Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Sound wave are

a. electric
b. mechanical, transverse
c. spectral
d. longitudinal, mechanical

A

longitudinal, mechanical

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2
Q

The speed of US in soft tissue is closest to:

a. 1,540 km/sec
b. 1.54 km/msec
c. 1,500 m/s
d. 1,540 mm/sec

A

1,500 m/s

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3
Q

The frequency closest to the lower limit of US is:

a. 19,000 kHz
b. 10,000 MHz
c. 20,000 msec
d. 15,000Hz

A

15,000 HZ

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4
Q

Which is not an acoustic variable?

a. density
b. pressure
c. distance
d. intensity

A

intensity

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5
Q

The effects of soft tissue on US are called:

a. acoustic proliferation properties
b. dynamic effects
c. acoustic propagation properties
d. biologic effects

A

acoustic propagation properties

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6
Q

All of the following are true except:

a. two waves with identical frequencies must interfere constructively.
b. constructive interference is associated with waves that are in-phase.
c. out of phase waves interfere destructively
d. waves of different frequencies may exhibit both constructive and destructive interference at different times.

A

two waves with identical frequencies must interfere constructively

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7
Q

Put in decreasing order:

a. deca
b. deci
c. micro
d. centi

A

deca
deci
centi
micro

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8
Q

_________ is the time to complete one cycle.

A

Period

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9
Q

Which of the following sound waves is ultrasonic and least useful in diagnostic imaging?

a. 30 KHz
b. 8 MHz
c. 8,000 Hz
d. 15 Hz

A

30 KHz

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10
Q

What is the frequency of a wave with 1 msec period?

a. 10,000 Hz
b. 1,000 kHz
c. 1 kHz
d. 1 MHz

A

1 kHz

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11
Q

_____ Is the distance covered by one cycle.

A

wavelength

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12
Q

Which of the following is determined by the source and medium?

a. frequency
b. period
c. propagation speed
d. range resolution

A

range resolution

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13
Q

Propagation speed = _____ X wavelength

A

frequency

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14
Q

As a result of ____ the propagation speed increases.

a. increasing stiffness and increasing density
b. increasing stiffness and increasing elasticity
c. decreasing compressibility and decreasing density
d. decreasing stiffness and decreasing density

A

decreasing compressibility and decreasing density

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15
Q

Put in decreasing order of propagation speed:

a. gas
b. liquid
c. solid

A

solid
liquid
gas

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16
Q

If the frequency of US is increased from 0.77 MHz to 1.54MHz, what happens to the wavelength?

a. doubles
b. halved
c. remains the same
d. 4 times greater

A

halved

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17
Q

A sound waves frequency is 10 MHz. The wave is traveling in soft tissue, what is the wavelength?

a. 0.15 mm
b. 1.54 mm
c. 15.4 mm
d. 0.77 mm
e. 10 MHz

A

0.15 mm

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18
Q

If the frequency of an US wave is doubled, what happens to the period?

a. doubled
b. halved
c. remains the same
d. 4 times greater

A

halved

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19
Q

If the frequency of US is increased from 0.77 MHz to 1.54MHz, what happens to the propagation speed?

a. doubles
b. halved
c. remains the same
d. 4 times greater

A

remains the same

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20
Q

The units of pulse repetition frequency are?

a. per minute
b. msec
c. mm/microsec
d. MHx

A

per minute

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21
Q

The time from the beginning of a pulse until its end is _______.

A

pulse duration

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22
Q

What happens to the speed of sound in a medium when the bulk modules of the medium increases?

a. faster
b. slower
c. unchanged

A

faster

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23
Q

_______ resolution is determined by the spatial pulse length.

A

radial or axial

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24
Q

If a waves amplitude is doubled, what happens to the power?

a. nothing
b. halved
c. doubled
d. quadrupled

A

quadrupled

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25
Q

If the level of an acoustic variable ranges from 55 to 105, what is the amplitude?

a. 105
b. 50
c. 25
d. 55

A

25

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26
Q

Power of sound has units of?

A

watts

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27
Q

If the intensity of a sound beam remains unchanged while the beam area is reduced in half, what has happened to the power?

a. quadrupled
b. doubled
c. halved
d. unchanged

A

halved

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28
Q

Which of these intensities is smallest?

a. SATP
b. SPTP
c. SATA

A

SATA

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29
Q

The duty factor for continuous wave ultrasound is?

a. 10.0
b. 1%
c. 1.0
d. 0.0%

A

1.0

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30
Q

What is the minimum value of the duty factor?

a. 10.0
b. 1%
c. 1.0
d. 0.0%

A

0.0%

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31
Q

What are the units of intensity?

