Questions Flashcards

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1
Q
Which of the following is contained in an official notice of sale?
A. Reoffering yields on the bond
B. Delivery date
C. Amount of good faith deposit
D. Agreement among underwriters
A

C. Amount of good faith deposit
The official notice of sale contains the information a syndicate needs to prepare a bid, including the amount of the good faith deposit the syndicate must submit with the bid. The delivery date has not been determined. The syndicate develops the yield for each maturity and the agreement among underwriters.

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2
Q

Your customer, a small business owner likes investments that are short term, relatively safe from credit risk and liquid. He’s heard that higher rates of return can be realized from auction rate securities than the rates he is currently getting on the Treasury bills in his portfolio. He asks you to explain them to him. Which of the following would you note as being reasons why they are not suitable for your customer?

I. Auction rate securities are intended as long-term investments.
II. Interest or dividend rates are reset at established intervals based on a Dutch auction.
III. If the auction fails, holders of ARSs may not have immediate access to his funds.
IV. The interest or dividend rate is set as the lowest rate to match supply and demand at the time of the auction.

A. I and IV
B. II and IV
C. I and III
D. II and III

A

C. I and III

Auction rate securities (ARSs) are long-term variable rate bonds with maturities of 20 to 30 years tied to short-term interest rates. As long-term instruments they are not suitable for an investor favoring short-term investments. Additionally, interest rates are reset using a Dutch auction method at predetermined intervals, typically 7, 28, or 35 days. A failed auction can occur due to lack of demand and hence no bids are received to reset the rate. This risk would not align with investment objectives such as safety and liquidity.

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3
Q

A legal opinion issued for a municipal bond covers which of the following?

I. Feasibility of public works projects
II. Creditworthiness of the issuing municipality
III. Tax status of the municipal debt
IV. The constitutionality and legality of the municipal debt

A. II and III
B. I and II
C. III and IV
D. I and IV

A

C. III and IV

Municipal securities are reviewed by specialized lawyers who render a legal opinion. The opinion covers two main issues: constitutionality (i.e., it ensures that the bonds are legal, valid, and binding obligations of the issuer) and verification of the tax status of the debt (i.e., interest on the bonds is exempt from federal income taxes as well as state and local taxes in some cases).

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4
Q

Your firm is bidding on a new general obligation bond issue. As the issuer weighs and evaluates the competitive bids, what factor will be most important in deciding who will be awarded the winning bid?

A. Net Interest Cost
B. Concession
C. Scale
D. Takedown

A

A. Net Interest Cost

Net interest cost measures an issuer’s overall cost of borrowing for a particular bond issue. It is, therefore, the most important item an issuer considers when evaluating competing bids.

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5
Q

All of the following terms are associated with general obligation (GO) bonds EXCEPT:

A. protective covenants
B. voter referendum
C. coterminous debt
D. limited tax bond

A

A. protective covenants

The protective covenants are found in the trust indenture of a revenue bond. Coterminous debt, or overlapping debt, exists when a single property is taxed by more than one taxing authority (i.e., property is taxed by both a school district and a county). Certain GOs may have limitations imposed on increasing any of the taxes that back them and are called limited tax bonds. GO bonds require voter approval.

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6
Q

A stockholder owns 200 shares of common stock in a corporation that features statutory voting. If an election is being held in which 6 candidates are running for 3 seats on the board, the stockholder could cast the votes in which of the following ways?

A. 600 votes for any 1 director.
B. 200 votes for each of 3 directors.
C. 100 votes for each of 6 directors.
D. 300 votes for each of 2 directors.

A

B. 200 votes for each of 3 directors

A stockholder has 1 vote per seat for each share of stock he owns. Thus, in this case, the stockholder has a total of 600 votes. Under the statutory voting method, he must allocate an equal number to each seat, or 200 for each of 3 seats.

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7
Q

Gargantuan Computers, Inc. (GCI) conducts a rights offering to its current shareholders at $50 per share, plus 1 right. If the current market price of GCI is $70, what is the value of one right before the stock trades ex-rights?

A. 5
B. 3
C. 15
D. 10

A

A. 5

The stock is trading cum rights (before the ex-date). The formula to calculate the value of one right before the ex-date is follows: CMV − subscription price / Number of rights to purchase 1 share + 1. Therefore one right is valued at $10, computed as ($70 − $50) / 2 = $10.

