Questions 2013 Flashcards

1
Q

With horizontal root fracture, what happens to the apical portion?

A

Stays vital

PCO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Problems with retrograde preparation?

A

1) Angulation, Perforation of the root end/cavity prep (not following long axis of the tooth)
2) Insufficient depth for retention of the root end filling
3) Pressing tip too hard and not allowing to move freely- could result in dev of microfractures/cracks (Calzonetti says no)
4) Use without adequate irrigation causing extreme temperature rise in periradicular tissues
5) Inadequate preparation of isthmus if present, and non through debridement of tissue debris or failure to remove all GP
6) Chipping resected surface
7) Grooving resected surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 requirements to do retro preparation

A

1) 3mm of root end cleaned and shaped
2) Preparation parallel to pulp space
3) Remove isthmus of all tissue and filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Necrosis % in avulsed teeth according to Andreasen, after reposition?

A

Andreasen 1984
Monkey study
20% necrotic with immature apex
100% necrotic with mature apex

Histologic analysis showed that the extent of vital pulp was significantly related to the stage of root development, being almost complete in teeth with immature roots and almost totally lacking in young mature and mature teeth. Surface resorption was found with the same frequency in the different root development groups while inflammatory resorption was slightly more frequent in young mature teeth than in mature teeth, a finding possibly related to a protective action of a thick cementum layer in the mature teeth. Replacement resorption was found with almost the same frequency in the different root development groups in non-endodontically treated teeth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cranial trauma Signs and symptoms

A
Mild traumatic brain injury
•	Loss of consciousness for a few seconds to a few minutes
•	No loss of consciousness, but a state of being dazed, confused or disoriented
•	Memory or concentration problems
•	Headache
•	Dizziness or loss of balance
•	Nausea or vomiting
•	Sensory problems, such as blurred vision, ringing in the ears or a bad taste in the mouth
•	Sensitivity to light or sound
•	Mood changes or mood swings
•	Feeling depressed or anxious
•	Fatigue or drowsiness
•	Difficulty sleeping
•	Sleeping more than usual

Moderate to severe traumatic brain injuries
Any of the above PLUS any of these:
• Loss of consciousness from several minutes to hours
• Profound confusion
• Agitation, combativeness or other unusual behavior
• Slurred speech
• Inability to awaken from sleep
• Weakness or numbness in fingers and toes
• Loss of coordination
• Persistent headache or headache that worsens
• Repeated vomiting or nausea
• Convulsions or seizures
• Dilation of one or both pupils of the eyes
• Clear fluids draining from the nose or ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cushings triad indicates increased intracranial pressure (ICP)

A
  1. A change in respirations, often irregular and deep
  2. A widening pulse pressure (the difference between the Systolic and the Diastolic BP)
  3. Bradycardia (slow heart rate).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

apexification w/ CaOH2 Disadvantages

A

1) Length of time which may be variable (5-20mths)
2) Unpredictability of apical closure
3) Difficulty in patient follow-up
4) Delayed treatment
5) Decrease in flexural strength and modulus of elasticity of dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hemophelia characteristics

A

Hemophilia A: inherited deficiency Factor VIII (prolonged PTT)
Hemophilia B: inherited deficiency Factor IX (prolonged PTT)
–> x-linked, recessive
–> frequent, severe bleeds, internal bleeding and joints bleed, bruises, hematomas, swelngs
–> Prolonged PTT (intrinsic pathway)
Tx: multidisciplinary approach, schedule on the day patient receives factor replacement therapy, DDAVP, antifibrinolytic meds, hemostatic agents, avoid ASA, avoid IAN block, consider a surgical splint, avoid epi (rebound VD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

von Willebrand disease characteristics

A

vWD –> deficiency in vWF

–> Prolonged bleeding time (platelet aggregation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia

A

Sickle cell anemia –> abnormal hemoglobin S which remains deoxygenated. Abnormal RBC shape –> obstruction of microvasculature –> stasis –> organ damage
Patient can present with “bone pain” which can mimic tooth pain and bone patterns which can mimic apical periodontitis.
Radiographic changes: decreased trabeculation, thin inferior border of mandible, coarse trabecular bone pattern - step-ladder appearance between molar roots (prominant horizontal trabeculae), dense lamina dura.
Tx: consider pre/post-op antibiotics (want to treat infections agressively), keep appts short.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Leukemia

A

Abnormal WBC.

