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E175 Study Items > Questions > Flashcards

Questions Flashcards

1
Q

To open the MCD from the inside the cabin durning normal operations, first one must?

A

Lift the vent flap and escape slide levers, then lift the main handle.

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2
Q

Which cargo compartment is used to transport live animals?

A

FWD compartment only.

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3
Q

The SOPM prohibits the Captain from operating the Taxi lights?

A

False

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4
Q

For collision avoidance taxi lights MUST be turned ON on arrival passing through 18,000’?

A

False

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5
Q

The charge of the ELPU batteries is sufficient to supply all emergency lights for approximately?

A

10 minutes

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6
Q

The SOPM says that thrust reversers should be used on?

A

Wet, Slippery, or contaminated runways

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7
Q

Select the ignition to OVRD……?

A

As directed by the QRH

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8
Q

On landing, thrust reversers should be in MIN by……kts and stowed (idle thrust) by …….kts (unless needed to stop the aircraft)

A

60, 30

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9
Q

If the engine flames out in flight, the FADEC will attempt an auto relight?

A

True

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10
Q

When the FADEC aborts a start, the first thing the pilot must do is?

A

Perform the “engine abnormal start” memory item.

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11
Q

(APU) Ground reset procedures can be done independently by the pilots. There is no need to call maintenance control.

A

False

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12
Q

The maximum altitude that the APU can be started is?

A

FL300

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13
Q

When the APU EMER Stop button is pressed….

A

The APU fuel SOV is closed

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14
Q

The APU EMER stop button will illuminate red when….

A

An APU fire is detected

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15
Q

When is the APU EMER stop button pressed?

A

As directed by the QRC or QRH

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16
Q

With EC fuel pump one in auto, when will system logic turn the fuel pump on?

A

Engine number one starting
X feed selected too low to
Main ejector pump fails

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17
Q

A call to maintenance is required to determine the fuel quantity use in the MLIs

A

True

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18
Q

When does the fuel tank quality indicators turn amber

A

1320

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19
Q

With AC fuel pump two in auto, when will system logic turn the pump on?

A

Engine two is starting
X feed selected to low one
APU starting
Main ejector pump fails

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20
Q

A fuel imbalance caution message on Eicas indicates an imbalance of blank pounds or more between the two main tanks

A

794

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21
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage required for normal operations?

A

22.5

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22
Q

After turning BATT 1 & 2 to ON and AUTO in the Safety and Power Up Checklist, you notice that display unit 1, 2 and 3 are powered. What should you do?

A

Call Maintanence

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23
Q

You arrive to the airplane for an early morning departure. After establishing AC power, you see that the ATIS is reporting an OAT of -20 degrees Celsius. You notice that your PFDs are displaying airspeed information and you have an AFCS FAULT message on EICAS. Should you immediately call maintenance?

A

No, follow the ADSP procedure in the SOPM for frozen contamination removal

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24
Q

What visual indications signify a successful fire test?

A
  • 6 red overhead lights (2 engine fire handles, Fwd and Aft Cargo SmokeButtons, APU Fire Button, APU Emergency Stop).
  • 5 red EICAS messages (“ENG 1/2 FIRE”,” APU FIRE”, “CRG FWD/AFT SMOKE”).
  • 2 glareshield warning lights, and 2 “FIRE” icons on the ITT gauges.
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25
Q

While performing the external inspection, the APU suddenly shuts down and you notice smoke coming out of the tail cone. It takes you 60 seconds to get from the rear of the aircraft, up the jet bridge, and back to the flight deck. Once in the flight deck, what do you expect to see?

A

The APU Fire Extinguishing button illuminated red

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26
Q

You are sitting at the gate with a GPU powering the aircraft. The GPU suddenly comes unplugged, what should you do?

A

Power down the aircraft using the Leaving the Airplane Checklist then power back up using the Safety and Power Up Checklist.

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27
Q

On the Safety and Power Up Checklist, what does the SOPM say to check prior to initiating the fire system test?

A

No fire protection fail messages are displayed on EICAS

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28
Q

What will you do if the electrical portion of the flight control PBIT is interrupted?

A

You may continue as long as “FLT CTRL BIT EXPIRED” message is not displayed.

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29
Q

What interrupts the hydraulic PBIT test?

A

Flight control movement.

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30
Q

On a winter morning in Calgary, you arrive to a cold soaked airplane. The hydraulic reservoir temp is -19 degrees C. What are your options to get home?

A

Accomplish a Hydraulic System Warm-up.

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31
Q

On the Status page, if the crew oxygen indicator is ______, sufficient oxygen is available for up to 3 flight deck members. If the crew oxygen indicator is ______, sufficient oxygen is available for ONLY 2 flight deck members.

A

Green, cyan.

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32
Q

Where does a passenger with an infant in arms need to be seated?