A

watts/cm^2

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32
Q

What happens to the speed of sound in a medium when the bulk modules of the medium decrease?

a. faster
b. slower
c. unchanged

A

slower

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33
Q

The units of attenuation are _____; this is a _____ scale.

a. mm/cm, parametric
b. dB/m, multiplicative
c. none, relative
d. dB, logarithmic

A

dB, logarithmic

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34
Q

Sound intensity is decreased by 75%. How many decibels of attenuation is this?

a. 6 dB
b. 9dB
c. 5 dB
d. 10dB

A

6dB

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35
Q

The fundamental frequency of a transducer is 2.5MHz. What is the second harmonic frequency?

a. 1.25 MHz
b. 4.5 MHz
c. 5 MHz
d. 5cm

A

5 MHz

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36
Q

A pulse is emitted by a transducer and is traveling in soft tissue. The go return time or time of flight, of a sound pulse is 130 microseconds. What is the reflector depth?

a. 10cm
b. 10mm
c. 10m
d. 130mm
e. 13cm

A

10cm

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37
Q

If a 5MHz sound wave is traveling in the tissues listed below, which will have the longest wavelength?

a. fat
b. air
c. muscle
d. bone

A

bone

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38
Q

If a 5MHz sound wave is traveling in the tissues listed below, which will have the shortest wavelength?

a. fat
b. air
c. muscle
d. bone

A

air

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39
Q

What is the approximate attenuation coefficient of 1 MHz US in soft tissue?

a. 0.5 dB/cm
b. 1 cm
c. 3 dB/cm
d. 1 dB

A

0.5 dB/cm

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40
Q

The rayl is the unit of:

A

impedance

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41
Q

Impedance is the _____ of ______ and _______.

a. product, propagation speed, density
b. sum, stiffness, density
c. quotient, stiffness, propagation speed
d. difference, attenuation, density

A

product, propagation speed and density

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42
Q

What are attenuation’s three components?

A

scattering, reflection and absorption

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43
Q

For soft tissue, the approximate attenuation coefficient in db/cm is equal to one-half ____ in ______.

a. wavelength, Hz
b. frequency, Hz
c. frequency, MHz
d. impedance, rayls

A

frequency, MHz

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44
Q

As the impedances of two media become vastly different, the

a. reflection increases
b. transmission increases
c. refraction increases
d. absorption increases

A

reflection increases

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45
Q

The angle between an US pulse and the boundary between two media is 90 degrees. What is this called?

a. direct incidence
b. oblique incidence
c. indirect incidence
d. orthogonal incidence

A

orthogonal incidence

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46
Q

The angle between an US pulse and the boundary between two media is 56 degrees. What is this called?

a. direct incidence
b. oblique incidence
c. indirect incidence
d. orthogonal incidence

A

oblique incidence

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47
Q

Refraction only occurs if there are:

a. normal incidence and different impedances
b. indirect intensity and different propagation speeds
c. oblique incidence and different propagation speeds
d. oblique frequency and identical impedances

A

oblique incidence and different propagation speeds

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48
Q

With normal incidence, what factors affect refraction of US?

a. propagation speed
b. frequencies
c. attenuation coefficients
d. none of the above

A

none of the above

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49
Q

(True or False) With right angle incidence, reflections are always generated at a boundary if the propagation speeds of the media are different.

A

false

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50
Q

____ is a reduction of US in many directions as a result of a rough boundary between two media.

a. refraction
b. Rayleigh scattering
c. scattering
d. reflection

A

scattering

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51
Q

Which of the following tissues is most likely to create Rayleigh Scattering?

a. red blood cells
b. muscle
c. fat
d. bone

A

red blood cells

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52
Q

(True or False) with normal incidence the angle is 180 degrees.

A

false

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53
Q

Under which of the following conditions is axial resolution improved?

a. decreased spatial pulse length
b. decreased pulse amplitude
c. decreased imaging depth
d. decreased pixel size
e. decreased beam diameter

A

decreased spatial pulse length

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54
Q

Snells law describes physics of ________.

A

refraction

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55
Q

The most likely amount of reflection at a boundary between soft tissue is:

a. 1%
b. 22%
c. 34%
d. 99%

A

1%

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56
Q

The most typical amount of transmission at a boundary in biologic media is:

a. 1%
b. 22%
c. 34%
d. 99%

A

99%

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57
Q

Sound is traveling from medium 1 to medium 2. Propagation speeds of M1 and M2 are 1,600m/s and 1,500m/s, respectively. There is oblique incidence.

a. angle of incidence > angle of reflection
b. angle of incidence = angle of reflection
c. angle of incidence

A

angle of incidence = angle of reflection

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58
Q

(True or False) Doppler shifts always occur if the sound source and receiver are in motion.

A

False

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59
Q

Which of the following is associated with power mode Doppler?

a. poor temporal resolution and flash artifact
b. lower sensitivity and good temporal resolution
c. high sensitivity and high frame rates
d. flash artifact and reduced sensitivity
e. good temporal resolution and flash artifact

A

poor temporal resolution and flash artifact

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60
Q

The doppler shift is a measure of:

a. ratio of incident frequency to reflector frequency
b. sum of incident frequency and reflected frequency
c. difference between incident and reflected frequency
d. product of incident and reflected frequencies

A

difference between incident and reflected frequency

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61
Q

(True or False) The sonographer cannot change, directly or indirectly, the duty factor of an US machine.

A

false

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62
Q

Depth calibration of a machine measures 100mm spaced wires to be 90mm apart. Scanning reflectors 50mm apart, what will the machine calculate the distance to be?

a. 40mm
b. 45mm
c. 60mm
d. 65mm

A

45mm

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63
Q

(True or False) There have not been biological effects from US found in the laboratory.

A

false

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64
Q

In an analog scan converter, what component stores the image data?