Can be:

  • lymphocytic (lymphocytes usually B cells)
  • myeloid (RBC, granulocytes, monocytes, platelets)
  • Acute (increased number of immature cells)
  • Chronic (increased number of mature, abnormal cells)

Symptoms may include bleeding and bruising problems, feeling very tired, fever and an increased risk of infections.

Dental manifestations:

  • Oral bleeding
  • Petechiae
  • Gingival swelling
  • Mucosal ulcers
  • Candidiasis / oral thrush
  • Oral infection is common

Management: Hematological infromation is needed before any surgical procedures. (increased bleeding tendencies and susceptibility to infection)
-Obtain med consult
-Antibiotic coverage (pre/post surgical)
Chose RCT over exo.
-avoid routine dental care for patient with acute symptoms and can proceed with indicated dental care once disease is under control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Anemia

A

Decreased RBC, decreased hemoglobin.

Caused by:

  • blood loss
  • hemolysis
  • ineffective hemopoiesis

Symptoms:
Usual symptoms are weakness, or fatigue, general malaise, and sometimes poor concentration. Can also present with dyspnea (shortness of breath) on exertion. Potentially increased cardiac output, palor, jaundice, pica (weird eating habbits)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Thalassemia

A

Decreased in production of alpha or beta chains of hemoglobin.

People with Thalassemia have overactive bone marrow leading to thick head and face bones –> malocclusion, macroglossia, spacing between teeth, weak arms that fracture easily.

They are often overloaded with iron due to frequent blood transfusions, and are usually on bisphosphonates.

Management: discuss tx plan with hematologist,

  • adjust treatment time with blood transfusion
  • antibiotic coverage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Multiple Myeloma

A

Plasma cell tumours – bone tumours, anemia, bleeding problems

Dental relevance - lesions in the jaw, pts on bisphosphonates, radiographic changes (generalized bone rarifaction, osteoporotic appearance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Perforation management

A

Repair perfs immediately (reduce chance of contamination, lesion formation, communication with oral env, etc)

Prognosis affected by:

1) Location of perforation
2) Time delay before perforation repair
3) Ability to seal the defect
4) Previous contamination with MOs
5) Size?
6) use of MTA

Mente 2014 –> 86% healed regardless of location (repaired with MTA0

Valerie Pontius 2013 –> 94% healing (multiple materials but mostly MTA) and 77% if location is crestal.

Krupp 2013 –> 73% healed overall, but prognosis decreases if there is a pre-op radiolucency around the perf, or if it communicates with the oral flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Clindamycin and pseudomembranous colitis

A

Pseudomembranous colitis is inflammation of the colon and often caused by an overgrowth of Clostridium difficile usually following the use of a broad spectrum antibiotic such as Clindamycin.

Risk factors: elderly, females with gatrointestinal disease, weakened immune system

Drugs implicated: cephalosporins, ampicillin, clindamycin, other penicillins, erythromycin and others.
• Watery diarrhea (bloody in some cases) >48 h
• Abdominal cramps, lower quadrant abdominal tenderness
• Fever, leukocytosis

TX: stop all antibiotics, refer to physician immediately, hydration. Most cases remit if antibiotic withdrawn early.

Treated with vancomycin 500mg QID p.o in first two days if severe or 125mg QID for 10-14 days; or metronidazole 500mg TID for 7-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ASA 300-325mg 1-2 q4-6h (effect on platelets)

A

ASA prevents platelet aggregation. It inhibits cyclooxygenase 1 and 2 enzymes (non specifically). The enzyme cyclooxygenase is needed for the generation of thromboxane, a product of platelets. Thromboxane, is needed to induce platelet aggregation.