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8
Q

ABC Corporation, whose common stock is trading at $32, has issued $40 million of 8-1/8% debentures due 10-1-14. Each bond issued with a $1,000 PAR value has a warrant attached enabling the holder to buy 4 shares of ABC common at $40 per share. If all of the warrants are exercised, ABC Corporation will receive:

A. $20 million.
B. $12.8 million
C. $10 million
D. $6.4 million

A

D. $6.4 million

There are a total of 40,000 warrants outstanding ($40 million of debentures / $1,000 par value per bond). Each warrant entitles the holder to buy 4 shares of common stock. Therefore, if all warrants are exercised, holders will be purchasing 160,000 shares (4 × 40,000) at $40 per share. 160,000 × $40 = $6.4 million.

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9
Q

Dividends may be paid to holders of:

A. rights
B. American depositary receipts.
C. warrants
D. treasury stock

A

B. American depositary receipts.

American depositary receipt (ADR) owners have most of the rights common stockholders normally hold. One of these includes the right to receive dividends when declared. Rights and warrants allow holders to purchase stock from a corporation and treasury stock is stock that has been issued by the corporation and then bought back. Neither rights, warrants or treasury stock holders have the right to receive dividends.

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10
Q

The ex-date for NYSE-listed issues is set by:

A. the NYSE
B. the SEC
C. FINRA
D. the issuer

A

A. the NYSE

The ex-date is set by the market where the security principally trades.

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11
Q

Stockholders’ preemptive rights include the right to:

A. sell stock back to the issuing corporation.
B. maintain proportionate ownership interest in the corporation.
C. serve as an officer on the board of directors.
D. purchase treasury stock.

A

B. maintain proportionate ownership interest in the corporation

Preemptive rights allow stockholders to maintain their proportionate ownership when the corporation wants to issue more stock. For example, if a stockholder owns 5% of the outstanding stock and the corporation wants to issue more stock, the stockholder has the right to purchase 5% of the new shares.

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12
Q

The ex-dividend date is the
I. date on and after which the buyer is entitled to the dividend
II. date on and after which the seller is entitled to the dividend
III.one business day before the record date
IV.one business day after the record date

A. II and III
B. I and II
C. II and IV
D. I and IV

A

A. II and III

Stock sold on the ex-dividend date entitles the seller to the dividend; ex-date is one business day before the record date.

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13
Q

The last day that stocks can be bought for cash and still receive the dividend is

A. on the ex-date
B. the day after the record date
C. the record date
D. the business day prior to the regular way ex-date

A

A. on the ex-date

A cash trade settles the same day. Stocks bought for cash on the record date will be entitled to the dividend.

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14
Q

Which of the following statements regarding ADRs are TRUE?
I. Dividends are payable in the underlying foreign currency.
II. Dividends are payable in U.S. dollars.
III. Holders have voting rights.
IV. Holders do not have voting rights.

A. I and IV.
B. I and III.
C. II and IV.
D. II and III.

A

D. II and III

The holder of an ADR does not hold the shares of the underlying security but instead holds a receipt for those shares and therefore does not have voting rights. ADRs are U.S. securities traded in U.S. markets in U.S. dollars, with dividends payable in U.S. dollars as well.

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15
Q

Holders of common shares may generally vote on:

A. which member of the board of directors should be chairman.
B. whether the company should issue additional preferred stock
C. whether an administrative assistant should be promoted to management.
D. whether a cash dividend is to be declared.

A

A. which member of the board of directors should be chairman.

Common shareholders must vote to approve the issuance of additional preferred stock because additional preferred shares dilute the common shares’ residual assets under a liquidation. Common shareholders do not vote to declare dividends. Board members select the chairman of the board. Shareholders do not get involved in the daily operational activity of the corporation.

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16
Q
Which of the following must be paid before a corporation may pay its cumulative preferred stock arrearages?
I. This year's preferred dividends.
II. Bond interest.
III. Corporate taxes.
IV. Common stock dividends.

A. I and IV
B. II and IV
C. I and III
D. II and III

A

D. II and III

Before paying any dividends, the corporation must pay wages, taxes, and both interest and principal on debts that are due. Once the debt obligations have been satisfied, it may pay arrearages on cumulative preferred stock, then current fixed dividends on preferred stock, and finally common dividends.