A

dielectric matrix

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65
Q

Which has the correct order?
mega-milli-kilo-micro
a. 10^6 10^-6 10^3 10^-3
b. 10^6 10^-3 10^3 10^-6

A

10^6 10^-3 10^3 10^-6

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66
Q

How many cm are in 60 millimeters

A

6

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67
Q

(True or False) Lateral resolution is also called axial.

A

false

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68
Q

(True or False) Lateral resolution is also called azimuthal

A

true

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69
Q

(True or False) Lateral resolution is also called longitudinal.

A

false

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70
Q

(True or False) Lateral resolution is also called range.

A

false

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71
Q
Which has the correct units?
Freq  Speed  Intensity  Attenuation
a. Hz  mm/s  joules     dB/cm
b. mHz  m/sec  W/cm^2    dB
c. kHz   mm/us   W/cm^3   dB/cm
A

mHz m/sec W/cm^2 dB

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72
Q

What increases patient exposure?

a. exam time
b. frequency
c. video taping
d. wavelength

A

exam time

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73
Q

(True or False) Shadowing may result from high amounts of reflection of US energy.

A

True

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74
Q

Where are harmonics created?

a. in the receiver
b. in the transducer
c. in the tissues
d. in the beam former

A

in the tissues

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75
Q

How is range ambiguity artifact eliminated?

a. lower the PRF
b. raise the PRF
c. increase the gain
d. use a lower frequency transducer

A

lower the PRF

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76
Q

How is lateral resolution measured if this test object is scanned from the top?

a. measure the distance from A to E
b. measure the length of line C and divide by 2
c. measure the length of line B

this is the question with image

A

measure the length of line B

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77
Q

For Doppler, which incident angle results in no shift?

a. 180
b. 90
c. 0
d. 45

A

90

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78
Q

Which transducer would be best to image superficial structures?

a. small diameter, high frequency
b. small diameter, low frequency
c. large diameter, high frequency
d. large diameter, low frequency

A

small diameter,high frequency

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79
Q

A transducer with more than one active element is called?

a. multipurpose
b. annular
c. mechanical
d. array

A

array

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80
Q

How many bits are needed to represent 16 shades of grey?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

4

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81
Q

What information does Doppler shift provide?

a. flow
b. cardiac output
c. velocity
d. speed

A

velocity

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82
Q

(True or False) A sound wave is a pressure wave made of compressions and rarefractions.

A

true

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83
Q

A hydrophone is used to measure

a. velocity
b. frequency
c. intensity
d. phase

A

intensity or frequency

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84
Q

Images on videotape are stored using:

a. magic
b. magnetism
c. paper
d. computer memory

A

magnetism

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85
Q

Circumferences may be measured in unit of:

a. cm
b. cm squared
c. cubic cm
d. cubits

A

cm

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86
Q

Decimal uses a base of 10, binary uses a base of

a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10

A

2

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87
Q

If the frame rate increases and the lines per frame is unchanged, what else must happen?

a. US speed increases
b. frequency increases
c. depth increases
d. depth decreases

A

depth decreases

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88
Q

Which of these cannot be performed by a sonographer?

a. adjust overall gain
b. clean VCR recording heads
c. clean pixels
d. adjust TGC

A

clean pixels

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89
Q

Which of the following is not a beam steering technique for a mechanical scanhead?

a. rotating wheel
b. phased beam
c. oscillating disc
d. oscillating mirror

A

phased beam

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90
Q

(True or False) A system which was working well now does not display clear images in the far field. This may be a problem with the transducer

A

true

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91
Q

(True or False) A system which was working well now does not display clear images in the far field. This may be a problem with the receiver

A

true

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92
Q

(True or False) A system which was working well now does not display clear images in the far field. This may be a problem with the monitor

A

true

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93
Q

(True or False) A system which was working well now does not display clear images in the far field. This may be a problem with the scan converter

A

true

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94
Q

How many decibels is related to 90% decrease in imaging power

A

-10dB

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95
Q

If the output of an US machine is calibrated in dB and the output is increased by 20 dB, the beam intensity is increased

a. 100 times
b. 1,000,000 times
c. 20 times
d. 10 times

A

100 times

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96
Q

Which has the greatest amount of attenuation?

a. bone
b. fat
c. water
d. muscle

A

done

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97
Q

Which of the following will result in the greatest number of shades of gray in a digital image display?

a. large pixels with many bits/pixel
b. small pixels with few bits/pixel
c. many TV lines per frame
d. high contrast
e. narrow dynamic range

A

large pixels with many bits/pixel

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98
Q

What is not the responsibility of the sonographer?

a. clean the filters
b. adjust the recorder
c. adjust converter matrix
d. change paper

A

adjust the converter matrix

How well did you know this?
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2
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99
Q

With good images on the CRT but not on the strip chart recorder, one should

a. increase the gain
b. check the scan head
c. check scan converter
d. adjust the recorder

A

adjust the recorder

100
Q

To measure the US beam intensity, use a

a. calibrated hydrophone
b. lateral oscilloscope
c. water filled phantom
d. tissue equivalent phantom

A

calibrated hydrophone

101
Q

When the US machine displays only strong reflecting objects and nothing else, the sonographer should

a. adjust far gain
b. increase output power
c. increase lateral resolution
d. adjust the TGC

