QUESTIONS Flashcards by Joshua Barrera

The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient’s privacy according to _____________.

a. DCAP
b. APGAR
c. HIPAA
d. CQI

HIPAA

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Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training?

a. EMT
b. EMR
c. AEMT
d. Paramedic

EMT

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The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on:

a. EMS research.
b. local protocols.
c. the lead EMT’s decision.
d. regional trauma guidelines.

EMS research

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National guidelines for EMS care are intended to __________.

a. reduce expenses at the local and state levels
b. facilitate a national EMS labor group
c. unify EMS providers under a single medical director
d. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States

provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States

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Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers?

a. Multilumen airways
b. Needle decompression
c. Automatic transport ventilators
d. Automated external defibrillator

Automated external defibrillator

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What is an EMT’s primary service area?

a. The main area in which the EMS agency operates
b. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care
c. The area serviced by the EMT’s medical director
d. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call
b. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care
c. The area serviced by the EMT’s medical directorThis answer is incorrect.
d. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call

The main area in which the EMS agency operates

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Online medical control requires __________.

a. written protocols approved by medical control
b. phone or radio contact with the medical director
c. the presence of an advanced-level provider
d. a physician’s presence on the scene of the call

phone or radio contact with the medical director

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What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field?

a. Carry an EMT text for reference at all times.
b. Deviate from established standards when necessary.
c. Follow the agency’s written protocols.
d. Contact medical direction before initiating any treatments.

Follow the agency’s written protocols

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Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on __________.

a. the opinions of physicians
b. EMS research
c. the experiences of EMTs
d. an EMS agency’s fiscal resources

EMS research

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American Heart Association protocols are based on __________.

a. evidence-based research
b. trends in the EMS community
c. theories ready for field trial
d. opinions from a core group of cardiologists

evidence-based research

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The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called __________.

a. patient advocacy
b. integrity
c. time management
d. patient empathy

time management

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The ability to take appropriate action with little direction is known as __________.

a. diplomacy
b. self-confidence
c. time management
d. self-motivation

self-motivation

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You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of __________.

a. undue hardship
b. patient advocacy
c. scope of practice
d. abuse of authority

patient advocacy

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The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as __________.

a. Empathy
b. Anger
c. Frustration
d. Disgust

Empathy

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Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?

a. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting
b. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
c. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients
d. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients

A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured

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Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct?

a. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability.
b. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled.
c. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled.
d. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam.

The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled.

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As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on:

a. the patient’s condition.
b. medical director approval.
c. an order from a paramedic.
d. the transport time to the hospital.

medical director approval.

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Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?

a. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs.
b. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT.
c. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.
d. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

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Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model?

a. EMTs assess a patient whose lung disease is “acting up”
b. The paramedic administers a patient’s flu vaccination
c. EMTs respond to a woman who complains of high fever
d. Paramedics pick up a patient from an acute care clinic

The paramedic administers a patient’s flu vaccination

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You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to __________.

a. the receiving nurse or doctor
b. law enforcement personnel
c. the state motor vehicle department
d. your medical director

the receiving nurse or doctor

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Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:

a. animals or insects
b. smoke or dust
c. direct contact
d. inanimate objects

animals or insects

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Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct?

a. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression.
b. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages.
c. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously.
d. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process.

The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously.

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Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. assessment by the EMT.
b. mental disorders.
c. history of chronic disease.
d. fear of medical personnel.

assessment by the EMT.

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While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe?

a. Direct contact
b. Indirect contact
c. Airborne transmission
d. Vector-borne transmission

Indirect contact

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The EMT's first priority is __________. a. personal safety b. rapid response c. treatment and transport d. empathy for all patients

personal safety

Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? a. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls b. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind c. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption d. Developing a social network outside of Ems

Developing a social network outside of Ems

The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: a. undergo an annual physical examination. b. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date. c. wash your hands in between patient contacts. d. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis.

wash your hands in between patient contacts.

Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used: a. whenever you touch nonintact skin. b. during routine cleaning of the ambulance. c. while handling needles or other sharps. d. when performing endotracheal intubation.

whenever you touch nonintact skin.

After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: a. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution. b. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. c. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. d. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention.

report the incident to your supervisor after the call.

When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: a. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. b. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. c. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. d. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel.

allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.

Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: a. are older than 35 years of age. b. have a weak immune system. c. have been infected with hepatitis in the past. d. received a hepatitis B vaccination.

have been infected with hepatitis in the past.

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? a. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. b. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. c. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. d. There is no vaccine against HIV infection.

There is no vaccine against HIV infection.

General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? a. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery b. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery c. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion d. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery

Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? a. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. b. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. c. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. d. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.

An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.

Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: a. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. b. touches another person without his or her consent. c. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. d. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts.

requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.

The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: a. punitive action and the loss of a job. b. low morale and frequently missed shifts. c. tension among coworkers and supervisors. d. substandard or inappropriate patient care.

substandard or inappropriate patient care.

You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: a. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. b. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. c. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared. d. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay.

acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her.

At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: a. proceed with normal extrication procedures. b. remove the lines with a nonconductive object. c. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car. d. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.

mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should: a. quickly begin the triage process. b. assist with vehicle stabilization. c. report to the incident commander. d. put on high-visibility safety vests.

put on high-visibility safety vests.

Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? a. Behind a car door b. A concrete barricade c. A large cluster of shrubs d. Stacked empty barrels

A concrete barricade

To help protect patients, EMS agencies are required to have __________. a. public forums with their medical director b. online access to patient records c. an anonymous reporting system d. a privacy officer to answer questions

a privacy officer to answer questions

As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on: a. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. b. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented. c. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation. d. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS.