A

Either Side

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33
Q

The CLR indicates there is a live animal in the cargo. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A

The animal must be placed in the forward cargo compartment.

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34
Q

The ramp agent brings you a CLR with the weights listed below. What adjustments, if any, must be made to stay within aircraft limits?
Fwd Cargo: 3,400 lbs Aft Cargo: 2,800 lbs

A

Reduce the Fwd Cargo to no more than 3,306 lbs and the Aft Cargo to no more than 2,535 lbs.

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35
Q

Using a DC GPU can substitute for both batteries to start the APU.

A

False

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36
Q

While attempting an engine start, the FADEC automatically aborts for a hung start. After performing the Engine Abnormal Start memory item, the SOPM states you must reference start abort procedures before you can attempt another start. In what section of the QRH would you find this information?

A

Non-Annunciated

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37
Q

What would cause a red light for the tug driver prior to pushback?

A
  • The external steering disengage switch in the engaged position
  • Steering off
  • Brakes off
  • Feet off tow brakes
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38
Q

While the First Officer is performing a cross-bleed start, what is the minimum duct pressure required?

A

40psi

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39
Q

During cold weather operations if no oil pressure indication is displayed by the time idle RPM is achieved, what is the appropriate response?

A

Perform an immediate shutdown

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40
Q

According to the QRH, what consideration must be made in regard to a single engine taxi with the engine #2?

A

Turn HYD ELEC PUMP 1 ON.

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41
Q

During an engine start with a tailwind there is no positive N1 increase before starter cutout. What is the appropriate action?

A

Perform the ENGINE ABNORMAL START memory item.

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42
Q

If you decide to dry motor an engine after an abnormal start, how long must you wait between the dry motor and the second start attempt?

A

5 Min

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43
Q

After starting engine #1 with the APU still running what source(s) is/are powering the electrical system?

A

Both IDG 1 and the APU gen.

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44
Q

After engine start you turn the APU knob to OFF only to realize that you need it for takeoff performance. You must wait for the 1-minute cool down period to restart the APU.

A

False

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45
Q

If there is no ITT indication within ____ after engine start, the start should be manually aborted.

A

30 seconds

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46
Q

After starting engine #1, the Captain calls “Flaps 2, APU off, Flight Control Check”. What EICAS message(s) should you be aware of before completing the After Start Checklist flow?

A

FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG

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47
Q

If performing the flight controls check with one engine operating, checking one surface at a time will avoid spurious FLT CONTROL NO DISPATCH messages.

A

True

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48
Q

A “FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG” message will appear after starting engine #1 and after the parking brake is released. What does it indicate?

A

The hydraulic portion of the flight control PBIT is in progress.

49
Q

If deicing is anticipated, the after start checklist will be deferred until after deicing is complete.

A

True

50
Q

APU shutdown can only be performed after confirmation of power transfer. What are the two ways to confirm this transfer?

A

View the Electrical Synoptic Page or wait 30 seconds after N2 stabilizes.

51
Q

Which engine is recommended to be started for a single engine taxi and why?

A

Engine #1. Hydraulic ACMP 2 will automatically come on with the left engine running, the parking brake off, and the knob in AUTO

52
Q

When should you not single engine taxi?

A
  • Ramp/Taxiway surface contamination
  • Taxi time to/from a runway is < 5 minutes
  • Airport-specific regulations prohibit single engine taxi
53
Q

During a cross-bleed engine start, you must monitor the ECS Synoptic page to verify duct pressure.

A

False

54
Q

While taxiing, the Captain calls “Start Engine 2”. The FO turns the Powerplant START/STOP selector from STOP to RUN. Before selecting to START, the FA calls to advise there is a passenger out of their seat. After about a minute, the situation is resolved and the FO moves the START/STOP selector to START but nothing happens. What should the FO do?

A

Return powerplant selector to STOP, then RUN, then START to reset the system

55
Q

What is an operational difference with carbon brakes?

A

Carbon brakes wear less than steel brakes when operated at high temperatures and fewer applications

56
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the nose wheel steering?

A

2

57
Q

What system configuration does the “TAKEOFF OK” aural not verify?

A

Engines

58
Q

If the Ice Protection switch is in AUTO and the system is selected OFF in the MCDU, when is the earliest the ice protection system will come on?

A

At 1,700’ AGL or 2 minutes after liftoff, whichever occurs first.

59
Q

After runway heading verification while in position, the Captain arms the auto throttles and both pilots should silently verify the correct modes are displayed in the FMA. What should be displayed?

A

White TO (bottom left A/T field), Green ROLL (upper lateral field) and Green TO (upper vertical field)

60
Q

During the Before Takeoff Checklist below the line, the FO notices the brake temps are amber. Can you depart?

A

No, we cannot depart with amber brake temp indications.

61
Q

With the thrust levers at TOGA, when will ATTCS command RSV thrust?