ASA irreversibly blocks the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets producing an inhibitory effect on platelet aggregation. Mature platelets only express COX1 which is highly sensitive to low dose ASA.

650 mg of aspirin doubles the bleeding time for 4-7 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are 4 components of 2% Lidocaine 1:100,000 epi local anaesthetic carpule?

A
  1. Anaesthetic (Lidocaine)
  2. Vasoconstrictor (Epinephrine)
  3. Preservative (Sodium Bisulfate - only when epi is present)
  4. Vehicle to make solution isotonic (Distilled water,
    Sodium Chloride)

Plain anesthetic would only have 2 components (anesthetic and NaCl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Carbamide peroxide break down produces ammonia, urea, CO2 and what other product

A

hydrogen peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

mecanism of carbamide peroxide bleaching.

A

Acts as an oxidizing agent
10% Carbamide peroxide is most common

MOA: It is the hydrogen peroxide in carbamide peroxide which diffuses through the enamel and dentin producing free radicals which interact with pigment molecules breaking their double bonds.

It is possible that the refractory/relapse in bleaching may be due to reformation of these double bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are concerns with use of doxycycline in combination irrigants?

A
  1. resistance
  2. staining

(MTAD=Mixture Tetracycline (doxycycline) Citric Acid and Detergent)

It has been shown that if MTAD is used with NaOCl the antimicrobial effect of MTAD was lost due to oxidation of the MTAD by NaOCl

Doxycycline is only bacteriostatic

In vitro studies showed good antibacterial activity, later clinical studies showed a lesser antimicrobial effect (Malkhassian 2009)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

US – what is the energy called when a crystal is used and energy is converted into oscillation?

A

Piezoelectricity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Bystrom ’81 – give two conclusions that were drawn from his study.

A
  1. mechanical instrumentation and irrigation with saline reduced the number of bacteria in the root canal by 2-3 log
  2. supporting action of disinfectants would be necessary for successful removal of the bacteria from the root canal.
  3. There was no evidence that specific microorganisms were implicated in these persistent infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Langeland 1977-what was the correlation between inflammation and signs and symptoms?

A

there was no correlation between the presence of various inflammatory cells and the clinical signs and symptoms of the patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 3 prominent cells during low grade caries infection?

A

Caires is a chronic disease so we expect to see chronic inflammatory cells. During low grade caries, we expect a low-grade inflitration of mononuclear cells indicating a chronic infection. (Ricucci’s textbook) Mononuclear cells are lymphocytes and macrophages.

  1. T cells
  2. B Cells (plasma cells producing antibodies)
  3. Monocyte/Macrophages (ready to eat stuff.

NOT neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What effect does organic tissue have on sodium hypochlorite?

A

Inhibition Haapasalo 2010

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What effect does epinephrine have on different adrenergic receptors?

A

alpha-1 smooth muscle contraction (vascular)

alpha-2 smooth muscle mixed, cardiac relaxation

beta-1 (heart) increase cardiac output

beta-2 (lungs) smooth muscle relaxation bronchodilation

B3 thermogenesis

From Kim’s textbook: “in the oral mucosa 95% of adrenergic receptors are alpha-1 which respond to activation by causing vasoconstriction only 5% are beta-2 receptors” so the overall effect is vasoconstriction.

Other Drugs:
Terazosin (A1 antagonist): relaxes smooth muscle, decreases peripheral resistance

Clonidine (A2 agonist): used in the management of chronic pain. Decreases sympathetic tone. Decreases sympathetic outflow to heart

Propranolol: non selective beta blocker (decrease HR and CO while increasing airway resistance)

Atenolol: selective B1 blocker (decreases HR and CO with no effect on lungs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a meta-analysis?

A

Methods contrasting and combining results from different studies, in the hope of identifying patterns among study results, sources of disagreement among those results, or other interesting relationships that may come to light in the context of multiple studies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What types of studies in the Cochrane library?