A

increase output power

102
Q

Compression is used to

a. decrease the amplitude
b. decrease the range of amplitudes
c. decrease the range of frequencies

A

decrease the range of amplitudes

103
Q

Reject is used to

a. adjust the appearance of highly reflective objects
b. adjust the appearance of lowly reflective objects
c. improve axial resolution
d. improve digital scan

A

adjust the appearance of lowly reflective objects

104
Q

If a reflector is moved twice as far away from the transducer, how will this affect the time of flight of a sound pulse?

a. quadruple it
b. double it
c. no change
d. halve it

A

double it

105
Q

A single element transducer is focused

a. by the manufacturer
b. cannot be focused
c. by increasing power
d. by the sonogropher

A

by the manufacturer

106
Q

An US machine has a digital scan converter but has an analog input signal. The machine needs to have a

a. hybrid multiplexer
b. modem
c. analog to digital converter
d. digital monitor

A

analog to digital converter

107
Q

Under which of the following conditions is lateral resolution improved?

a. decreased beam diameter
b. decreased pulse duration
c. decreased imaging depth
d. decreased pixel size
e. decreased spatial pulse length

A

decreased beam diameter

108
Q

In which way is an annular phase array transducer different than a linear phased array transducer?

a. the linear is steered mechanically
b. the linear can have multiple focal zones
c. the annular can create a sector shaped image
d. the linear has higher pulse repetition frequency
e. the annular is steered mechanically

A

the annular is steered mechanically

109
Q

In which of these biologic tissues will sound waves propagate most quickly?

a. tendon
b. blood
c. lung
d. fat
e. amniotic fluid

A

tendon

110
Q

Which of the following best describes a sound beam?

a. electrical impulses
b. a collection of mechanical vibrations in the form of compressions and rarefractions
c. a wave that man can hear
d. electromechanical
e. ionic vibrations

A

a collection of mechanical vibrations in the form od compressions and rarefractions

111
Q

You are performing a quality assurance study on an ultrasound system using a tissue equivalent phantom. You make an adjustment using a knob on the system console that changes the appearance of reflector brightness from fully bright to barely visible. What are you evaluating?

a. resolution
b. dynamic range
c. system sensitivity
d. vertical calibration
e. slice thickness

A

system sensitivity

112
Q

Which of the following best describes the features of a sound wave and medium that determine the speed of sound in the medium?

a. density of the medium and stiffness of the medium
b. density of the medium and power of the sound beam
c. elasticity of the medium and frequency of the sound beam
d. stiffness of the medium and elasticity of the medium
e. pulse repetition period of the sound wave and density of the medium

A

density of the medium and stiffness of the medium

113
Q

While scanning in a water tank, what location in a sound beam has the highest intensity?

a. focal point
b. focal zone
c. Fresnel zone
d. Fraunhofer zone
e. half the value depth

A

focal point

114
Q

Which of these factors has the greatest influence on pulse repetition period?

a. display depth
b. thickness of the PZT crystal
c. attenuation of the sound beam
d. impedance of the medium
e. displays dynamic range

A

display depth

115
Q

Which of the following choices best describes an ideal epidemiologic bioeffects study?

a. randomized and prospective
b. benefits outweigh the risks
c. retrospective and optimized
d. ideal and non-biased
e. prudent and safe

A

randomized and prospective

116
Q

Which of the following will result in the highest mechanical index?

a. high frequency and low power
b. high intensity and high frequency
c. low frequency and high signal amplitude
d. low intensity and low frequency

A

low frequency and high signal amplitude

117
Q

All of the following statements regarding in-vitro bioeffects are true except:

a. in vitro bioeffects conclusions are clinically relevant
b. in vitro bioeffects are always real
c. in vitro bioeffects are very important
d. in vitro bioeffects may not be applicable to clinical settings

A

in vitro bioeffects onclusions are clinically relevant

118
Q

Under which circumstance is the mechanical index highest?

a. high frequency and low power
b. high intensity and high frequency
c. low intensity and low frequency
d. low frequency and high signal amplitude

A

low frequency and high signal amplitude

119
Q

Which of the following improves the signal-to-noise ratio?

a. dynamic range
b. frame averaging
c. gray scale
d. edge enhancement
e. receiver gain

A

frame averaging

120
Q

Under which circumstance is cavitation most likely to occur?

a. high frequency and low power
b. high intensity and high frequency
c. low intensity and low frequency
d. low frequency and high signal amplitude

A

low frequency and high signal amplitude

121
Q

What is the accuracy of reflector depth position on an A-mode, B-mode, or M-mode display called?

a. range resolution
b. horizontal calibration
c. axial resolution
d. speed error artifact
e. depth calibration

A

depth calibration

122
Q

Pre-processing occurs

a. when the patient is scanned
b. when images are transferred to the VCR
c. after the images are on the tape
d. when the image exits the scan converter

A

when the patient is scanned

123
Q

Post processing occurs when the image

a. is played off of the VCR
b. entered the A/D converter but before display
c. after it leaves the A/D converter
d. after it leaves the scan converter

A

entered the A/D converter but before display

124
Q

The region from the transducer to the minimum beam cross-sectional area is the

a. Fraunhofer zone
b. Fresnel zone
c. focus
d. Snells length

A

fresnel zone

125
Q

Biologic effects have not been documented below what intensity (SPTA)?