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17
Q

If a customer holds certificates of beneficial interest in a REIT, each of the following statements regarding this investment is true EXCEPT:

A. investors receive dividends periodically
B.a mortgage REIT represents pooled capital for real estate financing
C. the certificates are publicly traded.
D. the issuer must redeem certificates on shareholder request.

A

C. the certificates are publicly traded.

REITs are not redeemed by the issuer. REITS are publicly traded units that represent either an interest in pooled capital for real estate financing or an interest in real property and that pass through income and capital gains distributions to investors. Investors who wish to liquidate their interests must sell them in the secondary market.

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18
Q

If an investor is anticipating that the yield spread between U.S. government and BBB-rated corporate bonds will widen, the investor is expecting the U.S. economy to:

A. remain flat over the coming months.
B. experience volatility over the coming months.
C. enter a recession over the coming months.
D. expand over the coming months.

A

C. enter a recession over the coming months.

If investors anticipate a recession, they tend to flee to quality. In this case, they would likely sell lower quality corporate bonds (forcing prices down and yields up) and use the proceeds to buy higher quality U.S. government bonds (forcing prices up and yields down). Thus, the yield spread would widen between corporate and government bonds. Yields on corporate bonds are higher than yields on U.S. government bonds to begin with. If yields on corporate bonds go up and yields on government bonds decline, the spread will widen.

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19
Q

Long term securities issued by municipalities that use a Dutch auction method to reset short term interest rates known as “clearing rates” are:

A. American Depositary Receipts (ADRs).
B. Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs).
C. Auction Rate Securities (ARSs).
D. Collateralized Mortgage Obligations (CMOs).

A

C. Auction Rate Securities (ARSs).

Auction Rate Securities (ARSs) are long term securities issued by municipalities that use a Dutch auction to reset interest rates at short term intervals. The reset rate is known as the “clearing rate” and establishes the rate paid during the period following the auction.

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20
Q

In a municipal underwriting, the interest cost calculation discounts future interest payments to arrive at present value. This interest cost calculation method is the:

A. net interest cost.
B. simple interest cost.
C. relative interest cost.
D. true interest cost.

A

D. true interest cost.

When an issuer discounts future interest payments to arrive at present value, the interest cost method being used is the true interest cost (TIC). This method takes into consideration the time value of money.

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21
Q

A quote of 6.20 bid 6.18 offered would most likely be a quote on a:

A. T-bill.
B. T-bond.
C. GO bond.
D. Ginnie Mae bond.

A

A. T-bill.

Discounted instruments (such as T-bills) are quoted on a discount yield basis. Even though the number representing the bid is higher than the ask, it would be lower when converted into dollars. The greater the yield, the lower the price.

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22
Q

All of the following statements describe stock rights EXCEPT:

A. they are short-term instruments that become worthless after the expiration date.
B. they are traded in the secondary market.
C. they are issued by a corporation.
D. they are most commonly offered with debentures to make the offering more attractive.

A

D. they are most commonly offered with debentures to make the offering more attractive.

A corporation issues rights to existing shareholders to allow them to purchase enough stock, within a short period and at less than current market price, to maintain their proportionate interest in the company. Rights need not be exercised but may be traded in the secondary market. Warrants, not rights, are often issued with debentures to sweeten the offering.

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23
Q

Which of the following does NOT issue commercial paper?

A. Commercial bank
B. Broker/dealer.
C. Corporation.
D. Finance company.

A

A. Commercial bank

Commercial banks do not issue commercial paper. The commercial paper market was developed to circumvent banks so that corporations could lend to, and borrow from, each other more economically. Commercial paper is unsecured, short-term corporate debt.

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24
Q

All of the following are true of stripped Treasury bonds EXCEPT

A. interest is received at maturity
B. interest is not taxed
C. they are backed by the U.S. government
D. they are a form of zero-coupon bond

A

B. interest is not taxed

Stripped U.S. Treasury bonds sell at a deep discount and mature at par like zero-coupon bonds. The gain the investor receives is treated as interest, which is taxed as ordinary income. They are fully backed by the U.S. government.

