questions

Question 1

metal lymphocyte transformation test

Answer 1

Cobalt, Chromium, Nickel, Titanium, Aluminum, Zirconium, Niobium

Question 2

types of hemophelia

Answer 2

1. Hemophelia A- lowered clotting factor VIII
2. Hemophelia B Christmas disease- lowered clotting factor IX
3. Von Willibrands disease- inherited, slow clotting
4. Hemochromatosis- deposition of iron, hepatomegaly, heart failure

Question 3

What lauge hanson do you get butterfly fx

Answer 3

PAB

Question 4

Dupuytren fx? w what Lauge hanson

Answer 4

talus =is lodged proximally between the tibia and the fibula, often with dislocation and open fracture
PER

Question 5

Clark levels of malignant melanoma

Answer 5

Level 1- Epidermis, not through the basement membrane
Level II- Melanoma penetrates the basement membrane and enters the papillary dermis
Level III Melanoma fills the papillary dermis.
Level IV Melanoma enters the reticular dermis
Level V Melanoma enters the subcutaneous fat.

Question 6

Breslow thickness

Answer 6

0 to 0.75 mm epidermis
0.76- to 1.5 mm papillary dermis
1.51 to 3.5 mm reticular dermis
Greater the 3.5 subcutaneous layer

Question 7

Hutchinson’s sign, melanotic whitlow

Answer 7

subungual melanoma in the eponychium and nail folds of Acral Lentiginous Melanoma.

Question 8

Cierny-mader classification of osteomyelitis

Answer 8

Stage 1. Medullary Osteomyelitis Class A - Host
Stage 2. Superficial Osteomyelitis Class B – Systemic compromise
Stage 3 Localized Osteomyelitis Class Bl – Local compromise
Stage 4 Diffuse Osteomyelitis Class C – treatment worse than disease

Question 9

Charcot classification

Answer 9

Eichenholz

1. development, 2. coalescence, 3. reconstruction

Question 10

sneppen classification

Answer 10

1. transchondral or compression of talar dome
2. coronal, sagittal or horizontal shear fracture
   1 coronal or sagittal
   1A non-displaced
   1B displaced trochlear articular surface
   1C displaced trochlear articular surface with subtalar involvement
   1D total dislocation of talar body

Question 11

Rowe classification

Answer 11

1a-tuberosity fracture
1b-sustentaculum fracture
1c-anterior process fracture
2a-beak fracture
2b-avulsion fracture of Achilles tendon
III   body fracture not involving the posterior facet
4-body fracture involving the subtalar joint
V-joint depression fracture

Question 12

Essex-Lopresti Classification of Calcaneal Fractures

Answer 12

A-Joint depression fracture

B-Tongue fracture

Question 13

Hercovici Classification of Medial Malleolar Fractures

Answer 13

Type 1- Avulsion at the tip of the medial malleolus
Type 2- Transverse fracture below the joint line
Type 3-Transverse fracture at the joint line
Type 4- Oblique fracture above the joint line

Question 14

Tscherne”s classification of soft tissue trauma

Answer 14

Grade 0- absent
Grade 1- Indirect, contusion, superficial abrasion
Grade 2- Direct, deep abrasion, contaminated, impending compartment syndrome, blistering and edema
Grade 3- Direct, extensive contusion or crushing, possible muscle damage, vascular injury or compartment syndrome.

