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35: Treatment of Bacterial Infection > questions > Flashcards

questions Flashcards

0
Q

what is the mechanism of action for aminoglycosides?

A

they inhibit bacterial proteins synthesis. to do this, they bind to a site on the bacterial ribosome that causes the genetic code carried by mRNA to be read incorrectly

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1
Q

what classification is Ceftin?

A

cephalosporin

-second-generation

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2
Q

_______ is used to detect yeast infections

A

gram strain

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3
Q

____ and _____ are used in the treatment of AIDS-related pneumonia.

A
  1. sulfonamides

2. trimethoprim

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4
Q

define: antibiotic

A

naturally occurring substance produced by a microorganism or semisynthetic substance derived from the microorganism that is capable of destroying or inhibiting the growth of another microorganism

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5
Q

in addition to a gram strain test, a ______ and _______ test may also be performed

A
  1. culture

2. sensitivity

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6
Q

T/F: infectious disease is still one of the leading causes of morbidity and mortality globally

A

true

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7
Q

what are risk factors increase the likelihood of infectious disease and decrease the likelihood for adequate treatment? (5)

A
  1. poverty
  2. malnutrition
  3. lack of clean water
  4. Poor sanitation
  5. inadequate housing
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8
Q

define: bactericidal

A

able to destroy bacteria

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9
Q

define: broad-spectrum antibiotic

A

antimicrobial that is capable of destroying a wide range of bacteria

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10
Q

what is the only aminoglycosides that is administered orally? what is it used for?

A

neomycin

-used to reduce the bacteria in the bowel prior to colorectal surgery

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11
Q

define: microbial resistance

A

ability of bacteria to overcome the bactericidal or bacteriostatic effects of an anti-infective. resistance traits are encoded on bacterial genes and can be transferred to other bacteria

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12
Q

what type of bacteria are third-generation cephalosporins most effective against?

A

gram-negative anaerobic bacteria

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13
Q

define: bacteriostatic

A

able to inhibit bacterial proliferation; host defense mechanisms destroy the bacteria

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14
Q

in developing countries what is a major cause of infant mortality?

A

infectious diarrhea

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15
Q

define: ribonucleic acid

A
  • RNA

- I nucleic acid involved in protein synthesis that carries and transfers genetic information and assembles proteins

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16
Q

what serious adverse reactions are linked to aminoglycosides?(2)

A
  1. loss of hearing (ototoxicity)

2. kidney damage (nephrotoxicity)

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17
Q

define: deoxyribonucleic asset

A
  • DNA

- The repository of hereditary characteristics; this nucleic acid contains the genetic blueprint

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18
Q

define: beta-lactamase

A

enzymes secreted by some microbes that has the ability to destroy beta-lactam antibiotics

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19
Q

gram-positive bacteria strain ______ and gram-negative bacteria strain ______.

A
  1. purple

2. pink

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20
Q

define: antimicrobial

A

A substance capable of destroying or inhibiting the growth of the microorganism

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22
Q

what are the third-generation cephalosporins?(4)

hint: generic names

A
  1. cefotaxime
  2. ceftazidime
  3. ceftriaxone
  4. cefixime
    - -also, cefpodoxime and ceftibuten(US only)
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23
Q

examples of infections treated by aminoglycosides are: (7)

A
  1. lower respiratory infection
  2. Peritonitis
  3. Septicemia
  4. meningitis
  5. pelvic inflammatory disease
  6. endocarditis
  7. Osteomyelitis
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24
Q

T/F: aminoglycosides are administered parenterally.

A

false

Aminoglycosides can be administered parenterally, orally or topical application for eye, skin, and ear infections

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25
Q

Effective treatment of bacterial infections is dependent on what three factors?

A
  1. host factors
  2. bacterial factors
  3. drug factors
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26
Q

what classification is Garasol?

A

Aminoglycoside

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27
Q

T/F: miss use of antimicrobial agents is a major cause for the development and spread of microbial resistance.

A

true

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28
Q

ophthalmic dosage forms of aminoglycosides are also prescribed for the treatment of ______ and ______.

A
  1. blepharitis

2. conjunctivitis

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29
Q

what classification is maxipime?

A

cephalosporin

-fourth-generation

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30
Q

why are aminoglycosides effective against aerobic bacteria and not anaerobic bacteria?

A

Aminoglycosides enter the bacterial cell via an oxygen dependent transport system.

