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Y3 CAP Test 2019 > Questions > Flashcards

Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is nominal aphasia? Where in the brain is affected?

A

Unable to name familiar objects but language is otherwise preserved - it can occur as part of other aphasic syndromes

When it occurs on its own, it suggests an inferior parietal lesion - angular gyrus

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2
Q

Woman on COCP missed 1 pill previous night on the 19th pill of packet - recommendation?

A

Take forgotten pill now ad next one at usual time - additional precautions only required if 2 or more pills missed

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3
Q

What is an Advance Statement?

A

When a person is well, they can specify what treatment they would want in the event of mental health deteriorating again and lacking capacity to make decisions

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4
Q

Pt in acute psychosis intending to commit suicide attends psychiatry out-patient clinic. What law can be used?

A

Short term detention can be used as it is a psychiatrist who is available

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5
Q

Supplements women should take daily during pregnancy?

A

Folic acid 400mcg
VitD 10mcg

If at risk of neural tube defect e.g. maternal diabetes, give 5mg folic acid

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6
Q

Premalignant change with discoloured growth?

A

Neoplasia

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7
Q

What is used to identify treponema pallidum?

Aerobic/anareobic?

A

Dark field microscopy - difficult to perform gram stain as thin membrane

Aerobic/microaerophilic

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8
Q

First line treatment for Iron deficiency anaemia Hb 8.8g/L

A

PO Fe supplements

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9
Q

What is toxic granulation?

How is a neutrophil identified?

A

A neutrophil has granules containing anti-microbial enzymes - when activated these are particularly prominent (neutrophil count normally also raised in this context)

Usually colours purple - nucleus has 3-5 lobes

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10
Q

Blood supply to intercostal spaces

A

Anterior - internal thoracic artery/internal thoracic vein

Posterior - thoracic aorta and azygous vein

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11
Q

80 y/o woman with 3 month Hx of falls. Has CKD, mild dementia and is awaiting R knee replacement for OA. Struggles to climb stairs due to knee pain. Takes paracetamol and 2 weeks ago started on codeine. What do you do?

A

Strength and balance training before knee replacement - improve quadriceps strength and inc joint stability, helps improve outcomes

Codeine can cause confusion and falls in the elderly, but her falls precede codeine and codeine has not exacerbated them

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12
Q

NSAIDs in elderly?

A

Risk of GI bleed and renal impairment

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13
Q

Blood pressure during pregnancy?

A

Decreases 2nd trimester due to expansion of uteroplacental circulation and decreased TPR, and increases back to normal 3rd trimester

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14
Q

GFR in pregnancy?

A

Increases 30-50%

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15
Q

Cardiac output in pregnancy?

A

Increases 30-50%

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16
Q

Erythropoeisis during pregnancy?

A

Increases 25%

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17
Q

Vital capacity in pregnancy?

A

Remains unchanged

tidal volume and minute volume increase

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18
Q

Requirements for diagnosis of delirium?

A

Acute onset
Inattention with fluctuating course
Disorganised thinking; OR
altered level of consciousness

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19
Q

40y/o woman who smokes 20 cig/day has green nipple discharge and a non-tender lump below the nipple?

A

Duct ectasia

Assoc with smoking and green/cream nipple discharge. A lump (thickened duct) can be felt under the nipple

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20
Q

70y/o woman who develops hot tender breast with overlying cellulitis - recently had 2 courses of antibiotics which have not helped?

A

Inflammatory breast cancer

Elderly patient with inflammatory breast changes and no resolution despite antibiotics - suspect inflammatory breast cancer

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21
Q

Wilson’s disease inheritance?

Symptoms?

A

Autosomal recessive

Neuro, psych and hepatic conditions due to copper deposition - kayser-fleischer rings in eyes from copper deposits around iris

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22
Q

Becker’s muscular dystrophy inheritance?
Gene?
Can it be de novo?

A

X-linked recessive

Dystrophin gene

Some are de novo

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23
Q

What is myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibres?
Features?
Inheritance?