A
  • Difference between both engine N1 values greater than 15%.
  • One engine failure during takeoff or go-around.
  • Windshear detection.
62
Q

What is the job of the PTU?

A

The PTU assists landing gear retraction or extension, should the right engine or right EDP fail.

63
Q

On takeoff, when do the auto-throttles engage?

A

When thrust levers are beyond 50 degrees TLA.

64
Q

On takeoff you encounter windshear and the thrust rating has changed to TOx-RSV. The PF is not required to move the thrust levers to the MAX position.

A

False

65
Q

During takeoff, you experience an engine failure at V1. You accomplish the actions and callouts per the SOPM. At acceleration altitude (1000ft AFE) and reaching VFS you call “CONTINUOUS, BANK OFF”. How do you set engine thrust to continuous?

A

Press the TRS button on MCDU, select CON.

66
Q

LNAV may be armed on the ground prior to takeoff

A

True

67
Q

After takeoff you are unable to move the gear handle? When should you use the “DN LOCK REL” button?

A

When needed to retract the landing gear for obstacle clearance.

68
Q

In response to the PF saying “CHECK THRUST,” what should the PM verify prior to saying “THRUST CHECKED”?

A

N1 has reached N1 target, ATTCS is green, and engine parameters are normal.

69
Q

While hand-flying a departure, you feel an unusual amount of nose up pressure and suspect runaway trim. What should you do?

A

A/P Disc Button – PRESS AND HOLD, Pitch Trim Systems 1 and 2 Cutout Button – PUSH I

70
Q

After takeoff you observe an “AI WING VLV OPEN” status message. What does this likely mean?

A

This is a normal test after every takeoff.

71
Q

Someone is attempting to gain access to the cockpit using the EMERG ENTRY pushbutton on the door control panel in the cabin. How much time do you have to press the INHIB button before the door unlocks?

A

30 seconds.

72
Q

In the event of an engine fire or other severe malfunction, the only way to shut off the engine fuel shutoff valves is with the engine fire extinguishing handles.

A

True.

73
Q

During the “Climb Sequence” what is the flap retraction schedule for a flaps 2 takeoff?

A

Retract flaps using the F-BUG.

74
Q

What is the most likely meaning of an EICAS message with a chevron next to it?

A

Addressing this item first will likely clear other related messages.

75
Q

If the FO’s ADS (Air Data System) fails, what is the reversionary logic?

A

Automatic reversion to ADS 3.

76
Q

It is possible to have a “FUEL 1 (2) LO LEVEL” EICAS warning message with more than 660 lbs. in a tank.

A

True

77
Q

On a flight from LAX to PDX, the PDC tells you to expect FL380 as a final cruise altitude. While enroute, ATC assigns a final altitude of FL360. What considerations should you make in regards to the pressurization system?

A

Change the cruise altitude in the MCDU to FL360 to lengthen the lifespan of the airframe

78
Q

If you have a dual ice detector failure, you will lose anti-ice protection.

A

False

79
Q

While cruising at your selected altitude of FL350, your FMA shows ALT as the active vertical mode and your active auto throttle mode will show SPDe.

A

False

80
Q

While cruising at FL410, you get a master caution light and “PACK 1 FAIL” EICAS message. The associated QRH procedure was unsuccessful in restoring the pack. What is the maximum altitude you may cruise at?

A

FL310

81
Q

Under what conditions will the FADEC shut down the APU in flight?

A

Overspeed, underspeed, FADEC critical fault.

82
Q

In the manual pressurization mode which statement is true when you push the DUMP button?

A

The recirculation fans and PACKS turn off.

83
Q

In an electrical emergency with the RAT deployed, which electric fuel pump(s) are operational in addition to the engine driven pumps?

A

AC Pump 2, DC pump.

84
Q

In a dual engine failure situation the QRH will direct you to select the XFEED to LOW 1. Why?

A

To ensure that AC Pump 2 is on and fuel can be supplied to either engine.

85
Q

What is the Stabilizer Trim priority logic?

A

Backup, Captain, FO, FCM.

86
Q

When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy and how long will they provide oxygen?

A

Cabin altitude between 14,000 – 14,750 ft / 12 min.

87
Q

If a fuel imbalance develops, how should you correct the abnormality?

A

Cross-feed fuel by selecting the low side with the XFEED knob.

88
Q

If you believe you have a non-annunciated cargo fire in-flight, how many times will you need to push the Associated Cargo Fire Extinguishing Button for both the high- rate and low-rate bottles to discharge?

A

2

89
Q

While flying at FL 330, one engine flames out, “ENG 1 FAIL” shows on the EICAS and the engine doesn’t relight. At what altitude during the drift-down can you start the APU as directed by the QRH?

A

FL300

90
Q

With the APU off, what happens if both IDGs fail?