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32
Q

Aminoglycosides are used for the treatment of serious infections of the…(8)
hint: tissues, organs, systems

A
  1. bone
  2. abdomen
  3. heart
  4. brain
  5. urinary tract
  6. reproductive system
  7. skin
  8. kidneys
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33
Q

misuse of antimicrobial agents is defined as the following.(5)

A
  1. inappropriate prescribing
  2. failure to complete full course of therapy
  3. administration of antibacterial agents for viral infections (eg., common cold)
  4. antibiotics in the food chain
  5. lack of guidelines for preventing the spread of infection in institutional care settings
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33
Q

T/F: aminoglycosides may also be administered to sterilize the bowel prior to bowel surgery

A

true

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34
Q

what is a common ending for aminoglycosides?

A

-mycin

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35
Q

T/F: Innate or nonspecific immunity is in place before a person is exposed to a particular harmful particle or condition.

A

true
The primary types of cells involved in innate immunity are epithelial barrier cells, phagocytic cells (neutrophils, macrophages), and natural killer(NK) cells

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37
Q

what classification is keflex?

A

cephalosporins

-first-generation

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38
Q

what are the second-generation cephalosporins?(3)

hint: generic names

A
  1. cefaclor
  2. cefoxitin
  3. cefuroxime
    - –also, cefotetan(US only)
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39
Q

_______ is needed for the bacterial synthesis of DNA.

A

Folic acid

-unlike humans, bacteria must synthesize their own folic acid; they cannot get it from external sources

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40
Q

___________ are anti folate drugs and _______ is a dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor.

A
  1. sulfonamides
  2. trimethoprim
    - both block the bacterial synthesis of folic acid
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40
Q

T/F: microbes can learn how to withstand the effects of antibiotics; currently, there exists superbugs that are resistant to any available antimicrobial agent.

A

true

-Multidrug resistance is a serious problem

42
Q

what drug classification does zyvoxam belong to?

A

oxazolidinones

43
Q

_____ is used for the treatment of tuberculosis

A

isoniazid

44
Q

what classification is Tobrex?

A

Aminoglycoside

45
Q

______ is the only glycopeptide antibiotic available

A

vancomycin

46
Q

second-generation cephalosporins are most effective against what type of bacteria?

A

gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

47
Q

what is the only fourth-generation cephalosporin?

hint: generic name

A

cefepime

49
Q

T/F: the oral absorption of fluoroquinolones is low.

A

false

Oral absorption is good, the half-life of newer agents (moxifloxacin) is long permitting once daily dosing.

50
Q

T/F: outdated tetracycline becomes less potent

A

false

becomes toxic

51
Q

cephalosporins are formulated for ____, ______, and ______ use.

A
  1. oral
  2. intramuscular
  3. intravenous
52
Q

what is a fourth-generation cephalosporin administered to treat?(2)

A
  1. pneumonia

2. urinary tract infections

53
Q

what classification is ceclor?

A

cephalosporin

-second-generation

55
Q

what drug classification is a Zithromax?

A

macro life’s and related anti-infectives

56
Q

what kind of bacterial infections are first-generation cephalosporins effective in the treatment of?(2)

A
  1. staphylococcal infections
  2. streptococcal infections
    of the skin and soft tissue
57
Q

which drug classifications are Beta-lactam antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis?(4)

A
  1. penicillins
  2. cephalosporins
  3. carbapenems
  4. monobactums
58
Q

______ may produce a metallic taste

A

metronidazole

59
Q

fluoroquinolones are indicated for the treatment of______. (6)

A
  1. urinary tract infections
  2. sinusitis
  3. sexually-transmitted infections
  4. bacterial conjunctivitis
  5. infectious diarrhea
  6. anthrax
    - and numerous other infections
60
Q

what drug classification is effective for treating gonorrhea?

A

third-generation cephalosporins

61
Q

what drug classification is Zymar?

A

fluoroquinolones

62
Q

what adverse reactions are produced by cephalosporins? (9)

A 
diarrhea
headache
dizziness
nausea
vomiting
gas
abdominal pain
dry mouth
heartburn
63
Q

ceph- and cef- are common beginings for what drug classification?

A

cephalosporins

64
Q

________ antibiotics are effective for treating aerobic gram-negative bacilli, staphylococci, and mycobacterium.

A

Aminoglycoside

65
Q

what classification is Suprax?

A

cephalosporin

-third-generation

66
Q

common side effects of linezolid include..(10)

A 
skin rash
itching 
change in taste
headache
mild diarrhea
dizziness
mild stomach upset
nausea
vomiting
temporary tongue discoloration
67
Q

the use of clindamycin is associated with the development _______ bacteria

A

C. difficile

-drinking plenty of fluids can lower the risk for development of this condition

68
Q

are common adverse reactions of fluoroquinolones? (8)

A 
diarrhea
crystalluria
photosensitivity
dizziness
drowsiness
headache
nausea
upset stomach
69
Q

______ is one of the first antibiotics discovered

A

pencillin

70
Q

fluoroquinolones are formulated for _____, _____ and _____ use.

