Questions Flashcards by walker pettis

What team is the first to arrive at a deployed location?

a. Advance echelon (ADVON).
b. Follow-on force.
c. Initial force.
d. Cadre.

a. Advance echelon (ADVON).

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Missile maintenance would arrive at a bare base force deployed location with which force deployment team?

a. Advance echelon (ADVON).
b. Follow-on force.
c. Initial force.
d. Cadre.

b. Follow-on force.

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What list combined with individuals on leave and 
quarters provides availability? 
a. Recall roster. 
b. Weekly work schedule. 
c. Unit manning document (UMD). 
d. Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR).

d. Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR).

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During a contingency, where can you find a breakdown of all material that must be moved to the forward location?

a. Interim work information management system (IWIMS).
b. Automated data processing equipment (ADPE).
c. War reserve materiel (WRM).
d. Unit type code (UTC).

d. Unit type code (UTC).

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Which document lists all deployment tasking requirements for a particular contingency, exercise, or deployment?

a. Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD).
b. Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR).
c. Unit manpower document (UMD).
d. Unit type code (UTC).

a. Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD).

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Which element is one of the five essential elements of a deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)?

a. Departure date.
b. Air Force specialty code.
c. Aircraft types and numbers.
d. Personnel selected for deployment.

b. Air Force specialty code.

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What product is used by deployed commanders to identify deficiencies in unit type code (UTC) capabilities? a. Personnel identification and travel itinerary report.

b. Mobility requirements/resources roster.
c. Processing discrepancy report.
d. Departure report.

c. Processing discrepancy report.

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What type of unit type code (UTC) provides the most detail to Air Force national military strategy planners and are used to the greatest extent possible?

a. Associate.
b. Non-deployable.
c. In-place requirement.
d. Standard deployable.

d. Standard deployable.

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In reference to mission capability (MISCAP), what are the required skill level(s) on an emergency management (EM) installation management team?

a. One 9-level.
b. Two 5-levels.
c. One 5- and one 7-level.
d. One chief master sergeant (3E900).

c. One 5- and one 7-level.

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Which emergency management equipment unit type code (UTC) provides initial equipment for chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) personnel decontamination capability for an installation with up to 3,300 personnel?

a. 4F9WM – EN HLD Response Equipment.
b. 4F9WS – EN CBRN personnel DECON equipment.
c. 4F9WL – EN active CBRN response equipment.
d. 4F9WP – EN CBRN detection augmentation equipment.

b. 4F9WS – EN CBRN personnel DECON equipment

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Who ensure all Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) team members are organized, trained, and equipped to perform their contingency roles and all equipment is on-hand and ready to deploy?

a. Readiness and Emergency Management Flight commander.
b. Logistics Readiness Squadron commander.
c. Unit Deployment manager.
d. Prime BEEF manager.

d. Prime BEEF manager.

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What is the status of resource and training system (SORTS)?

a. A system of electromagnetic phone lines connected with modems to the endpoint computer.
b. An external management tool comprised of a family of computer data bases and a reporting system to update them.
c. A system of electromagnetic phone lines with multiplexers that are attached to the endpoint laptop computer system.
d. An automated reporting system that function as the central registry of all operational units for the US armed forces and certain foreign organizations.

d. An automated reporting system that function as the central registry of all operational units for the US armed forces and certain foreign organizations.

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Which units are measured (tracked) in status of resource and training system (SORTS)?

a. Offensive or defensive.
b. Skills or grades needed.
c. Combat or combat support.
d. Requisitions or requirements.

c. Combat or combat support.

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The degree to which a unit meets standards within the four measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment is indicated by a five-point scale called

a. A-levels.
b. C-levels.
c. M-levels.
d. P-levels.

b. C-levels

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Which product is used as a baseline to compare actual available personnel when compiling the status of resources and training system (SORTS) report?

a. Designed operational capability (DOC) statement.
b. Unit type code (UTC) Availability record.
c. Air Force personnel desire list (AFPDL).
d. Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD).

c. Air Force personnel desire list (AFPDL).

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Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) C-level ratings are based on a five-point scale reflecting the degree to which a unit’s resources meet prescribed levels of all of the following except

a. Equipment.
b. Personnel.
c. Funding.
d. Training.

d. Training.

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Which allowance standard (AS) contains identifiers for Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operations Repair Squadron Engineers (RED HORSE) and Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) unit type codes (UTC)?

a. 429.
b. 456.
c. 459.
d. 660.

a. 429.