A

A database of systematic reviews and meta-analyses which summarize and interpret the results of medical research.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Incidence of pulpal necrosis with root fracture and reference (did not specify horizontal or vertical)

A

20-23%

Andreasen 2004 (horizontal root fracture)

  • 22% necrosis
  • 43% PDL healing (connective tissue)
  • 30% hard tissue (bone)
  • 5% bone healing/CT (bone and connective tissue)

Cvek and Andreasen 2001

  • 23% necrosis and inflammation
  • 36% Interposition of PDL alone.
  • 8% Interposition of periodontal ligament (PDL) and bone.

Jacobson and Zachrisson
-20% necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Characteristics of Root fracture healing

A

Andreasen 1967

Type 1. Interposition of Hard tissue
Type 2. Interposition of Connective Tissue (most frequent)
Type 3. Interposition of mixed hard tissue and connective tissue
Type 4. Non healing with granulomatous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Jacobsen and Zachrisson (1974): What is the most common type of healing with horizontal root fracture?

A

Jacobsen and Zacchrisson 1975 said healing by CT (Type 2) is most common and pulp necrosis in coronal segment is 20%

86% developed PCO within 1-2 yrs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which type of luxation injury results in the highest risk of pulpal necrosis in immature root apices?

A

Avulsion then Intrusion

Andreasen 2006
Intrusion. Intrusive injuries result in an extremely high incidence of necrosis. Infection of the necrotic pulp will take place after a variable amount of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Incidence of “pulp infarction” and in what age group most common?

A

Pulp infarction: Occlusion of the apical vessels from sudden trauma leads to ischemia, the breakdown of capillary walls, the escape of erythrocytes, and the eventual conversion of hemoglobin to red granular debris which permeates the pulp tissue.

Andreasen 2012, Glendor 2008
Most common in
2-4 year olds (clumsy)
10-12 year olds (sports)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If your patient is taking daily 81mg aspirin, how long do you wait to give an NSAID?

A

Give ibuprofen:
8 hour before ASA (to allow ibuprofen to clear the system)
30 minutes after ASA (to allow ASA enough time to bind COX – irreversibly)

ASA and ibuprofen use – according to AHA 2007 – rules for use of ibuprofen after low dose ASA. When can you give low dose ASA after Ibuprofen and vice versa? (2)
Because of an interaction between ibuprofen and ASA, an alternative NSAID should be used, or ibuprofen should be taken at least 30 min after or at least 8 h before ASA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

List 3 drugs that interact with Metronidazole

A
  • Warfarin anticoagulants- risk of bleeding. Monitor.
  • disulfuram (antabuse)- acute psychosis, confusion. Avoid.
  • phenytoin- increased effect of ph. Monitor.
  • Ethanol
  • lithium.
  • cimetidine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Complications and management of IANB

A

Trismus (intramuscular injection, hemmorage)
Diplopia (injection in maxillary artery)
Lingual nerve paraesthesia (trauma to ling. n)
Facial palsy (inection into parotid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is it, what disease may it cause, is there a risk for endo,

A

Pathogenic isoform (PrP) of a common host cell receptor, which causes acquired iatorogenic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease. (infectious, transmissible particle, that lacks nucleic acid and is composed exclusively of a modified isoform of the noninfectious cellular prion protein (PrPc).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are two conclusions made in the 2011 AAE/CAE joint position statement regarding prions?

A

f

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Are there any studies that show prions are in pulp?

A

f

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How do manufacturers ensure that instruments are single use?

A

By including a thermosensitive part.

42
Q

What antimicrobial is most often prescribed for a facial bite (does not specify what type of bite)

A

Amoxicilin/Clavulonate
500mg bid or 250mg tid
500mg dose has 500mg amoxil and 125 mg clavulanic acid

43
Q

> What is the most commonly used antibitiotic for orofacial infections?

A

Amox 500TID

From Dar-Odeh 2010 “Antibiotic prescribing practices
by dentists: a review”

“The most commonly used antibiotic in dental practice,
penicillins in general, were found to be the most commonly
prescribed antibiotics by dentists,16,17,20 the most popular one being amoxicillin,8,9,16,18,21,22 followed by penicillin V,11,12,23 metronidazole,8,9 and amoxicillin and clavulanate.28”

44
Q

What antibiotic is the broad spectrum version of the one above?