a. 100 W/cm
b. 100 mW/m^2
c. 100 mW/cm^2
d. 100 mW/cm^3

A

100 mW/cm^2

126
Q

What is the standard for communication between medical imaging computers?

a. ALARA
b. PACS
c. D to A Conversion
d. DICOM
e. A to D Conversion

A

DICOM

127
Q

The Curie temperature has which effect?

a. the backing material delaminates from the active element
b. the glue binding the crystal and matching layer melts
c. the ferroelectric material is depolarized
d. the matching layer changes its impedance

A

the ferroelectric material is depolarized

128
Q

What happens to venous blood flow to the heart during expiration?

a. increased
b. decreased
c. unchanged

A

decreased

129
Q

Which of the following has a propagation speed closest to “soft tissue”?

a. muscle
b. fat
c. bone
d. air

A

muscle

130
Q

In a B-mode display, which of the following CRT inputs are used with the amplitude of the reflection?

a. z-axis
b. m-axis
c. x-axis
d. y-axis
e. time base axis

A

z-axis

131
Q

What is displayed on the x-axis of an m-mode image?

a. time
b. time of flight
c. reflector depth
d. echo intensity
e. red blood cell velocity

A

time

132
Q

What is displayed on the y-axis of an m-mode image?

a. time
b. time of flight
c. echo intensity
d. red blood cell velocity

A

time of flight

133
Q

(True or False) A sonographers education ends when they become registered.

A

false

134
Q

The dynamic range is the ratio of the smallest to the largest ______ that a system can process without distortion.

a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. phase delay
d. spatial length

A

amplitude

135
Q

When may a patient revoke their consent to be treated?

a. at any time
b. when is is safe to terminate the procedure
c. never

A

at any time

136
Q

If the intensity is increased by 3dB, it:

a. doubles
b. triples
c. halved
d. quartered

A

doubles

137
Q

What determines the frequency of a sound beam from a pulsed transducer?

a. voltage applied to the PZT
b. PZT thickness
c. frequency of the system
d. PRF of the pulser

A

PZT thickness

138
Q

While propagating, a sound wave is refracted. Finally it returns to the transducer. The system processes the sound wave as if it has:

a. refracted and returned
b. traveled in a straight line, reflected and returned
c. traveled in a straight line, attenuated, reflected and returned

A

traveled in a straight line, reflected and returned

139
Q

What measures the output of a transducer?

a. receiver
b. display
c. hydrometer
d. hydrophone

A

hydrophone

140
Q

The impedance of tissue is 3 X 10^5 rayls and for the PZT crystal is 6 X 10^6 rayls. What is the best impedance for the matching layer?

a. 36 X 10^6
b. 3,600
c. 10,000
d. 9.5 X 10^5
e. 9 X 10^4

A

9.5 X 10^5

141
Q

Put in increasing order of propagation speed:

a. air, bone, water
b. bone, water, air
c. air, water, bone
d. water, air, bone

A

air, water, bone

142
Q

Which type of artifact appears most commonly with highly reflective objects?

a. reverberations
b. mirroring
c. shadowing
d. enhancement
e. defocusing

A

enhancement

143
Q

What can pulsed Doppler measure that continuous wave cannot?

a. duration
b. speed
c. velocity
d. location
e. frequency

A

location

144
Q

What is the fraction of time that a transducer is transmitting?

a. duty factor
b. pulse duration
c. period
d. PRF spatial duration

A

duty factor

145
Q
Which of the following clinical modalities has the lowest output intensity?
a, pulsed Doppler
b. continuous wave Doppler
c. power Doppler
d. duplex scanning
e. gray scale imaging
A

gray scale imaging

146
Q

What is the location of the of the minimum cross-sectional area of the US beam called?

a. focus
b. fraunhofer zone
c. far zone
d. near zone

A

focus

147
Q

the dB is defined as the ______ of two intensities.

a. sum
b. difference
c. product
d. ratio

A

ratio

148
Q

The power of a sound wave is increased by a factor of 8, how many decibels is this?

a. 3dB
b. 6dB
c. 9dB
d. 8dB

A

9dB

149
Q

An ultrasound system is set at 0 dB and is transmitting at full intensity. What is the output power when the system is transmitting at 50% of full intensity?

a. -3 dB
b. -50 dB
c. 10 dB
d. 3 dB
e. -10 dB

A

-3 dB

150
Q

An ultrasound system is set at 0 dB and is transmitting at full intensity. What is the output power when the system is transmitting at 10% of full intensity?

a. -3 dB
b. -50 dB
c. 10 dB
d. 3 dB
e. -10 dB

A

-10 dB

151
Q

The Doppler shift is the ___ of two frequencies.

a. sum
b. difference
c. product
d. ratio

A

difference

152
Q

What is the propagation speed determined by?

a. wavelength
b. intensity & density
c. amplitude
d. density & elasticity
e. density &amplitude

A

density and amplitude

153
Q

If 300,000 cycles occur in a second, what is the waves frequency?

a. 3 MHz
b. 30 kHz
c. 300 MHz
d. 3 kHz
e. 0.3 MHz

A

0.3 MHz

154
Q

What would be the brightest B-mode spot when scanning the following?

