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ATPL Law > Questions > Flashcards

Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

What responsibilities does the Act 1990 S13 place on the PIC

A

The PIC shall be responsible for the well-being of all PAX and crew
The PIC shall be responsible for the safety of the aircraft
The PIC shall be responsible for the maintenance of discipline by all persons on board
The PIC shall be responsible for the safe operation of the flight

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2
Q

Does an aerodrome operator require an aviation document

A

Yes, in accordance with the rules under the Act 1990

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3
Q

When considering an applicant as fit and proper person to hold an aviation document is the Director limited at all as to the source of the information

A

No, the director may consider any information gained from any source

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4
Q

A PIC breaks a rule made under the act in an emergency situation. within what time frame must they notify the Director

A

As soon as practicable

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5
Q

If a licence holder reasonably suspects a change to their medical condition which may affect their ability to safely exercise the privileges of their licence may they continue to exercise the privileges of the licence after informing the Director

A

No

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6
Q

What action must the director take if a licence holder asks the director to cancel their medical certificate

A

The Director must cancel the medical certificate and update the register of current medical certificates

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7
Q

What is the maximum fine which may be imposed on a person found guilty of operating an aircraft in a careless manner

A

$7000

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8
Q

What is the CAR part 1 definition of passenger

A

Any person carried by the aircraft other than a crew member

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9
Q

What is the definition of instrument flight

A

Flight during which an aircraft is piloted solely by reference to instruments and without external reference points

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10
Q

What are the technical instructions for the carriage of dangerous goods

A

Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air published by the international civil aviation organisation

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11
Q

What is the definition of Mach number

A

The ratio of true is speed to the speed of sound

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12
Q

What is the part 125 definition of an operation

A

An air transport or commercial transport operation using an aeroplane having to seating capacity of 10 to 30 seats excluding any flight crew member seats or a payload of 3410kg or less and an MCTOW of greater than 5700 KG or a single engine aeroplane to perform a single engined IFR operation

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13
Q

What is the car part 1 definition of category ll precision approach procedure

A

a precision instrument and landing with a decision height lower than 200 feet but not lower than 100 feet and a RVR not less then 350m

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14
Q

Does the definition of a passenger include a student pilot

A

No passenger means any person carried by the aircraft other than a crewmember and the crewmember includes a person carry for the sole purpose of undergoing instruction in the control and navigation of the aircraft

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15
Q

What is the part 121 and part 125 definition of threshold

A

That point where a 1:20 obstacle free approach surface intersects the runway surface

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16
Q

What is the definition of co-pilot

A

A licensed pilot serving in any piloting capacity other than as pilot in command but does not include a pilot receiving flight instruction from a pilot of board the aircraft

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17
Q

What is the car part 1 definition of regular air transport service

A

A service offered by an operator consisting of four or more in transport operations for the carriage of passengers between two or more aerodromes and any consecutive 28 day period

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18
Q

What is the car part 1 definition of accelerate stop distance available

A

The length of the take off run available plus the length of any stopway

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19
Q

What is the part 121 definition of an air operation

A

an air transport or commercial transport operation using an aeroplane having a seating capacity of more than 30 excluding any flight crew member seat or payload capacity of more than 3410 Kgs

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20
Q

What is the definition of minimum descent height (MDA)

A

A specified height reference to the runway threshold in a non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference

21
Q

What is the definition of RNP performance

A

a containment value expressed as a distance in nautical miles from the intended position with in which flights would be for at least 95% of the total flying time

22
Q

What is the definition of decision altitude (DA)

A

a specified altitude reference to mean sea level in a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established

23
Q

What is the definition of ceiling

A

The height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20,000 feet cover more than half the sky

24
Q

What is the definition of minimum descent altitude

A

A specified altitude referenced to mean sea level in a non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference

25
Q

What is the definition of decision height

A

a specified height referenced to the runway threshold in a precision approach at which are missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established

26
Q

What does ACAS mean

A

Airborne collision avoidance system

27
Q

What does EDTO mean

A

Extended diversion time operations

28
Q

What does AEDRS mean

A

Automatic engine data recording system

29
Q

What does RVSM mean

A

Reduced vertical separation minima

30
Q

What does TAWS mean

A

terrain awareness and warning system

31
Q

may person pilot a New Zealand registered aircraft in New Zealand if they hold only an Australian license

A

Yes provided it was issued by the CASA and the TTMRA applies to the license

32
Q

May a flying instructor act as the pilot of an aircraft which does not yet have a first of type authorisation

A

Yes subject to such conditions as the director may impose in the interests of safety

33
Q

How must and incorrect entry and a pilot logbook be altered

A

An incorrect entry in a logbook may be altered only by putting a line through the entry and by adding the correct information either beside of the entry or on a new line

34
Q

Made a person who does not meet the currency requirements of their ATPL act as pilot in command of an aircraft

A

Yes in accordance with rule 61 solo flight requirements

35
Q

May a person who does not hold a current pilots license act as pilot in command of an aircraft on an international flight

A

No

36
Q

What is the minimum age for the issue of an ATPL

A

21 years

37
Q

What recency requirements must the holder of an airline transport pilot license have meet prior to acting as pilot in command on an air operation

A

Within the immediately preceding 90 days the pilot must have carried out not less than three take off and landing as pilot in command in an aircraft of the same type or of a zero flight time simulator or demonstrated continue competency to an appropriately authorised flight examiner or demonstrated competence and take off and landing manoeuvres to an appropriately qualified flight instructor

38
Q

Does the holder of an ATPL require three takeoff and landing with in the preceding 90 days if they have demonstrated competency to a flight examiner and aircraft of the same type

A

no

39
Q

May the holder complete their three take off and landing in the preceding 90 days and a synthetic flight to trainer

A

.

40
Q

If the ATPL holder meet the flight crew competency check requirements of a car 119 organisation are they required to have completed a BFR with in the preceding 24 months

A

.

41
Q

If and ATPL Holder no longer meets that flight crew competency check requirements of a car 119 organisation are they required to have completed a BFR

A

.

42
Q

If you complete a BFR on 10 April which is due to expire on 1 June when does it expire

A

.

43
Q

If the holder of ATPL does not meet the currency or medical requirements of the license but does for PPL may they excise the privilege of A PPL

A

.

44
Q

Within what time period must each pilot acting as a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged on a car part 121 air operation under IFR have passed a check of normal abnormal and emergency procedures in the same aeroplane type

A

.

45
Q

Within what time period must eat pilot of an aircraft engaged on an air operation under part 121 have completed a written or oral test of their knowledge and aeroplane systems performance and operating procedures

A

.

46
Q

Within what time period must each pilot of an aircraft engaged on an air operation under part 125 under IFR have completed a written or oral test of the knowledge and aeroplane systems performance and operating procedures

A

.

47
Q

What time period must the pilot in command of an aircraft engaged and in operation under part 121 have passed a check of route and aerodrome proficiency

A

.

48
Q

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A

.

ATPL Law (1 decks)

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