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25
Q

All of the following might lead to an industrial development bond being called EXCEPT:

A. the municipality is approaching a statutory debt limit.
B. funds are available in the surplus account to call the bond.
C. interest rates are falling.
D. the facility is destroyed by a storm.

A

A. the municipality is approaching a statutory debt limit.

An issuer of industrial development revenue bonds is likely to call bonds to reduce interest costs when interest rates are falling, discontinue interest payments if the facility is destroyed by a natural disaster, or reduce debt if funds are available in a surplus account. Industrial development revenue bonds are not affected by issuer’s statutory debt limits as they affect the issuance of GO bonds only.

26
Q

A municipal securities principal must approve all of the following EXCEPT:

A. legal opinions.
B. each transaction in municipal securities.
C. the handling of written customer complaints.
D. the opening of new customer accounts.

A

A. legal opinions.

Municipal securities principals are required to approve all new customer accounts, all municipal transactions, and the handling of customer complaints. Legal opinions are prepared by bond counsel to determine the authority of an issuer and tax treatment of new municipal issues.

27
Q

For the underwriting of a municipal bond issue, competitive bids are submitted by underwriters as a:

A. firm commitment.
B. best efforts underwriting commitment.
C. all or none commitment.
D. standby underwriting commitment.

A

A. firm commitment.

For new municipal bond issues underwriters must submit bids for the entire bond offering; a firm commitment. Standby commitments are used only for corporate stock rights offerings. Best efforts commitments are used for corporate securities and an all or none commitment is a type of best efforts commitment.

28
Q

All of the following are derivative securities EXCEPT:

A. general obligation bonds.
B. warrants to purchase publicly traded common stock.
C. equity options.
D. collateralized mortgage obligations.

A

A. general obligation bonds.

A derivative security is one whose value is dependent on (derived from) the value of another security. The value of an equity option is derived from the value of the underlying stock as is the value of a warrant. The value of a CMO is derived from the values of the underlying mortgages.

29
Q

Your customer is in a bullish market. If he buys 1 Jul 490 call on the XMI, which of the following options might he write to create a debit spread?

I. Jul 485 call
II. Jul 480 call
III. Jul 500 call
IV. Jul 505 call

A. I only
B. I and II
C. II, III, and IV
D. III and IV

A

D. III and IV

If the customer sold either a 500 call or a 505 call, he would have a debit spread because he has purchased the more expensive call - the one with the lower strike price. The customer would create a credit spread by selling the 480 call or the 485 call. Because they have lower strike prices, they would be more expensive than the 490 call.

30
Q

A customer writes 2 ABC July 15 puts at 2 when ABC is 14. If the contracts are closed at a premium of 4 when ABC is 13, the customer has a:

A. $400 gain.
B. $200 gain.
C. $200 loss.
D. $400 loss.

A

D. $400 loss.

The investor receives $400 in premiums (2 × $200) and pays $800 to close out the options (2 × $400), resulting in a net loss of $400 ($800 − $400).

31
Q

A customer establishes the following positions:

Buy 100 ABC at 28
Buy 1 ABC Dec 25 put at 2

What is the breakeven point?

A. 27
B. 30
C. 23
D. 26

A

B. 30

The breakeven point is where an investor neither makes nor loses money. In this hedged position, the buyer must recover the cost of the stock and the premium paid to break even (28 + 2 = 30).

32
Q

Under FINRA rules, customers who are approved to trade options must receive a copy of the OCC Disclosure Booklet:

A. at the time of or before the mailing of the confirmation representing the first options trade.
B. at the time of or before the mailing of the next monthly statement.
C. at the time of or before account approval.
D. within 15 days of account approval.

A

C. at the time of or before account approval.

All customers who are approved by the ROP to trade options must receive a copy of the OCC Disclosure Booklet at or before the time the account is approved to trade options.

33
Q

A customer establishes the following positions:

Buy 100 ABC for 63
Write 1 ABC Jan 70 call for 1

What is the customer’s maximum gain?

A. 800
B. 700
C. Unlimited
D. 600

A

A. 800

Maximum gain on the covered call position occurs when the stock’s market value rises. The short call is exercised when the stock is above 70, so the stock bought for 63 will be sold for 70-a profit of $7 per share. In addition, the customer receives the premium of $1, so the total profit is $800 ($700 + $100).