another picture question 154

A

c

155
Q

What may be a unit of amplitude?

a. cm
b. Hz
c. msec
d. watts
e. none of the above

A

cm

156
Q

A Doppler exam is performed with a 5 MHz probe and a PRF of 15kHz. Which of these Doppler shifts will create aliasing?

a. 2 kHz
b. 2.5 kHz
c. 7.5 kHz
d. 14 kHz

A

14 kHz

157
Q

Which of the following choices determines the signal amplitude in the transducer of ultrasound system?

a. reflected intensity of the sound beam
b. post processing
c. edge enhancement filtering
d. persistence
e. demodulation

A

reflected intensity of the sound beam

158
Q

In an air-tissue interface, what percentage of the US is reflected?

a. 0%
b. near 0%
c. 50%
d. near 100%

A

near 100%

159
Q

Traveling through the same medium, if the frequency is doubled, the wavelength is

a. unchanged
b. doubled
c. halved
d. quartered

A

halved

160
Q

Traveling through same medium, if the frequency is doubled, the propagation speed is:

a. unchanged
b. doubled
c. halved
d. quartered

A

unchanged

161
Q

(True or False) Increasing the frequency, increases the penetration depth.

A

False

162
Q

(True or False) Axial resolution is affected by focusing.

A

False

163
Q

If a manufacturer changed the lines per frame and kept the imaging depth the same, what else would change?

a. PRF
b. period
c. frame rate

A

frame rate

164
Q

Which of the following has the greatest influence on temporal resolution?

a. propagation speed and the imaging depth
b. frequency of sound and the propagation speed
c. wavelength of sound and propagation speed
d. output power and frequency

A

propagation speed and the imaging depth

165
Q

In a real time scanner, which of these choices determines the maximum frame rate?

a. depth of view
b. pixel size
c. attenuation coefficicent
d. beam diameter
e. lateral resolution

A

depth of view

166
Q

Multiple reflections that are equally spaced are called:

a. refractions
b. reverberations
c. shadows
d. comets

A

reverberations

167
Q

What artifact has a grainy appearance and is caused by the interference effects of scattered sound?

a. spackle
b. reverberation
c. slice thickness
d. speckle
e. section thickness

A

speckle

168
Q

All of the following will improve temporal resolution except:

a. increased line density
b. single rather than multi focus
c. higher frame rate
d. shallower depth of view
e. slower speed of sound in a medium

A

increased line density

169
Q

Impedance is the product of ___ and ____.

A

density and propagation speed

170
Q

(True or False) The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame. As a result, which of the following may have to be decreased?
Frequency

A

false

171
Q

(True or False) The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame. As a result, which of the following may have to be decreased?
frame rate

A

true

172
Q

(True or False) The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame. As a result, which of the following may have to be decreased?
sector angle

A

true

173
Q

(True or False) The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame. As a result, which of the following may have to be decreased?
imaging depth

A

true

174
Q

(True or False) The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame. As a result, which of the following may have to be decreased?
output power

A

false

175
Q

What component of a transducer changes electrical to mechanical and mechanical back to electrical energy?

A

PZT

176
Q

(True or False) Sonographers cannot affect a patients exposure to acoustic energy.

A

False

177
Q

Attenuation of US in soft tissue is closest to:

a. 3 dB/1MHz
b. 1 dB/cm/10MHz
c. 2 dB/cm
d. 0.6 dB/cm/MHz

A

0.6 dB/cm/MHz

178
Q

How many bits are needed to represent 14 shades of gray?

a. 14
b. 1
c. 4
d. 3

A

4

179
Q

(True or False) Gray scale can be changed by sonographer.

A

True

180
Q

The distance to a target is doubled. The time of flight for a pulse to travel to the target and back is:

a. 4 times
b. 8 times
c. the same
d. 2 times

A

2 times

181
Q

If 3MHz sound has 2 dB of attenuation in 1cm of tissue, what is the amount of 6MHz sound in 0.5cm of the same tissue?

a. 5dB
b. 2dB
c. 10dB
d. 1.5dB

A

2dB

182
Q

Volume has which of the following units?

a. cm
b. cm^2
c. cm^3
d. cm^4

A

cm^3

183
Q

Which of the following is proportional to the square of the amplitude?

a. period
b. attenuation
c. power
d. frequency
e. speed

A

power

184
Q

What are the typical clinical Doppler frequencies?

a. 1 - 10,000 Hz
b. 1 - 10 MHz
c. 2- 1,000kHz
d. 40 - 45 kHz

A

1 - 10,000 Hz

185
Q

What Doppler angle is most inaccurate?

a. 15-30 degrees
b. 30-45 degrees
c. 45-60 degrees
d. 60-75 degrees

A

60-75 degrees

186
Q

Changing which of the following would not cause any change in a hard copy image output?

a. TGC
b. overall gain
c. output power
d. display brightness and contrast
e. depth of view

A

display brightness and contrast

187
Q

A quality assurance program:

a. is not needed in small labs
b. is very time consuming and expensive
c. in needed by all labs
d. cannot be performed by sonographers

A

is needed by all labs

188
Q

What is the actual time that an US machine is creating a pulse?