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Who ensures protected cargo is secure and under surveillance at all times during the deployment movement?

a. Aircrew.
b. Couriers.
c. Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) manager.
d. Unit deployment manager (UDM).

b. Couriers

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What are the usable surface dimensions of a 463L cargo pallet?

a. 84” by 104”.
b. 84” by 108”.
c. 88” by 108”.
d. 88” by 104”.

a. 84” by 104”.

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What is the weight of an empty 463L pallet?

a. 65 pounds.
b. 290 pounds.
c. 355 pounds.
d. 463 pounds.

b. 290 pounds.

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Air Force war reserve materiel (WRM) is essential materiel whose purpose is to

a. eliminate airlift requirements.
b. meet planned defense objectives.
c. reduce financial requirements on combatant commanders.
d. provide equipment for use during exercises and inspections.

b. meet planned defense objectives

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What category of war reserve materiel (WRM) includes food necessary to feed a person for one day?

a. Rations.
b. Equipment
c. Consumables
d. Fuels mobility support equipment.

a. Rations

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What is not considered war reserve materiel (WRM)?

a. Rations.
b. Vehicles.
c. Subsistence items.
d. Consumable items.

c. Subsistence items

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Who or what command determines war reserve materiel (WRM) pre-positioning requirements?

a. WRM program manager.
b. Using major command.
c. Storing major command.
d. Host installation commander.

b. Using major command.

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What kind of installation deployment orders establishes a tentative C-day (day deployment operations will begin)? a. Deployment. b. Planning. c. Warning. d. Alert.

c. Warning

What kind of installation deployment orders does the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) issue to prepare forces to deploy? a. Deployment. b. Planning. c. Warning. d. Alert.

d. Alert.

Which logistics module (LOGMOD) report, created through the Schedule module, shows suffix items within an item assigned to an increment? a. Movement summary. b. Hazard code list. c. Packing list. d. Load list.

c. Packing list.

The personnel deployment function (PDF) is charged with maintaining accountability of deploying personnel from the time they arrive at the processing line until a. they arrive at the aggregation point. b. they depart the PDF for the aircraft. c. otherwise directed by the troop commander. d. they are turned over to the passenger terminal function.

d. they are turned over to the passenger terminal function.

The only type of orders used to deploy personnel is a. contingency, exercise, and deployment (CED) orders. b. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) orders. c. personnel deployment function (PDF) orders. d. temporary duty (TDY) orders.

a. contingency, exercise, and deployment (CED) orders.

Where is cargo weighed and measured and the cargo documentation validated? a. Cargo deployment function (CDF). b. Deployment control center (DCC). c. Marshaling yard. d. Personnel deployment function (PDF).

a. Cargo deployment function (CDF).

An installation’s primary method of notifying first responders, emergency responders, airfield personnel, and other disaster response force (DRF) elements during an emergency is through the a. commanders’ notifications. b. primary and secondary crash nets. c. disaster response force recall. d. Emergency Operations Center (EOC).

b. primary and secondary crash nets.

What is the planning mechanism used throughout an incident to codify and distribute the tactical objectives and support activities required for one operational period? a. Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2. b. Contingency Response Plan. c. Incident Response Plan (IRP). d. Incident Action Plan (IAP).

d. Incident Action Plan (IAP).

In the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), during the Response phase of an incident, an Incident Action Plan (IAP) is established for a certain operational period. How long is a normal operational period for an IAP? a. 6 or 12 hours. b. 12 or 24 hours. c. 24 or 48 hours. d. 48 or 72 hours.

b. 12 or 24 hours.

In the Recovery phase of the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), who identifies the Recovery Operations Chief (ROC)? a. Incident Commander (IC). b. Civil Engineer (CE) commander. c. Director of Operations. d. Emergency Operations Center (EOC) Director.

d. Emergency Operations Center (EOC) Director.

Which item best describes the catalyst for fulfilling the primary objective of an Emergency Management (EM) program? a. Shelter management teams. b. Contamination control teams. c. An effective command and control (C2) system. d. A survival recovery center co-located with the installation command post.

c. An effective command and control (C2) system.

Which division is not one of the five divisions of the Air and Space Operations Center (AOC)? a. Strategy. b. Logistics. c. Combat Plans. d. Air Mobility.

b. Logistics.

What do unit commanders use to manage unit resources and passive defense measures during contingency operations? a. Unit control centers. b. Emergency operations centers. c. Installation command posts. d. Installation information exchange networks.

a. Unit control centers.

What is the primary mission of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)? a. Monitor and direct active defense measures. b. Pass attack information to the base populace and direct defensive measures. c. Monitor and direct pre- and trans-attack survival actions and post-attack recovery operations. d. Assess damage reports, establish priorities, dispatch and control response forces, and inform the command post on the status of base facilities.

c. Monitor and direct pre- and trans-attack survival actions and post-attack recovery operations.