34
Q

Which of the following is a bull spread?

A. Long August 30 call, short August 25 call
B. Short August 40 call, short August 40 put
C. Long May 40 put, short May 35 put
D. Long July 30 put, short July 35 put

A

D. Long July 30 put, short July 35 put

A debit call spread is bullish and a credit put spread is bullish. Long July 30 put, short July 35 put is the only bullish position in the answer choices. Short August 40 call, short August 40 put is a short straddle, not a spread, and the remaining two positions are bearish; long August 30 call, short August 25 call and long May 40 put, short May 35 put.

35
Q

In a strong bull market, which of the following positions utilizing leverage has the potential for the highest percentage gain?

A. Holding stocks.
B. Selling short.
C. Holding calls.
D. Writing puts.

A

C. Holding calls.

Both a long call and a long stock position are profitable in a rising market. However, because options use leverage, the profit relative to the money invested is larger with option positions. A put writer also profits in a rising market, but only by the amount of the premium. A short seller loses money if the stock rises.

36
Q

A stock selling for $62 is expected to decline temporarily in price, but the long-term trend is favorable. To take advantage of the temporary decline and generate income, the stockholder should:

A. sell a put.
B. sell a call.
C. buy a put.
D. buy a call.

A

B. sell a call.

The sale of a call allows the investor to collect premiums. Because he owns the stock, the option is covered and no margin is required. Alternatively, the investor could buy a put to move more in-the-money as the stock price falls temporarily. He could later liquidate the put at a profit, but buying a put would not generate income.

37
Q
A client writes 1 Dec 45 put and buys 1 Dec 60 put. This is a:
I. bull spread.
II. bear spread.
III. debit spread.
IV. credit spread.

A. II and III.
B. I and IV.
C. I and III.
D. II and IV.

A

A. II and III.

This is a put debit spread, and bears buy puts. The 60 put is worth more because it has a higher strike price.

38
Q

Your client sells 1 naked MAV Oct 40 call at 2 when the market price of MAV is $41. What must MAV be selling at for the client to break even?

A. 42
B. 40
C. 38
D. 43

A

A. 42

The breakeven point for a call is the strike price plus the premium. The breakeven point is the same for both the buyer and writer.

39
Q
Which of the following positions subject an investor to unlimited risk?
I. Short naked call.
II. Short naked put.
III. Long put.
IV. Short sale of stock.

A. I and II.
B. I and IV.
C. I and III.
D. II and III.

A

B. I and IV.

Short stock and short naked calls subject an investor to unlimited risk because there is no limit on how high a stock’s price might rise. Risk is limited for the other positions.

40
Q

All of the following option contracts are in-the-money when XYZ is 54 EXCEPT:

A. short XYZ 50 put.
B. short XYZ 45 call.
C. long XYZ 60 put.
D. long XYZ 50 call.

A

A. short XYZ 50 put.

Call options are in-the-money whenever the market price is greater than the strike price. Put options are in-the-money whenever the market price is lower than the strike price.

41
Q
A client buys 1 Jul 50 call and writes 1 Jul 60 call. This is a:
I. bull spread.
II. bear spread.
III. debit spread.
IV. credit spread.

A. II and IV.
B. I and IV.
C. II and III.
D. I and III.

A

D. I and III.

This is a call debit spread, and bulls buy calls. The 50 call is worth more because it has a lower strike price. Long the lower call is bullish; short the lower call is bearish.

42
Q
Ratio call writing exposes an options investor to 
I. limited loss
II. unlimited loss
III. limited gain
IV. unlimited gain

A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. II and IV

A

B. II and III

Ratio call writers assume unlimited loss potential in a rising market, and limited gain potential in a falling market. Maximum gain-while limited-occurs if the stock is trading at the strike price of the short calls at expiration

43
Q

An investor has an established margin account with a short market value of $8,000 and a credit balance of $13,000, with Regulation T at 50%. A maintenance call would be triggered if the short market value increased above

A. $9,000
B. $10,000
C. $13,000
D. $8,000

A

A. $9,000

To find short market value at maintenance, divide the credit balance of $13,000 by 1.3 ($10,000).