Question 15

Ruedi and allgower

Answer 15

I Intra-articular not displaced
II Intra-articular minimally to moderately displaced
III Comminuted

Question 16

AO of pilon

Answer 16

Type A- extra-articular A1,2,3
Type B- partially articular B1,2,3
Type C1- simple pilon
Type C2- articular injury with greater metataphyseal comminution
Type C3- significant comminution of both articular surface and metaphysic

Question 17

Jahss of first MPJ dislocations

Answer 17

Type 1- simple dislocation, sesamoids lie on the dorsum of the metatarsal neck, maintaining their attachment to the base of the proximal phalanx. ( irreducible)
Type II A- dorsal dislocation with rupture of the intersesamoidal ligament (reducible)
Type II B- dorsal dislocation with transverse fracture of medial sesamoid. The distal fragment is drawn distally while the proximal fragment remains attached to the intersesamoidal ligament. (reducible)

Question 18

Torg classification- jones

Answer 18

Type I. acute fractures no previous history of trauma, no sclerosis of the medullary canal, no widening of the fracture line.
Type II. Delayed fracture, history of previous trauma, Periosteal changes, widening of the fracture line, medullary sclerosis and radiolucency at the fracture site.
Type III. Non-united repeated trauma with recurring symptoms with Periosteal changes, widening of the fracture line, medullary sclerosis and radiolucency at the fracture site.

Question 19

Tetnus prophylaxis

Answer 19

.5ml tetnus toxoid

250mg tetnus immunglobulin in separate arms

Question 20

Coughlin classification of accessory navicular

Answer 20

Type 1- small sesamoid within the posterior tibial tendon
Type II- larger, detached by less than 2mm and often symptomatic
Type III- fused to navicular cornuate or gorrilloid.

Question 21

Marti weber classification of fx of neck and body of the talus

Answer 21

Type I-Fracture distal to the neck of the talus
Type II-Undisplaced fracture of the head and body of the talus
Type III-Displaced fracture of neck and body
Type IV-Fracture of the neck and body with dislocation of talar body from ankle mortice.

Question 22

Ficat and arlet

Answer 22

• stage 0
o plain radiograph: normal
o MRI: normal
o clinical symptoms: nil
• stage I
o plain radiograph: normal or minor osteopenia
o MRI: oedema
o bone scan: increased uptake
o clinical symptoms: pain typically in the groin
• stage II
o plain radiograph: mixed osteopenia and/or sclerosis and/or subchondral cysts, without any subchondral lucency (crescent sign: see below)
o MRI: geographic defect
o bone scan: increased uptake
o clinical symptoms: pain and stiffness
• stage III
plain radiograph: crescent sign and eventual cortical collapse. The crescent sign of avascular necrosis is seen on conventional radiographs and refers to a linear area of subchondral lucency seen most frequently in the anterolateral aspect of the proximal femoral head (which is optimally depicted on the frog-leg radiographic view). It indicates imminent articular collapse.
o
o MRI: same as plain radiograph
o clinical symptoms: pain and stiffness+/- radiation to knee and limp
• stage IV
o plain radiograph: end-stage with evidence of secondary degenerative change
o MRI: same as plain radiograph
o clinical symptoms: pain and limp

Question 23

Coughlin and shurnas class of hallux limitus

Answer 23

0=40-60 degrees. no pain
1= 30-40 dorsal osteophyte
2=10-30 flattening 
3=<10. cysts, erosions
4= lose bodies and osteochondral

Question 24

Kellgren and lawrence ankle arthritis

Answer 24

Grade 1. doubtful narrowing of joint space and possible osteophytic lipping
Grade 2. definite osteophytes, definite narrowing of joint space
Grade 3. moderate multiple osteophytes, definite narrowing of joints space, some sclerosis and possible deformity of bone contour
Grade 4 large osteophytes, marked narrowing of joint space, severe sclerosis and definite deformity of bone contour

Question 25

modified outerbridge classification of articular arthritis

Answer 25

Grade 0 Normal cartilage
Grade 1 Cartilage with softening and swelling
Grade 2 Partial thickness defect but no exposed subchondral bone
Grade 3 Exposed subchondral bone over some of the area
Grade 4 Exposed subchondral bone over the entire area

Question 26

Takakura classification ankle arthritis

Answer 26

1=sclerosis and osteophite
2=medial joint space narrow
3a=med mall joint space obliterated 
3b=obliterated talar dome
4= complete bone contact