What is the upward flow of attack information within the installation C2 structure? a. Individual through Unit Control Center to the Emergency Operations Center. b. Individual through Emergency Operations Center to the Unit Control Center. c. Emergency Operations Center through Unit Control Center to the individual. d. Unit control center through the Emergency Operations Center to the individual.

a. Individual through Unit Control Center to the Emergency Operations Cent

A Mobile Communications Center (MCC) is required to meet what Department of Homeland Security/Federal Emergency Management Agency (DHS/FEMA) resource type? a. Type I. b. Type II. c. Type III. d. Type IV.

c. Type III.

Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) monitors, tracks, and reports financial impacts, reimbursable expenditures, and claims resulting from the chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-yield explosives (CBRNE) incident? a. ESF–8. b. ESF–7. c. ESF–6. d. ESF–5.

d. ESF–5.

Which option is not one of the seven major requirements of the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center? a. Detection. b. Plotting. c. Defending. d. Identification.

c. Defending.

After an attack against your installation involving chemical warfare agents, the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center provides advice to the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) commander pertaining to agent persistency. What type of CBRN control center responsibility does this action best represent? a. Internal. b. External. c. Coordination. d. Exposure determination.

a. Internal.

You are deployed to a contingency situation fulfilling the role of a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center team member. Chemical agents have not been used thus far in the theater of operations. The enemy attacks your installation. Several CBRN reconnaissance teams report a positive indication that the enemy used a chemical warfare agent. What North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) CBRN report must the installation CBRN generate to the theater CBRN cell? a. CBRN 1. b. CBRN 2. c. CBRN 4. d. CBRN 5.

a. CBRN 1.

Which defense condition (DEFCON) indicates war? a. 1. b. 3. c. 5. d. 7.

a. 1.

Which air defense warning condition color indicates that attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is imminent or in progress? a. White. b. Yellow. c. Red. d. Black.

c. Red.

What terrorist force protection condition (FPCON) applies when an incident occurs or intelligence has received information that some form of terrorist action against personnel and facilities is imminent? a. FPCON ALPHA. b. FPCON BRAVO. c. FPCON CHARLIE. d. FPCON DELTA.

d. FPCON DELTA.

Prior to deploying to a high threat environment, you find out that the location you are deploying to does not use the Unites States Air Force (USAF) standardized alarm signals for areas subject to chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-yield explosives (CBRNE) attack. What best describes the action the Readiness and Emergency Management flight takes? a. Establish a pre-deployment information program to inform base populace personnel of the deployed location’s warning system. b. Establish an information program at the deployed location to inform base populace personnel of the deployed location’s warning system. c. Establish an information program that disseminates the deployed location’s warning system prior to deployment and as personnel arrive at the deployed location. d. Work with the deployed location to change the warning system to mirror the USAF standardized alarm signals for areas subject to CBRNE attack.

c. Establish an information program that disseminates the deployed location’s warning system prior to deployment and as personnel arrive at the deployed location.

Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. When personnel wear the over garment and mask carrier, the installation is operating under a. MOPP 0. b. MOPP 1. c. MOPP 2. d. MOPP 3.

b. MOPP 1.

Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. When personnel wear all individual protective equipment (IPE) items, the installation is operating under a. MOPP 1. b. MOPP 2. c. MOPP 3. d. MOPP 4.

d. MOPP 4.

Which is not a standard mission oriented protection postures (MOPP) option? a. Ventilation. b. No-Airman basic uniform (ABU) or flight suit. c. Mask-only. d. Hood open.

d. Hood open.

What is the most critical factor for sound mission oriented protective posture (MOPP) analysis? a. Initial training required. b. Warning and reporting information. c. Gathering of post attack information. d. Work rate and rest cycle implementation.

c. Gathering of post attack information.

What rank is a Response Task Force (RTF) Commander? a. Major. b. Colonel. c. General. d. Civilian.

c. General.

A nuclear weapons accident undergoes a high-order detonation causing radioactive contamination to spread downwind over 3 miles. Hundreds of civilian personnel start to show up at your contamination control station (CCS). Unfortunately, you have only four personnel and a limited number of radiation, indication, and computations (RADIAC) to operate your CCS. Your CCS is completely overwhelmed by the number of people needing to process. Given these circumstances, what is the best action to take? a. Implement initial CCS procedures. b. Implement standard CCS procedures. c. Direct the civilians to a holding area until the response task force (RTF) arrives. d. Separate the civilians into several large groups and conduct a spot monitor of only a few in each group. If the few are clean, then release the rest.

a. Implement initial CCS procedures.