44
Q

A short sale of stock will be marked to market

A. monthly
B. weekly
C. daily
D. once each year on the last business day of the year

A

C. daily

All positions, long or short, are marked to market daily.

45
Q

An investor’s portfolio includes 10 bonds and 200 shares of common stock. If both positions increase by one point, what is the appreciation?

A. $100
B. $210
C. $300
D. $220

A

C. $300

The gain would be $100 for the bonds (one point for one bond is $10 × 10 bonds) and $200 for the common stock (one point is $1 × 200 shares). The total portfolio gain is $300.

46
Q
If a customer writes 2 ABC Feb 90 puts at 8 and buys 2 ABC Feb 80 puts at 2, which of the following statements are TRUE? 
I.The spread is bullish.
II.The spread is bearish.
III.The breakeven point is 84.
IV.The breakeven point is 86.

A. I and IV
B. II and IV
C. II and III
D. I and III

A

D. I and III

This is a credit put spread (the net credit being 6 points per share) in which the breakeven point is calculated by subtracting the net premium (debit or credit) from the higher strike price (90 - 6 = 84). A credit put spread is like the net sale of a put, and buying the lower strike price in any spread (put or call) is bullish.

47
Q

When an investment banker is successful on a competitive bid corporate underwriting in which they agree to purchase the shares from the issuer, the underwriters will be handling the offering as

A. an all or none
B. a firm commitment
C. a standby underwriter
D. a best efforts

A

B. a firm commitment

An underwriting is known as a firm commitment when the investment banking firm (underwriters) winning the competitive bid have agreed to purchase the entire issue from the issuing corporation with the obligation to resell to the public.

48
Q

A customer has the following accounts:

Market value: long account $35,000; short account $40,000
Balance: long account (DR) $23,000; short account (CR) $60,000
SMA: long account $3,000
Regulation T: 50%

What is the equity in the combined account?

A. $32,000
B. $35,000
C. $8,000
D. $75,000

A

B. $35,000

Combined equity is found with the following equation: LMV plus CR minus DR minus SMV equals combined equity, or $35,000 plus $60,000 minus $23,000 minus $40,000 equals $32,000. SMA has no impact on the combined equity.

49
Q

Which of the following statements about warrants is NOT true?

A. Warrants may not be traded in the secondary market
B. Warrants have longer lifetimes than rights.
C. Warrants have an exercise price above the current market price of the common stock when issued.
D. Warrants may be attached to another of the issuer’s securities.

A

A. Warrants may not be traded in the secondary market

Warrants usually have lifetimes of 2-10 years; rights expire in 30-45 days. A corporation may attach warrants to other securities, such as bonds, to make the bonds more marketable. Warrants have no intrinsic value when issued and may expire without ever having intrinsic value. Before expiration, they may be, and often are, traded in the secondary market.

50
Q

A sale made at a profit from a customer’s margin account would do all of the following EXCEPT

A. increase SMA
B. reduce market value
C. increase equity
D. decrease debit balance

A

C. increase equity

Proceeds from the sale of stock are applied against the debit balance. This reduces the debit at the same rate as the CMV, leaving equity the same. The customer still has the right to withdraw at least some of the proceeds, which would reduce equity; but until a withdrawal is made, the equity remains the same.

51
Q

Each of the following securities are issued with a fixed rate of return EXCEPT

A. preferred stock
B. bonds
C. common stock
D. convertible preferred stock

A

C. common stock

Bonds and preferred stock are issued with a stated payment in interest or dividends, respectively. Common stockholders are entitled to receive a variable distribution of profits if a dividend is declared.

52
Q

The Securities Act of 1933 exempts all of the following securities EXCEPT

A. U.S. government debt issues
B. real estate investment trusts
C. municipal securities issues
D. savings and loan issues

A

B. real estate investment trusts

REITs are nonexempt securities that must be registered with the SEC.

53
Q

Under MSRB rules, a final official statement must be

A. sent to customers on or before trade date
B. delivered to customers on or before trade date
C. delivered to customers on or before settlement date
D. sent to customers on or before settlement date

A

C. delivered to customers on or before settlement date

MSRB Rule G-32 requires that a final official statement be delivered to buyers of the new issue on or before the settlement date.