A

Mitochondrial disease - clumps of mitochondria accumulate in muscle fibres giving ragged, red appearance.

Other features include progressive myoclonic epilepsy, short stature, hearing loss, lactic acidosis, exercise intolerance and poor night vision.

Mitochondrial inheritance

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24
Q

What should be measured before commencing COCP on healthy 17 y/o?

A

BMI and BP - uncontrolled hypertension and obesity both CI

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25
Q

Inheritance of Huntington’s?

A

Autosomal Dominant

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26
Q

Blood test pattern for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

Low Hb
High MCV
Very high reticulocytes
Normal WCC and PLT
Film shoes spherocytes and polychromasia
Direct Antiglobulin Test will be positive

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27
Q

Hormone used to assess ovarian reserve prior to IVF?

A

anti-mullerian hormone

Also useful to predict response to supra-ovulation in IVF treatment

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28
Q

First area affected in Alzheimer’s?

A

Nucleus Basalis of Meyert

This is the main source of cholinergic projections to the rest of the brain - thought to be one of the mechanisms by which Alzheimers causes cognitive impairment (however the fact cholinesterase inhibitors only delay symptoms shoes there are other mechanisms at work)

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29
Q

Which law allows detention of pt in hospital for 6 months in first instance?

A

Compulsory treatment order

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30
Q

What is a compulsion order?

A

Similar to a compulsory treatment order, but used to enable patients subject to criminal proceedings to receive treatment for mental disorder under Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995

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31
Q

What is dystonia?

Name of cervical dystonia?

A

Sustained abnormal posture caused by persistent contraction of large trunk or limb muscle. Aetiology and pathology unknown.

Spasmodic Torticollis - head turning to one side due to sternocleidomastoid contraction.

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32
Q

Treatment of dystonia?

A

anticholinergics (promethazine, atropine, tolterodine are antimuscarinic, burpropion is anti-nicotinic)
Phenothiazines (prochlorperazine)
Botulinum toxin injection

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33
Q

What is blepharospasm

A

Uncontrolled spasm/twitch of eyelid

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34
Q

What form of hepatitis is faeco-oral transmission

A

Hep A and E

Most people in UK over 60 now immune. Still most common type.

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35
Q

Visual defect from lateral optic nerve lesion immediately anterior to chiasma?

A

Junctional scotoma

central scotoma of one eye and temporal hemianopia/quadrantopia of other eye

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36
Q

Acutely manic 29y/o woman who may be pregnant?

A

Olanzapine

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37
Q

Treatment of hyperactive delirium?

A

Haloperidol or Aripiprazole

Benzos prolong delirium

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38
Q

85y/o woman, has to rush to toilet any time she thinks of urinating, often incontinent. Type?

A

Urge

Stimulus causes OAB leading to sudden voiding

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39
Q

Is early neonatal jaundice normal?

A

> 24hrs yes

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40
Q

Is neonatal polycythaemia normal?

A

Yes

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41
Q

Is neonatal peripheral cyanosis normal?

A

Yes

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42
Q

Is neonatal splitting of 2nd heart sound normal?

A

Yes

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43
Q

Is neonatal delay in femoral pulse normal?

A

No - suggestive of coarctation of aorta

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44
Q

Moderately severe continuous frontal headache, worse in evenings?

A

Acute tension headache

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45
Q

Features of benign intracranial hypertension?

A

generalised throbbing headache assoc w nausea and vomiting, made worse by activity that increased ICP e.g. coughing to sneezing. Commonly in obesity or taking COCP

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46
Q

Is smoking a CI for HRT?

A

No

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47
Q

Is well controlled angina a CI for HRT?

A

Yes - any active or recent thromboembolic disease (MI or angina) is a CI

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48
Q

Is obesity with BMI 37 a CI for HRT?

A

No

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49
Q

Is FHx of breast cancer CI for HRT?

A

No

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50
Q

Is osteoporosis CI for HRT?

