal and lymphoreticular cells are the _____ to radiation

A

Most sensitive

93
Q

Endothelial and fibroblast cells are most important in healing. They have intermediate sensitivity to radiation

A

Both statements true

94
Q

Radiation caries causes degeneration of odontoblasts including dentin and DEJ

A

Both statements are true

95
Q

T/F: The “3-H issue” refers to tissues that become hypocellular, hypovascular and hypoxic due to radiation

96
Q

T/F: HBO oxygenates tissue outside the hemoglobin delivery system and is able to generate enhanced oxygen gradients throughout the irradiated tissues and especially between the irradiated and non-irradiated tissues

97
Q

T/F: RANK ligand inhibitors are anti-resorptive agents that exist as a fully humanized antibody against RANK ligand (RANK-L) and inhibits osteoclast function and associated bone resorption

98
Q

Bisphosphonates are internalized by the osteoblast causing disruption of osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. They work by inhibition of osteoclast recruitment, diminishing the osteoclast life span and inhibition of osteoclast activity at the bone surface

A

First statement false

second statement true

99
Q

The “golden window” for treatment refers to _____ and tooth extraction can be done without HBO

A

The first 4 months after radiation therapy

100
Q

T/F: After the 4 month window, standard protocol of HBO is recommended for elective surgery in irradiated tissues

101
Q

Osteoradionecrosis is bone death caused by radiation and is an active infection

A

First statement true

Second statement false

102
Q

T/F: Radiation-induced trismus is not a result of the effects of radiation on the TMJ but rather the radiation fibrosis

103
Q

T/F: regarding radiotherapy in head and neck tumors, a common protocol is to field radiate the neck and the tumor or surgical bed to 5,000 cGy and to provide an additional 2,000 - 2,200 cGy “boost” at the primary site or surgical site

104
Q

T/F: Regarding the resolution of oral bisphosphonates induced osteonecrosis, it is correct to say that more than 50% of these cases will resolve with a drug holiday alone

105
Q

T/F: In cephalometric analysis, points SNA describes the skeletal relationship of the mandible to the cranial base

106
Q

T/F: In cephalometric analysis, vertical assessment is measured by SNGoGn

107
Q

Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy (BSSO) cutting through inferior alveolar nerve

A

greater risk

108
Q

T/F: One advantage of the BSSO is that rigid fixation can eliminate intermaxillary fixation

109
Q

T/F: The intra oral vertical osteotomy (IVRO) can be used to treat patients presenting a mandible class II occlusion

110
Q

T/F: A BSSO required an extraoral incision

111
Q

T/F: One requirement of a BSSO is the complete detachment of the masseter and medial pterygoid muscles bilaterally

112
Q

LeFort I _____ used in mandibular orthognathic surgery

A

Not used!

Genioplasty and BSSO can be used for mandibular surgery

113
Q

T/F: most surgeons now utilize a bilateral sagittal split osteotomy (BSSO) for both anterior and posterior repositioning of the mandible

114
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of SARPE (surgical assisted rapid palatal expansion)?

A

Future need of dental extractions

115
Q

Which bone is not selected in a down fracture technique of the maxilla?

116
Q

T/F: Recent advances in post-down fracture osteotomy stabilization include mini-plates

Oral Surgery (1 decks)

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