54
Q

A company without business operations that raises money through an IPO in order to have its shares publicly traded for the sole purpose of seeking out a business or combination of businesses is known as

A. a regulation D, Private Placement company
B. a growth company
C. a special purpose acquisition company (SPAC)
D. a special situation company

A

C. a special purpose acquisition company (SPAC)

Generally, with IPOs the business purpose and products or services offered by a company are clearly defined. However, both the NYSE and Nasdaq allow companies without a defined business purpose to raise capital through an IPO in order to have its shares traded for the sole purpose of seeking out a business or combination of businesses that when located would be submitted to shareholders for their approval. These types of companies are known as special purpose acquisition companies (SPACs).

55
Q

LMN Securities is the managing underwriter for a new issue of one million MIC common shares. LMN has agreed to sell as much stock as possible in the market, and MIC has agreed to take back any unsold shares. If MIC has not specified a minimum amount of capital for LMN to raise, this is what type of offering?

A. Best efforts
B. All-or-none
C. Standby
D. Contingency

A

A. Best efforts

In a best efforts underwriting, any stock that remains unsold is returned to the issuing corporation.

56
Q

Sally is the named beneficiary of her grandmother’s IRA. After the death of her grandmother who was 80 years old, which of the following would apply for Sally regarding the IRA?

A. Take minimum required distributions based on Sally’s life expectancy.
B. Roll over her grandmother’s money into Sally’s own IRA.
C. Wait until age 59½ to begin taking distributions, to avoid the 10% tax penalty.
D. Wait until age 70½, to maximize tax deferral, and then begin required minimum distributions.

A

A. Take minimum required distributions based on Sally’s life expectancy.

Before age 80, Sally’s grandmother would have already begun mandatory distributions. When someone inherits an IRA for which the initial owner has begun mandatory distributions, payout must continue but is now based on the life expectancy of the new owner.

57
Q

Which statements are TRUE regarding contribution limits?
I. The contribution limit to a Coverdell ESA can be reduced or eliminated for high-income individuals.
II. The contribution limit to a Coverdell ESA cannot be reduced or eliminated for high-income individuals.
III. The contribution limit to a Section 529 plan can be reduced or eliminated for high-income individuals.
IV. The contribution limit to a Section 529 plan cannot be reduced or eliminated for high-income individuals.

A. II and IV
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I and IV

A

D. I and IV

The after-tax contribution limit of $2,000 can be reduced or eliminated for high-income taxpayers. However, there are no income limitations placed on individuals opening Section 529 plans.

58
Q

Which of the following retirement plans is NOT legally required to establish vesting, funding, and eligibility requirements?

A. Payroll deduction plan
B. Keogh plan
C. Defined benefit pension plan
D. Profit-sharing plan

A

A. Payroll deduction plan

A payroll deduction plan is a retirement plan not subject to eligibility, vesting, or funding standards as required by ERISA plans. A payroll deduction plan is a nonqualified retirement plan. Profit-sharing, pension, and Keogh plans must have established standards.

59
Q

The income level of a donor
I. may affect contributions into a Coverdell ESA
II. will NOT affect contributions into a Coverdell ESA
III. may affect contributions into a Section 529 plan
IV. will NOT affect contributions into a Section 529 plan

A. I and III
B. II and IV
C. II and III
D. I and IV

A

D. I and IV

Contributions into a Coverdell ESA are phased out at high income levels, whereas the income level of a donor has no impact on contributions made into a Section 529 plan.

60
Q

A customer has invested a total of $10,000 in a nonqualified deferred annuity through a payroll deduction plan offered by the school system where he works. The annuity contract is currently valued at $16,000, and he plans to retire. On what amount will the customer be taxed if he chooses a lump-sum withdrawal?

A. He will not owe taxes because the annuity was nonqualified
B. 10,000
C. 16,000
D. 6,000

A

D. 6,000

Payments into a nonqualified deferred annuity are made with after-tax money; taxes must only be paid on the earnings of $6,000.

61
Q

Your customer has a Coverdell Education Savings Account for each of four preteen daughters. What is the maximum amount of pretax contributions that he can make to each ESA?

A. 8000
B. 2000
C. 0
D. 500

A

C. 0

Pretax contributions cannot be made to Coverdell ESAs. The customer is allowed to make a $2,000 after-tax contribution annually for each student until their 18th birthday.