Which option is not a principal element of a contamination control station (CCS)? a. Hot line. b. Contamination control line (CCL). c. Contamination removal zone. d. Contamination reduction area (CRA).

c. Contamination removal zone.

In what area of the contamination control station (CCS) do the CCS team personnel conduct radiological monitoring? a. Hot line. b. Contamination control line (CCL). c. Contamination removal zone. d. Contamination reduction area (CRA).

d. Contamination reduction area (CRA).

While conducting monitoring on personnel processing out of the accident site through the contamination control station (CCS), which probe should you hold in place for 10 seconds? a. Alpha. b. Beta. c. Gamma. d. Beta/gamma.

a. Alpha.

Which option is not one of the four operational elements of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) passive defense? a. CBRN shape. b. CBRN sense. c. CBRN shield. d. CBRN supply.

d. CBRN supply.

Which option is not a form of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) reconnaissance operation? a. Route. b. Area. c. Installation. d. zone.

c. Installation.

Which chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) location technique is primarily used in restricted access or terrain or so that sites for high value facilities are free of contamination? a. Cloverleaf. b. Grid. c. Lane. d. Zigzag.

a. Cloverleaf.

During dismounted reconnaissance, from what direction will the initial entry team approach the area being surveyed when conducting an initial area survey? a. Direct as possible. b. Crosswind. c. Upwind. d. Downwind.

c. Upwind.

During initial area survey, when exiting a doorway, the entry element places what mark on the door? a. An “X”. b. A “slash”. c. A “slash & circle”. d. An “X & circle”.

a. An “X”.

During an initial area survey, while in the structure, an initial entry element conduct radio checks with command every a. minute. b. 5 minutes. c. 10 minutes. d. 15 minutes.

b. 5 minutes.

When approaching an item of interest during an initial area survey, the initial entry element will take what step first? a. Determine if the item is recognizable. b. Move toward the item. c. Photograph the undisturbed item. d. Initiate detection procedures.

c. Photograph the undisturbed item.

Which item is not defined in a sample collection plan? a. Purpose and scope of operations. b. Priority of sample collection. c. Sample collection parameters. d. Route of entry to facility.

d. Route of entry to facility.

During sample collection operations, the “assistant sample collector” is referred to as the a. clean person. b. dirty person. c. element leader. d. recorder.

a. clean person.

During two-person sample collection operations, who exercises overall control of sample collection? a. Clean person. b. Dirty person. c. Recorder. d. Incident commander (IC).

b. dirty person.

During three-person sample collection operations, who exercises overall control of sample collection? a. Sample collector. b. Assistant sample collector. c. Element leader. d. Incident commander (IC).

c. Element leader.

When taking an environmental sample, what is the total volume of stones that should be taken? a. 100 to 200 milliliters. b. 200 to 300 milliliters. c. 300 to 400 milliliters. d. 300 to 400 milliliters.

b. 200 to 300 milliliters.

When taking an environmental sample, what is the surface area of a soil sample that should be taken? a. 3½ inches by 3½ inches. b. 2½ inches by 2½ inches c. 1½ inches by 1½ inches d. ½ inches by ½ inches

a. 3½ inches by 3½ inches.

Sample collection teams should bring enough sample collection equipment and consumables to take a minimum of how many samples of a necessary type? a. Four. b. Six. c. Eight. d. Ten.

d. Ten.

During sample collection operations, how many water samples should be taken? a. Minimum of two (1 sample, 1 control). b. Minimum of three (2 sample, 1 control). c. Minimum of four (3 sample, 1 control). d. Minimum of four (2 sample, 2 control).

c. Minimum of four (3 sample, 1 control).

Which sample collection technique is the basic and preferred sample collection method? a. Composite. b. Discrete. c. Surface. d. Grab.

d. Grab.

When samples are taken at predetermined intervals it is considered what type of collection strategy? a. Periodic. b. Random. c. Systematic. d. Judgmental.

c. Systematic.

During surface sample collection procedures, charcoal-impregnated pads can be used for sampling what type of substances? a. Volatile solvents. b. Organic Substances. c. Radiological Materials. d. Collection of metals.

a. Volatile solvents.

What is the recommended sample collection size for a chemical vegetation sample? a. 2 leaves or 2 handfuls of grass. b. 2 leaves or 1 handful of grass. c. 3 leaves or 1 handful of grass. d. 3 leaves or 3 handfuls of grass.

d. 3 leaves or 3 handfuls of grass.