a. duty factor
b. period
c. pulse period
d. pulse duration

A

pulse duration

189
Q

The angle of incidence of an US beam is perpendicular to an interface. The two media have the same propagation speeds. What process cannot occur?

a. refraction
b. reflection
c. transmission
d. attenuation

A

refraction

190
Q

What component of the US unit contains the memory bank?

a. transducer
b. receiver
c. display
d. scan converter

A

scan converter

191
Q

An US wave travels through two media and has attenuation of 3dB in the first and 5dB in the second, What is the total attenuation?

a. 15dB
b. 8dB
c. 3/5 dB
d. 5/8 dB

A

8dB

192
Q

According to the AIUM statement on bioeffects, there have been no confirmed bioeffects below intensities of ___ watts per square centimeter SPTA.

a. 10
b. 0.01
c. 0.1
d. 1
e. 100

A

0.1

193
Q

Fill in of an anechoic structure such as a cyst is known as all of the following except?

a. partial volume artifact
b. slice thickness artifact
c. section thickness artifact
d. ghosting artifact

A

ghosting artifact

194
Q

What is the range of frequencies created by medical diagnositc Doppler transducers?

a. 4-10 Hz
b. 10-20 MHz
c. 1-10 kHz
d. 2-20 Hz
e. 2-10 MHz

A

2-10 MHz

195
Q

(True or False) Doppler shifts are always created when the source and receiver are in motion relative to each other.

A

False

196
Q

What is the significance of gray scale variation in the spectrum of a pulsed wave Doppler display?

a. it represents the number of red blood cells creating the reflection
b. it represents the velocity of red blood cells
c. it represents the speed of red blood cells
d. it represents the convergence of red blood cell lamina
e. it determines the ensemble length

A

it represents the number of red blood cells creating the reflection

197
Q

Which one of the following sets of properties of a test phantom is most relevant when assessing depth calibration accuracy?

a. reflector spacing and reflection coefficent
b. attenuation and speed of US in the medium
c. reflector spacing and US attenuation in the medium
d. reflector reflection coefficient and US attenuation in the medium
e. reflector spacing and propagation speed

A

reflector spacing and propagation speed

198
Q

Assuming a constant frequency, what happens if the diameter of an unfocused circular transducer is increased?

a. the distance to the far field is reduced
b. the beam width in the near field is reduced
c. the beam width in the near field is increased
d. the US wavelength is increased

A

the beam width in the near field is increased

199
Q

From a safety standpoint, which one of the following methods is best?

a. low transmit output and high receiver gain
b. high transmit output and low receiver gain
c. high near gain and low far gain
d. low near gain and high far gain
e. high reject and high transmitter output

A

low transmit output and high receiver gain

200
Q

The relative output of an US instrument is calibrated in dB and the operator increases the output by 60 dB. The beam intensity is increased by which of the following?

a. 5%
b. two times
c. twenty times
d. one hundred times
e. one million times

A

one million times

201
Q

what is the most typical Doppler shift measured clinically?

a. 3.5 MHz
b. 3,500,000 Hz
c. 2 kHz
d. 1,000 kHz
e. 20,000 Hz

A

2 kHz

202
Q

(True or False) Doppler shifts always occur if the source and receiver are in motion relative to each other.

A

False

203
Q

(True or False) Doppler shifts always occur if the source and observer are in motion relative to each other and the angle between the motion and the sound beam is 90 degrees

A

False

204
Q

(True or False) Doppler shifts always occur if the source and observer are in motion relative to each other and the angle between the motion and the sound beam is not 90 degrees

A

true

205
Q

When the sound source and the receiver are not moving directly towards or away from each other, the ____ of the angle between them enters into the calculation of Doppler shift.

a. average
b. slope
c. sine
d. cosine

A

cosine

206
Q

The range equation relates distance from the reflector to ___ and ____.

a. time of flight, distance
b. frequency, wavelength
c. time of flight, propagation speed
d. propagation speed, density

A

time of flight, propagation speed

207
Q

In soft tissue: distance traveled = ____ X round trip time

a. propagation speed
b. wavelength
c. period
d. PRF

A

propagation speed

208
Q

With the presence of ____ we see more boundaries than there are reflecting surfaces.

a. reverberations
b. shadowing
c. enhancement
d. arrays

A

reverberations

209
Q

What is another name for longitudinal resolution?

a. axial
b. depth
c. lateral
d. transverse

A

axial or depth

210
Q

What are the units of longitudinal resolution?

a. hertz
b. rayls
c. m/s
d. feet

A

feet

211
Q

Which of the following is the best lateral resolution?

a. 15 mm
b. 6mm
c. 0.06cm
d. 2cm

A

0.06 cm

212
Q

If the spatial pulse length is 10mm, what is the axial resolution?

a. 0.5cm
b. 5 cm
c. 10 mm
d. 1 cm

A

0.5 cm

213
Q

If the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of radial resolution is

a. increased
b. decreased
c. unchanged

A

increased

214
Q

A transducer ___ one form of ____ into another.