A

No

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51
Q

Function of proximal tubule

A

Involved in regulation of pH and reabsorbs 100% of filtered glucose and amino acids

52
Q

Are H+ ions reabsorbed in proximal tubule?

A

No they are excreted

53
Q

Is urea reabsorbed in proximal tubule?

A

No it is filtered in glomerulus, and reabsorbed at the collecting duct (and loop of henle), reabsorption controlled by ADH to create a high-osmolar concentration gradient

54
Q

65 y/o male has cervical, axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy measuring 2cm. FBC shows Hb 123, WCC 231x10^9, Lymphocytes 223x10^9, PLT 332

A

Chronic Lymphoid Leukaemia - Lymphocytosis also seen in non-Hodgkin’s and acute viral (but never more than 20x10^9) - Lymphocytes only ever this high in CLL

55
Q

What is seen on blood film of EBV?

A

Atypical lymphocytes

56
Q

What can occur after EBV?

A

Many have chronic fatigue - immune-mediated cytopenias (e.g. neutropaenia, thrombocytopenia or autoimmune haemolytic anaemia)

57
Q

What should trigger HIV suspicion, even in low risk individuals?

A

Unexplained cytopaenia (even lymphopenia or thrombocytopenia), or unexplained lymphadenopathy

58
Q

What is used to dose unfractioned heparin?

A

APTT

All others (PT, INR, PV and bleeding time insensitive to heparin)

59
Q

What happens to phosphate in CKD?

How is it managed?

A

It usually rises, but not until late stage, and it isn’t efficiently removed by dialysis either

Phosphate binders often used to maintain phosphate within reference range

60
Q

Why do CKD patients often have hyperparathyroidism?

Management?

A

Low Ca as impaired reabsorption, and low vitD due to reduced activation, causes hyperparathyroidism

Treatment is recommended even if asymptomatic due to increased risk of fractures and vascular calcification

61
Q

CSF pattern in bacterial meningitis

A 
Cloudy
Glucose <50% serum
Protein increased
Predominantly neutrophils
Oligoclonal bands -ve
62
Q

When are lymphocytes raised in CSF

A

Viral meningitis
TB meningitis
Multiple Sclerosis

63
Q

When are protein levels raised in CSF

A

In most conditions, but severely increased in bacterial meningitis

64
Q

When are oligoclonal bands seen in CSF

A

MS

>90% of patients

65
Q

First line for simple partial (focal aware) seizures?

A

Carbamazepine or Lamotrigine

66
Q

How does Lamotrigine work?

A

Blockade (antagonist) of voltage-sensitive Na+ channels, which reduces glutamate release

67
Q

What is red cell fragmentation and thrombocytopenia seen in?

A

Intravascular destruction of RBC due to over activation of complement system - e.g. haemolytic uraemic syndrome after E Coli 0157 infection

68
Q

Features of Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome post-E Coli O157?

A 
Few days Hx of diarrhoea
Purpura develops
Low Hb
High WCC (due to infection)
Low PLT
Very high creatinine
69
Q

Is fluid removed from the patient by osmosis in dialysis?

A

No

70
Q

Are dialysis patients given EPO?

A

Yes - to stimulate RBC production and prevent anaemia

71
Q

Induction of Labour at 42 weeks gestation - following artificial ROM there is prolonged foetal bradycardia at 50bpm, and fresh vaginal bleeding is noted. On exam uterus is soft and non-tender

A

Vasa Praevia

Condition where cord vessels cross the foetal membranes

Assoc w severe foetal distress and relatively small intrapartum bleed following ROM

72
Q

CN responsible for pain across posterior triangle of neck?

A

CNVII

73
Q

neurotransmitter responsible for suspected epileptic fit in 21y/o known IVDU

A

GABA - withdrawal from sedative-hypnotic drugs causes reduced GABA

74
Q

Features of acute dystonic reaction?

A

Extrapyramidal SE which occurs within hours of taking antipsychotic medication

Patient cannot move affected body part and it is extremely painful

75
Q

Features of metabolic syndrome?