What is the recommended sample collection size for a biological liquid sample? a. 10 to 25 milliliters. b. 25 to 50 milliliters. c. 50 to 75 milliliters. d. 75 to 100 milliliters.

b. 25 to 50 milliliters.

Air Force Instruction 48–137 does not apply to which protection? a. commercial respiratory. b. Service specific respiratory. c. foreign respiratory. d. military-unique respiratory.

d. military-unique respiratory.

The specific requirements outlined in AFI 48–137 are based on 29 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)? a. 1910.134 requirements. b. 1910.120 requirements. c. 1918.134 requirements. d. 1918.120 requirements.

c. 1918.134 requirements.

Before using an air-purifying respirator (APR) or powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR), you need to make sure the a. oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%. b. chemicals/air contaminants in the air are small-sized particulates. c. chemicals/air contaminants in the air are large-sized particulates. d. atmospheric hazards are above immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) conditions.

a. oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%.

Which model of the joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) does the Air Force ground crew personnel use? a. M50. b. M51. c. M52. d. M61.

a. M50.

When the M61 filter time patch assembly expires and must be replaced, its center color changes from white to a. black. b. green. c. dark blue. d. dark green.

c. dark blue.

What is placed in the M50 joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) to minimize any possible deformation of the face seal during storage and shipment? a. Mask mold. b. Face form. c. Faceblank. d. Cover.

b. Face form.

The M45 land warrior mask comes in what sizes? a. Small, medium, large. b. Short, medium, long. c. Extra small, small, medium, large. d. Extra short, short, medium, long.

c. Extra small, small, medium, large.

Droplet clouds from ground bursts typically reach full deposition within how many minutes? a. 1. b. 5. c. 10. d. 60.

c. 10.

The best method for minimizing personnel exposure to a chemical agent once it has settled to the surface is to a. decontaminate. b. keep personnel out of contaminated zones. c. have personnel leave contaminated zones by any means. d. keep personnel inside buildings in contaminated zones.

b. keep personnel out of contaminated zones.

What colors are used for the background and writing on chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) marking signs to indicate biological contamination? a. Blue background; red writing. b. Red background; blue writing. c. Yellow background; red writing. d. Red background; white writing.

a. Blue background; red writing.

Who is responsible for establishing a shelter plan for protection and recovery from chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attacks? a. Civil Engineer (CE) Commander. b. Mission Support Group (MSG) Commander. c. Installation Commander. d. Individual Units.

c. Installation Commander

A collective protection shelter may not provide sufficient shielding from what form of contamination without modification? a. Radiological. b. Chemical. c. Biological. d. Chlorine.

a. Radiological.

Which level of decontamination is conducted by an individual shortly after becoming contaminated? a. Immediate. b. Operational. c. Thorough. d. Clearance.

a. Immediate.

Which level of decontamination is conducted by a unit, with or without external support, to reduce contamination on personnel, equipment, materiel, and/or work areas? a. Immediate. b. Operational. c. Thorough. d. Clearance.

c. Thorough.

Which decontamination technique is not conducted during the operational level of decontamination? a. Spot decontamination of areas that must be touched or used. b. Mission-oriented protection posture (MOPP) gear exchange. c. Detailed equipment decontamination (DED). d. Equipment wash down.

c. Detailed equipment decontamination (DED).

What decontamination kit is made with reactive sorbent powder? a. RSDL. b. M291. c. M295. d. M256.

c. M295.

Covering chemical agents with at least how many inches of earth will give protection provided the area is not disturbed? a. 1 inch. b. 2 inches. c. 3 inches. d. 4 inches.

d. 4 inches.

During decontamination operations, you let the reactive skin decontamination lotion (RSDL) remain on your skin for at least how many minutes? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.

b. 2.

In an attempt to extend the wear time of the battle dress over garment (BDO) after exposure to agents other an VX, you should use the M291/M295 kit on your over garment no longer than how many minutes ? a. 3. b. 7. c. 10. d. 15.

d. 15.

During contamination control area (CCA) processing, what is the preferred decontaminate for masks, protective gloves, and footwear covers. a. Dry powder. b. 5 percent liquid chlorine solution. c. 30 percent super tropical bleach (STB). d. 50 percent BK powder and Lo-Bax.

b. 5 percent liquid chlorine solution.

The disposal point for contaminated waste should be located at least how many feet away from the entrance to the contaminated control area (CCA)? a. 25. b. 30. c. 40. d. 50.

d. 50.

What kind of installation deployment orders is sent to the supported commander and joint planning and execution community (JPEC) to direct execution planning before a COA is formally approved by the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) and President of the United States (POTUS)? a. Deployment. b. Planning. c. Warning. d. Alert.

b. Planning.

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