A
  1. oral
  2. ophthalmic
  3. parenteral
71
Q

T/F: fluoroquinolones are contraindicated in children and pregnant women

A

true.

Cartlidge deformities and tendon rupture may occur in children and developing fetuses

73
Q

what are tetracyclines used for the treatment of?

A

STI- such as chlamydia
Lyme disease
Rocky Mountain spotted fever

74
Q

what drug classification is Levaquin?

A

fluoroquinolones

75
Q

what drug classification does biaxin belong to?

A

macrolides

77
Q

macrolide antibiotics are primarily used for the treatment of ______.

A

upper respiratory infections

78
Q

what are adverse reactions of tetracyclines?(4)

A

vomiting
diarrhea
nausea
photosensitivity

79
Q

T/F: oral penicillins are used to treat many infections, including upper respiratory infections, skin infections and strep throat

A

true.

also otitis media, and to prevent recurrent rheumatic fever.

80
Q

erythromycin is used for the prevention of _______ infections and _____ in addition to URI treatments

A
  1. neonatal eye infections

2. acne

81
Q

what is a common adverse reaction with the use of macrolides?

A

gastrointestinal(GI) upset

-they may also decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives

82
Q

what kind of bacteria are first-generation cephalosporins most effective against?

hint: bacteria type not infection type

A

gram-positive aerobic bacteria

83
Q

________’s may be administered before dental and other medical procedures to prevent bacterial endocarditis in individuals with prosthetic heart valves.

A

penicillins

84
Q

______ may be prescribed for pelvic inflammatory disease.

A

ampicillin

85
Q

Standard penicillins lack stability in gastric acids, which is why most are administered _______.

A

intramuscularly

–or must be taken on an empty stomach. The exception is penicillin VK, which is relatively acid stable

86
Q

penicillins that are formulated as powders for reconstitution have shortened expire ration dates. expiration dates range from ____ to ___ days, depending on the drug

A

10 to 14

87
Q

why are tetracyclines contraindicated in pregnancy and small children?

A

they can weaken fetal bone, retard bone growth, weaken tooth enamel, and strain teeth

88
Q

what are the most common adverse reactions to penicillins? (7)

A 
diarrhea
loss of appetite
nausea
vomiting
sore mouth
stomach gas
heartburn
-May also decrease effectiveness of oral contraceptives
89
Q

what 2 drugs are most effective against the bacterium H. influenzae?

hint: generic names

A
  1. azithromycin

2. clarithromycin

90
Q

what are some other adverse effects of penicillins?(4)

A
  1. superinfection
  2. hypersensitivity
  3. hematological reactions
  4. neurological reactions
91
Q

_______ is abbreviated as INH. (however use of acronyms may cause medication errors)

A

isoniazid

92
Q

______ are the oldest antimicrobial agents.

A

sulfonamides

-developed in 1930, use spread in 1940s(WWII)

93
Q

what are the first generation cephalosporins?(4)

hint: generic names

A
  1. cefazolin
  2. cefadroxil
  3. cephalexin
  4. cephalothin
94
Q

common adverse reactions with the use of sulfonamides are…(8)

A 
nausea
vomiting
abdominal pain
headache
drowsiness
dizziness
diarrhea
photosensitivity
96
Q

_____ destroys the protozoa that causes giardiasis (travelers diarrhea) and trichomoniasis (a STI)

A

metronidazole

97
Q

metronidazole is formulated for _____, _____, ______, and _____ use.

A

oral
parenteral
vaginal
topical

98
Q

what warning label should be applied to prescription vials for tetracycline?

A
  • avoid antacids and dairy product’s within two hours of dose
  • avoid tanning and prolonged exposure to sunlight
99
Q

isoniazid may cause ______ and ______. therefore concurrent administration of vitamin B6 is recommended.

A

liver disease

nerve damage

100
Q

Carbapenems are more effective against gram-_____ bacteria then other Beta-lactam antibiotic agents.

A

negative

-this is because they have a greater ability to penetrate the outer membrane of the bacteria

101
Q

T/F: first-generation cephalosporins do not penetrate the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in adequate concentration to treat meningitis.

A

true

…whereas most third-generation agents reach a high enough level

102
Q

The expiration date of powder for the oral suspension of erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin is ______ once the drug is reconstituted

A

shortened

103
Q

what type of infections are second-generation cephalosporins effective for treating?

A

upper respiratory infections such as Haemophilus influenzae

103
Q

A common ending for tetracycline drugs is _____.

A

-cycline

35: Treatment of Bacterial Infection (2 decks)

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