It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report.

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? a. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated. b. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment. c. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. d. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport.

A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.

Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? a. Formal b. Implied c. Informed d. Expressed

Expressed

You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? a. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. b. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. c. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. d. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment.

Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital.

When is forcible restraint permitted? a. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened b. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member c. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others d. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior

When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others

In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? a. A police officer requests a copy to place on file b. The family requests a copy for insurance purposes c. A media representative inquires about the patient d. The patient is competent and signs a release form

The patient is competent and signs a release form

Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? a. Controlling insurance costs b. Protecting patient privacy c. Preventing insurance fraud d. Ensuring access to insurance

Protecting patient privacy

During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: a. acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others. b. adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally. c. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand. d. violated the patient's privacy because you should have discussed the information only with the EMTs involved.

are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand.

You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: a. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed. b. honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment. c. transport the patient without providing any treatment. d. decide on further action once the DNR order is produced.

begin treatment and contact medical control as needed.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: a. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew. b. ventilate the patient for 5 minutes and then stop if there is no response. c. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR. d. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased.

have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased.

Putrefaction is defined as: a. decomposition of the body's tissues. b. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. c. blood settling to the lowest point of the body. d. separation of the torso from the rest of the body.

decomposition of the body's tissues.

Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? a. Driver's license b. Insurance card c. Social Security card d. Voter registration card

Driver's license

The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: a. medical director. b. state EMS office. c. EMS supervisor. d. local health district.

medical director.

When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to: a. consistently exceed the standard of care. b. contact medical control on every EMS call. c. function above his or her scope of practice. d. exercise reasonable care and act prudently.

exercise reasonable care and act prudently.

In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist? a. The EMT witnesses a vehicle crash while off duty. b. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change. c. The EMT hears of a cardiac arrest after his or her shift ends. d. A bystander encounters a victim who is not breathing.

A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change.

Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? a. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation b. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation c. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation d. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation

Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: a. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. b. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. c. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. d. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

You are called to attend to an elderly patient with an extensive medical history who is now in cardiac arrest. The patient's family tells you that the patient has a DNR order. There is no paperwork available but the patient does have a MedicAlert bracelet indicating Do Not Resuscitate. You should: a. initiate resuscitation in the absence of paperwork. b. confirm the patient's identity and honor the DNR order. c. transport with minimal care. d. confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet.

confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet.

Which of the following statements about the patient care report is correct? a. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. b. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented. c. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation. d. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS.

It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report.

To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure __________. a. both arms above the head b. both arms at the patient's sides c. only the patient's torso d. one arm above the head

one arm above the head

The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. a. coccyx b. sacrum c. thorax d. ischium

sacrum

An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: a. back is bent forward at the hips. b. hands are held close to the legs. c. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis. d. force is exerted straight down the spine.

back is bent forward at the hips.

The proper technique for using the power grip is to: a. lift with your palms up. b. rotate your palms down. c. hold the handle with your fingers. d. position your hands about 6² apart.

lift with your palms up.

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? a. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso. b. Most of the patient's weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher. c. A semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends. d. The EMT at the patient's head will bear the least amount of weight.

The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso.

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: a. flex at the waist instead of the hips. b. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags. c. use a direct carry whenever possible. d. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? a. Long backboard b. Scoop stretcher c. Portable stretcher d. Wheeled stretcher

Long backboard

To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: a. be positioned at the feet so the team can hear. b. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves. c. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient. d. never become involved in the move, only direct the move.

use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: a. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. b. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. c. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. d. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs.

stop the move and request additional lifting assistance.

When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ________ in front of your torso. a. 5 to 10 inches b. 10 to 15 inches c. 15 to 20 inches d. 20 to 30 inches

15 to 20 inches

Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct? a. The spine must be fully immobilized prior to performing an emergency move. b. An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment. c. The patient is dragged against the body's long axis during an emergency move. d. It is not possible to perform an emergency move without injuring the patient.

An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should: a. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. b. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag. c. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient. d. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board.

direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.

The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: a. unnecessarily wasting time. b. injury to you or your patient. c. causing patient anxiety or fear. d. confusion among team members.

injury to you or your patient.

Which of the following conditions or situations presents the MOST unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard? a. Joint flexibility b. Patient disorientation c. Naturally deformed bones d. Abnormal spinal curvature

Abnormal spinal curvature

In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: a. a collapsible undercarriage. b. weight capacity of up to 650 lb. c. increased stability from a wider wheelbase. d. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher.

increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should: a. secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher. b. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair. c. collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher. d. assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs.

place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.

It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. a. throw out b. decontaminate c. incinerate d. properly store

decontaminate

You are attending to a 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. Your patient has been having lower abdominal pains and cramping for the past two hours. In placing your patient on the stretcher and preparing for transport, you should place her: a. supine with her legs elevated. b. in the Fowler position. c. on her left side. d. in a position of comfort.

on her left side.

You are attending to a 34-year-old male patient who requires transport to the hospital for assessment of his chronic back pain. The patient weighs over 750 pounds. Your bariatric stretcher has a wider surface area to allow for: a. increased lifting capacity and patient weight load. b. increased patient comfort and dignity. c. increased stability and leverage when lifting with more than two providers. d. better stability when moving the patient on uneven ground.

increased patient comfort and dignity.

You are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. The patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. The most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is: a. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end. b. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the foot end. c. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the head end. d. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the foot end.

secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end.