A

-The RAT deploys automatically and, after 8 seconds, supplies power to the
AC ESS BUS.
-The batteries power the DC ESS BUSES and the STANDBY AC BUS via the
inverter during the 8 second RAT deployment.
-Once the RAT deploys, DC ESS BUSES are powered thought the ESS TRU.

91
Q

On the CREDE arrival into Denver you were assigned 300kts or greater until advised. Descending through FL210 you experience moderate to severe turbulence. What speed must you slow to?

A

270 kts.

92
Q

You are level at FL 250 with the altitude pre-select set for 12,000, and push the DES NOW option on the MCDU. What will the flight director command?

A

An initial descent of 1,000 FPM.

93
Q

What does the green dot on the PFD airspeed tape represent?

A

Indicates the driftdown speed when flaps are up, and the ideal flap extension speed for the current aircraft weight.

94
Q

In an electrical emergency, how long are the batteries capable of supplying essential systems to the airplane?

A

10 min

95
Q

What consideration should be given during an approach with the EICAS message “STALL PROT ICE SPEED” displayed?

A

Reference Green Dot. It automatically adjusts for icing conditions.

96
Q

You are expecting to land on Runway 16R at KDEN and the ATIS is calling winds 160/16G22. If Vref for your aircraft weight is 130, what is the correct Vap speed to set in the MCDU?

A

144

97
Q

The ERJ 175 is equipped with a Backup Radio. How do you operate this radio if needed?

A

MCDU 2, MENU button, LSK 4L.

98
Q

Which of the following vertical modes does not utilize SPDT?

A

FLCH

99
Q

While being vectored for an ILS approach, the previewed navigation source will automatically transition to the primary navigation source upon localizer capture with APP mode armed.

A

True

100
Q

All of the following are considered part of a stabilized approach except …

A

Non-transient deviations below 500 ft

101
Q

When do we add 50 feet to an approach?

A

VOR/RNAV approaches using vertical guidance require adding 50 feet to the MDA.

102
Q

According to the SOPM, the use of FMS speeds during a single-engine configuration is prohibited.

A

True.

103
Q

What hydraulic system powers landing gear extension and retraction?

A

2

104
Q

The proper flap setting for a single-engine approach and landing (with all other systems normal) is …

A

Flaps 5

105
Q

If you anticipate landing with less than ______ of fuel remaining you must declare Minimum Fuel. If you anticipate less than _______of fuel remaining you must declare Emergency Fuel.

A

2,250 lbs, 1,500 lbs.

106
Q

According to the SOPM, if performance considerations dictate, you may conduct a CAT II approach with flaps selected full.

A

False.

107
Q

Shortly after takeoff, you experience smoke in the flight deck. You declare an emergency, take the appropriate actions, and return to the takeoff airport. Over what weight are you considered to be landing overweight?

A

74,957 lbs.

108
Q

On final approach, you look down at your N1 gauges and notice GA in between the gauges. When did this TRS mode become active?

A

When the landing gear was extended.

109
Q

How many ways are there to effectively lower the gear?

A

3

110
Q

If maximum performance braking is required for landing on a short runway, how is this achieved?

A

Set auto brakes to OFF, use brake pedals and max reverse thrust.

111
Q

The “After Landing Sequence” is …

A
  • A flow.
  • Performed by the First Officer.
  • Performed silently with no verbal confirmation.
112
Q

The SOPM requires us to use engine anti-ice while operating on contaminated taxiways and ramps. How is this achieved after landing while taxiing in?

A

Manually by setting the Ice Protection Mode Selector to ON.

113
Q

When shutting down engine #2 on the taxi in, which of the following is true?

A
  • You may shut down an engine after a 2 minute cool-down period.
  • It’s recommended to only shut down an engine while taxiing straight ahead.
114
Q

Pulling into the gate in DEN you realize the GPU is not available so you attempt to start the APU. It fails to start on the first attempt. How long must you wait before attempting a second start?

A

60 sec

115
Q

Setting the Emerg/Parking brake requires stepping on the brake pedals to pressurize the system.

A

False

116
Q

To prevent electrical power interruptions, it is recommended to wait 10 seconds after GPU button is pressed in, or after the APU is stabilized before shutting down one of the engines.

A

True

117
Q

After pulling into the gate single-engine with the APU off, the ramp agent gives you the GPU connected hand signal. You look up and realize that the GPU button was left pushed in from when you departed earlier. The GPU is now powering AC BUS 2.

A

False

118
Q

The post flight external inspection may be waived by the inbound crew under what circumstances?

A

The outbound crew arrives before the inbound crew leaves.

119
Q

After completing the Leaving the Airplane Checklist, an agent runs up from the ramp and tells you there is thick smoke coming from the left engine. Can you fight an engine fire with the aircraft powered down?

A

Yes

E175 Study Items (3 decks)

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