A

Amoxi/clav 500TID

45
Q

List 3 types of sensory nerves in tooth

A

a) Aβ – large myelinated, primarily respond to hydrodynamic stimuli (Narhi 1985)
b) Aδ – smaller and slower than Aβ, lightly myelinated,
c) C – unmyelinated, slowest

46
Q

Movement of dentinal and pulpal fluid caused by clinical prodedures

A

cold, touch, paper points, air –> outward (a delta)

heat –> inward (c-fibers)

47
Q

Clotting question

A

Intrinsic pathway (all components are within the blood)
(contact activation pathway) plays a minor role.
Tested by partial thromboplatin time (PTT)
Affected by Heparin and Hemofelia A, B
12–>11–>9–>8–>10+5–>2–>1+13

Extrinsic pathway (requires thromboplastin-VII which is not in the blood)
Tissue Factor+7–>10+5–>2–>1+13
Tested by prothrombin Time (PT) or INR
Affected by Coumadin

48
Q

List 6 ideal properties of an irrigant

A

Be an effective antimicrobial agent
Be nonirritating to the periapical tissues
Remain stable in solution
Be active in the presence of blood, serum, and tissue proteins
Not interfere with repair of PA tissues
Have low surface tension
Be able to remove smear layer, disinfect dentin and the tubules
Have no adverse effects on the physical properties of dentin
Have no adverse effects on the sealing ability of filling materials
Have convenient application
Be inexpensivel

49
Q

What can you do to NaOCl to make it more effective?

A
increase temperature
increase concentration 
refresh the solution (larger volume)
use a freshly prepared solutions
increase the time of administration
activate it using manually or using sonic or ultrasonic devices
50
Q

Does buffering hypochlorite make a difference in effectiveness? authors?

A

No!
Mattias Zhender 2002 says so.

buffering decreases shelf life to 1 week and does not increase the antibacterial effect significantly if at all

51
Q

Composition of dentin and percentage of organic and inorganic components?

A

By weight:

70% inorganic
–> principal component Calcium Hydroxyapatite

20% organic
–> (91% collagen,9% other)
Type 1 collagen (Type V minor component)
Glycoproteins, proteoglycans, dermatran sulfate, heparan sulfate, keratan sulfate, chondroitin sulfate

10% water

By volume:
45%
33%
22%

52
Q

List 5 chemical mediators on vasculature and their origin.

A

Neuropeptides:

  • Substance P (Sensory N - A-delta, C fibers) vasodilation
  • Neurokinin A (Sensory N - A-delta, C fibers) vasodilation
  • CGRP (Sensory N - A-delta, C fibers) vasodilation
  • Neuropeptide Y (sympathetic N) vasoconstriction
  • VIP (parasympathetic nerves) vasodilation

Others
Histamine (Mast cells basophils and platelets) vasodilation

Nitric Oxide vasodilation

epinephrine (sympathetic N) vasoconstriction

Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine [5-HT]) serotoninergic nerve terminals, endothelial cells, platelets - vasoconstriction

Endothelin
Location: endothelium
Action: vasoconstriction

53
Q

• Is EDTA a strong antimicrobial? Does EDTA have strong antimicrobial properties?

A

No Torabinejatd 2003

54
Q

Histology of pulpitis (describe 5 things)

A

1) Structural changes in odontoblast layer (thick layer reparative dentine) or reactive dentine
2) Presence of macrophages
3) Neutrophils (recognized by their lobed nuclei) are key feature in early response to caries
4) Mast cells may be present
5) Sometimes an apparent dilation of local blood vessels may be seen (hyperaemia)

55
Q

What is a biofilm?

A

A sessile multicellular (single species or multispecies) community of bacteria that are attached to a surface and firmly imbedded into an self produced matrix, extracellular polimeric substance (EPS) and separated by water channels.

56
Q

Define quorum sensing, explain mechanism and give example.