A

Central obesity
Hypertension
Hypercholesterolaemia
Insulin resistance

Can lead to serious problems e.g. MI

76
Q

Lung disease assoc w RA

A

Fibrosing Alveolitis secondary to Rheumatoud Disease (DPLD/ILD)

Causes breathlessness, finger clubbing, CXR shows shrunken lungs and bilateral infiltrates

77
Q

Spirometry of interstitial lung disease

A

Low FEV1
Low FVC
Normal FEV1/FVC ratio

78
Q

When does to urge to urinate come?

A

When bladder volume reaches 250ml

79
Q

What is upper limit of urine production?

A

2.8L daily

80
Q

Control of urethral sphincter?

A

Both voluntary (striated muscle) and involuntary (smooth muscle) control

81
Q

What does parasympathetic stimulation of bladder cause?

A

Contraction of detrusor muscle

82
Q

Artery most likely to be injured during insertion go abdominal port for female laparoscopic sterilisation?

A

Inferior epigastric artery

Branch of external iliac that runs on posterior surface of lower half of rectus abdominis

83
Q

Artery most likely to be injured by bartholin’s abscess removal?

A

Branches from internal pudendal artery

Supply the labia and clitoris

84
Q

Artery most likely to be damaged during dissection of lower ureter?

A

Uterine artery

Lower ureter passes under the uterine artery as it passes through the base of the broad ligament beside the cervix, before entering the trigone of the bladder

85
Q

25 y/o primigravida has 2 hour second stage of labour and is exhausted after 1 hour. CTG is reassuring. On exam there is cephalic presentation in direct OP position with station +2cm. Most appropriate intervention?

A

Mid-cavity non-rotational forceps delivery (e.g. Haig Ferguson, Neville-Barnes, Simpson’s)

Appropriate as the saggital suture is in AP diameter and presenting part below ischial spine

86
Q

Best test for definitive diagnosis of sickle cell anaemia?

A

Hb high performance liquid chromatography of whole blood lysate (HPLC)

Confirms presence of HbS

87
Q

What is a sickle solubility test

A

Test for presence of sickle cells, but not specific as also present in carriers of disease

88
Q

What is the function of the appetitive and approach systems?

A

Mediate seeking and approach behaviours including pleasure. They involve ascending dopamine systems which project to the mesolimbic areas of the cortex, as well as the striatum, amygdalae, anterior cingulate and orbitofrontal cortex

89
Q

What is Rouleaux?

When does it occur?

A

When RBC’s are stacked like ‘coins’ under film

Occurs when the charge on the cell surface alters as a consequence of being labelled with proteins (e.g. acute phase proteins in infection or paraproteins (intact immunoglobulin) found in plasma cell dycrasias)

90
Q

Bacterium which is intracellular, that produces elementary bodies and reticulate bodies during its reproductive cycle, and is diagnosed by PCR?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

91
Q

35 y/o with severe dysmenorrhoea and dyspareunia caused by known endometriosis - Rx?

A

COCP, or any treatment which reduces menstruation

92
Q

25 y/o woman who presents to A&E suffering from smoke inhalation, from a fire which killed her 14 day old baby. She is tearful and distracted by loud voices stating “they told me to start the fire”. Diagnosis?

A

Peurperial psychosis

This is an extreme presentation

93
Q

Consent required from 14 y/o girl who wants TOP and fully understands procedure?

A

Written consent, as it is a surgical procedure

94
Q

Consent required for a 77y/o unconscious man requiring emergency repair to fractured hip. Wife accompanies him.

A

Nil required.

As it is an emergency, a procedure can be performed if it is not possible to obtain consent and treatment is immediately required to save life or prevent serious deterioration

95
Q

Consent required for 40y/o severely brain damaged woman with menorrhagia, whose husband is requesting total abdominal hysterectomy to improve personal hygiene?

A

Court of law decide, overriding need for consent

In a non-emergency situation when pt cannot provide consent and is unlikely to gain capacity in future, it is appropriate to seek legal action

96
Q

What type of organism is trichomonas vaginalis?