A

converts; energy

215
Q

The production of a voltage from deformation is called?

a. piezoelectricity
b. impedance
c. cogeneration
d. flux

A

piezoelectricity

216
Q

What is the production of deformation from voltage called?

a. piezoelectricity
b. impedance
c. cogeneration
d. flux

A

piezoelectricity

217
Q

Which is not a part of a transducer?

a. active crystal
b. matching layer
c. A/D converter
d. wire

A

A/D converter

218
Q

What is the fraunhofer?

a. focus
b. near zone
c. far zone
d. penetration depth

A

far zone

219
Q

If we increase the frequency, the near zone length is:

a. increased
b. decreased
c. unchanged

A

increased

220
Q

If the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at its smallest dimension is:

a. increased
b. decreased
c. unchanged

A

increased

221
Q

If we increase the transducer diameter, the beam diameter in the far zone is

a. increased
b. decreased
c. unchanged

A

decreased

222
Q

At the focus the beam diameter is ____ the transducer diameter.

a. equal to
b. half
c. double
d. one fourth

A

half

223
Q

Lateral resolution can be improved by:

a. increasing gain
b. decreasing gain
c. focusing
d. smoothing

A

focusing

224
Q

(True or False) the digital scan converter has a number of pixels assigned to each bit.

A

False

225
Q

The more bits per pixel:

a. the better the resolution
b. the higher the pixel density
c. the more shades of gray
d. higher reliability

A

the more shades of gray

226
Q

The more pixels per inch:

a. the better the temporal resolution
b. the better is the spatial resolution
c. the more shades of gray
d. the higher the reliability

A

the better is the spatial resolution

227
Q

Rectification and smoothing are components of which of the following?

a. amplification
b. decompensation
c. reject
d. demodulation

A

demodulation

228
Q

What is the elimination of voltages that do not exceed a certain level?

a. amplification
b. decompensation
c. reject
d. demodulation

A

reject

229
Q

What is the name of the receiver function that corrects for attenuation?

A

compensation

230
Q

The process of reducing the difference between the smallest and largest voltages is called ____.

A

compression

231
Q

If the lines per frame is increased while the imaging depth is unchanged then:

a. frame rate increases
b. number of shades of gray
c. the frame rate decreases
d. this cannot happen

A

the frame rate decreases

232
Q

(True or False) A mirror image artifact can appear along side of the true anatomy.

A

False

233
Q

Enhancement, multipath and side lobes result in:

a. image distortion
b. clearer image
c. artifact
d. resolution problems

A

artifact

234
Q

The propagation speed of US in the AIUM test object is:

a. 1 m/s
b. 1.54 m/s
c. 1.54 mm/microsecond
d. 1 km/s

A

1.54 mm/microsecond

235
Q

If wires in an AIUM test object do not appear in the same place as on the display, what is amiss?

a. registration accuracy
b. dynamic range accuracy
c. near gain
d. gray scale dynamic range

A

registration accuracy

236
Q

How many data bits are needed to represent 46 gray shades?

a. 46
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8

A

6

237
Q

The Fresnel is the:

a. focus
b. near zone
c. far zone
d. penetration depth

A

near zone

238
Q

Which of the following is associated with cavitation?

a. thermal index
b. snells law
c. Avagadro’s number
d. mechanical index

A

mechanical index

239
Q

Which of the following best describes the mechanistic approach to the study of bioeffects?

a. cause-effect
b. exposure-response
c. risk-benefit
d. causation-reaction

A

cause-effect

240
Q

Which of the following best describes the empirical approach to the study of bioeffects?

a. exposure-response
b. cause-effect
c. risk-benefit
d. effect-microstreaming

A

exposure-response

241
Q

The interaction of microscopic bubbles and ultrasound form the basis for cavitation bioeffects. Which of the following forms of cavitation are most likely to produce microstreaming in the intracellular fluid and shear stresses?

a. stable cavitation
b. normal cavitation
c. transient cavitation
d. inertial cavitation
e. active cavitation

A

stable cavitation

242
Q

All of the following are true of normal cavitation except:

a. harmful bioeffects are commonly observed
b. it is also known as inertial cavitation
c. only a 10% increase in pressure is needed to convert to this form stable cavitation
d. temperatures in the thousands of degrees are created
e. it is consistent with shock waves

A

harmful bioeffects are commonly observed

243
Q

Which of the following has the greatest output intensity?

a. b-mode
b. gray scale imaging
c. CW Doppler
d. pulsed Doppler

A

pulsed Dopper

244
Q

You enter a hospital room to perform an ultrasound exam. Which of the following should you do first?

a. check the room number
b. ask a nurse to confirm the patients name
b. ask the patient if they speak English
d. check the patients wristband for identification

A

check the patients wristband for identification

245
Q

You enter a room only to find that the patient does not speak english. Which of the following is best to obtain informed consent?

a. call for a hospital interpreter
b. use sign language
c. obtain it form a bilingual family member who is in the room
d. point to the signature line of the consent form and have the patient sign it

A

cal for a hospital interpreter

246
Q

What is the meaning of a thermal index = 3?

a. tissue temp may rise 3 degrees farenheit
b. tissue temp will rise 3 degrees celsius
c. tissue temp may rise 3 degrees celsius
d. microbubbles 3mm in diameter will burst

A

tissue temp may rise 3 degrees celsius

247
Q

Ultrasound physics is nothing to fear and can almost be fun if you remember to:

a. pay your dues
b. pay the piper
c. pray

A

pay your dues