A

Coordination of gene expression according to population density. Can be referred to as a decentralized decision making process.

Mechanism: Bacteria constitutively produce certain inducers (oligopeptide autoinducers/pheromones). As the bacterial population grows, the inducer concentration in the immediate vicinity increases. When inducer concentration passes a certain threshold, a positive feedback loop stimulating production of more inducer molecule takes place. This leads to upregulation of gene expression in all cells. Interspecies communication can also occur.

Example: Bacteria can amass a high cell density before virulence factors are expressed to orchestrate a consolidated attack to overcome host defences.

57
Q

Discuss how ultrasonics work

A

Piezoelectric: (crystals subjected to voltage)

Generation of stress in dielectric crystals subjected to an applied voltage

Magnetostrictive: (metal subjected to magnet)

Generated by the deformation of a ferromagnetic material subjected to a magnetic field

58
Q

Uses of USonics in endo.

A

PUI
Retro preparation
Posts/Broken instruments removal
Active preparation, removing dentin during CS

59
Q

Does increase in intensity of PUI lead to improved irrigation dynamic – give quote.

A

No,
Ahmad et al., 87
Lea et al., 2004

60
Q

Why air water and removing posts? (2)

A

Heat build up and transmission to PDL (prevention)

61
Q

Define cavitation and acoustic streaming

A

Cavitation is the impulsive formation and subsequent collapse of gas-filled bubbles in a liquid caused by tensile forces induced by high-speed flow or flow gradient.

Acoustic microstreaming: Rapid movement of fluid in a circular or vortex-like motion around a vibrating file Walmsley, 87

They both cause shear stress along the root canal wall, removes debris and bacteria from walls.

62
Q

Which has a bigger role in irrigation? (acoustic streaming or cavitation)

A

acoustic streaming
According to Ahmad (1987), acoustic streaming had a more important role than cavitation. In a subsequent study (1988) Ahmad showed that cavitation did not provide better canal cleanliness when compared to the control group.

63
Q

How do ultrasonics work in apical surgery?

A

It is used for root end preparation to prepare a class I cavity

64
Q

Discuss the different materials of US tips

A

The tips are manufactured from a range of metal alloys, such as stainless-steel and titanium alloys, and can be coated with an abrasive such as diamond or zirconium nitride in order to increase the cutting efficiency of the tip. A new innovation in ultrasonic tip surface texture is the creation of microprojections on the tip body instead of zirconium nitride or diamond grit coatings.

  • Stainless steel (smooth - silver)
  • Titanium (pro-ultra or CPR tips - colourful) flexible and strength of a titanium alloy and can be thin
  • Diamond coating - diamonds adhere to the surface of the tips resulting in a slightly larger diameter. Diamond coated tips cut much faster, and left a more grooved or rough cavosurface (when compared to stainless steel tips). Diamond coating wears off.

•Zirconium nitride coating (golden) - Zirconium nitride is processed into the metal making the tip narrower. It helps increase cutting efficiency. A drawback of the Zirconium coated tip versus the rough diamond coated tip is its ineffectiveness in removing gutta-percha.

65
Q

What are some errors that may occur during resection/retro-prep?

A

incomplete resection of the apex, angle, depth, no removal of tissue/gp/isthmus, grooving, missed canal, etc.

66
Q

List 2 goals for success of regeneration

A

1) Elimination of symptoms and evidence of bone healing
2) triggering continued root develpment (length/width)
3) restoring functional competence of pulp tissue

67
Q

List 4 conditions required for success of regeneration

A

1) Tooth with necrotic pulp and immature apex
2) Pulp space not needed for post/core or final restoration
3) Complaint patient/parent
4) Patient not allergic to medicaments and antibiotics needed for procedure

68
Q

How long would you expect it to take to get a positive sensibility test after revascularization? (2)

A

6 months (Torabinejad & Turman, 2011)

69
Q

How would you determine if your revascularization procedure was successful? (3)

A

Radiological exam, absence of symptoms, vitality

70
Q

List the antibiotic that causes staining in triple antibiotic paste. (and how to prevent staining)

A

minocycline.