A

flagellated protozoa

97
Q

What type of organism is Gardnerella vaginalis?

A

‘Clue cells’ seen in bacterial vaginosis

98
Q

Is warfarin CI in breastfeeding?

A

No

99
Q

Is Labetalol CI in breastfeeding?

A

No

100
Q

Is Tetracycline CI in breastfeeding?

A

Yes - can discolour infant’s teeth

101
Q

Is amoxicillin CI in breastfeeding?

A

No

102
Q

Is Amitriptyline CI in breastfeeding?

A

No

103
Q

With ageing, does a serum creatinine within normal range always an indicator of normal renal function?

A

No, Muscle is a source of creatinine and low muscle mass may mean serum creatinine is normal despite poor renal function

104
Q

Compare cardiac output of an 80y/o to a 20y/o?

A

CO about 50%

105
Q

Bone mass loss in men and women with ageing?

A

Around 5-10% per decade for women

Around 5% per decade for men

106
Q

How can older people get weaker despite remaining constant weight

A

Sarcopenic obesity

Muscle mass loss and converted to fat

107
Q

Does methyldopa affect COCP?

A

No

108
Q

Does Phenytoin affect COCP?

A

Yes - it is a CYP450 enzyme inducer, as is Carbamazepine

109
Q

Does mefanamic acid affect COCP?

A

No

110
Q

Does Amoxicillin affect COCP?

A

No

111
Q

Does Codeine affect COCP?

A

No

112
Q

30y/o woman with borderline personality disorder has episodes where she loses consciousness and appears to have tonic-clonic seizure, however EEG is normal?

A

Non-epileptic seizure

Childhood trauma/abuse is risk factor for both

However, beware of malingering

113
Q

4 problems which may happen in life of premature infant born at 29 weeks gestation?

A

Sepsis
ARDS
Intraventricular haemorrhage
Patent ductus arteriosus

114
Q

1 long-term issue which a preterm infant born at 29 weeks gestation may face

A

Chronic lung disease (broncho-pulmonary dysplasia)

115
Q

What does decreased CO2 do to oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

Shifts to left

decreased oxygen release

116
Q

What does decreased pH do to oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

shifts right

increased oxygen release

117
Q

What does decreased temperature do to oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

shifts to left

decreased oxygen release

118
Q

What does decreased 2,3-DPG do to oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

Shifts to left

decreased oxygen release

119
Q

What does decreased H+ ions do to oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

shifts to left

decreased oxygen release

120
Q

Monitoring for patient on Dalteparin (LMWH) for PE she had 3 weeks ago?

A

Anti-Xa assay

APTT useful for unfractioned heparin but is often normal in LMWH.

LMWH inhibits Xa.

Timing of sample very important and should be done 3-4 hours after dose

121
Q

Monitoring for 75 y/o patient on Dabigatran (direct thrombin inhibitor) for AF and Hx of TIA. Renal function normal.

A

No routine monitoring required

(licensed for AF to prevent stroke - just as good as warfarin with less intracranial effects)

It is mostly excreted renally and CI if GFR <30ml/min

Therefore, only monitor if renal function deteriorates

122
Q

4 signs of multiple myeloma?

A

Focal back pain (over vertebra)
Anaemia
Hypercalcaemia
Renal failure (proteinuria, microscopic haematuria, high urea and creatinine)

(can affect ribs, femur or hip as well as spine)

123
Q

Inheritance of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Autosomal dominant

very very rarely autosomal recessive, not one of they typical proteins involved

124
Q

What is hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Umbrella term for a mutation in one of several RBC membrane proteins, causing spherical RBC’s.

Pts can require splenectomy or cholecystectomy (from pigment gall stones) due to chronic haemolysis

125
Q

Function of aversive system?

Neurotransmitters/anatomy?

A

Promote survival in event of a threat

endogenous opioids (kappa)
ascending serotonin
Noradrenaline

Involves central amygdala, hippocampus and peri-acqueductal grey

Y3 CAP Test 2019 (1 decks)

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