  • Use special device to deliver paste and prevent contact with coronal dentin
  • Consider sealing pulp chamber with dentin bonding agent
  • Leave out minocycline from triple antibiotic paste or consider use of Ca(OH)2
  • Consider alternative use to MTA in anterior teeth with esthetics are of concern, as recommended in AAE regenerative guidelines (July 31, 2013) consider use of RMGIC
  • advise patient to monitor and come back early if discolouration occurs
71
Q

What is the ‘success’ of a tooth with a fractured instrument? Give a reference with approximate %. (2)

A

Spili and Messer 2005 – success rate on teeth with broken file did not differ from control teeth “in the hands of an experienced endodontist”

“overall healing rates were 91.8% for cases with
a fractured instrument and 94.5% for matched controls” - not a stat sig difference.

72
Q

What is the key factor in determining the outcome (if an instrument was fractured)? (1)

A

Crump and Natkin 1970: Location and the prior debridement / shaping of the canal system

73
Q

Apical surgery success rate (2) Give references

A

Overall outcome of apicoectomy is around 75% (VonArx 2012, barone 2010, wang 2004etc.)

Outcome of MTA apicoectomy is in the low 90%. VonArx 2012, VonArx 2014

74
Q

List 6 prognostic factors for surgery

A

1) Choice of root-end filling material (MTA better outcome) (VonArx 2012-2014, Chong 2003)
2) Length of the root filling (inadequate better outcome) (Barone 2010, Wang 2004)
3) Age of the patient (>45 better outcome) (Barone 2010)
4) Size of bone crypt (<3mm better outcome) (VonArx 2012)
7) Pre-operative pain (Von Arx 2007)
8) Level of apical resection and degree of beveling (Kim and Kratchman 2006)
9) Second Time Surgery (Peterson 2001 or Gagliani 2005 59%)
10) root end filling placed (friedman 2008)
11) use of magnification (Von Arx 2010)
12) endodontic retreatment before surgery (VA2010)

75
Q

According to Fuss and Trope 1996, what are 3 factors that determine success of perforation repair? (3)

A

time size location

76
Q

List 4 clinical features of trigeminal neuralgia, migraine headaches, TMD, shingles

A
  • Trigeminal neuralgia
  • Unilateral
  • stabbing electric shocks, burning, pressing, crushing, or shooting pain that becomes intractable.
  • non painful stimulus on intraoral or extraoral trigger point
  • lasts seconds to minutes and can repeat hundreds of times/day
  • Migraine
  • usually unilateral
  • sensitivity to light
  • exertion makes it worse
  • can be assoc with aura
  • lasts from 2-72 hours
  • nausea vomiting photophobia
  • women 3x> men
  • ptosis can occur in ocular migrane
  • TMD
  • Pain or tenderness in the face, TMJ area, neck and shoulders, and in or around the ear when you chew, speak, or open your mouth wide
  • Limited ability to open the mouth very wide
  • Clicking, or grating sounds in the TMJ when opening or closing the mouth (+/- pain)
  • Aching pain in the face, Ear ache or Headache (particularly in the morning)
  • Shingles
  • Unilateral painful skin with paraesthesia
  • (pain that lasts >3 mo is considered post herpetic neuralgia)
  • Dermatome pattern
  • Prodromal pain can mimic dental pain
  • Skin eruptions intra and extra-orally
  • Chronic, burning pain can persist after lesions disappear
77
Q

What is the most common age for shingles

A

60+

78
Q

What virus causes shingles?

A

Varicela zoster

79
Q

Give 4 features of temporal arteritis. (4)

A

Throbbing headache on one side of the head or the back of the head
•Fever, malaise and excessive sweating
loss of appetite and weight loss
•Jaw pain or painful jaw muscles
•Vision difficulties: Blurred vision, Double vision, Reduced vision and hearing difficulties
•temples are sore to touch
•dx by histology and clinical symptoms (giant cells)

80
Q

Give 4 features of acute sinusitis. (4)

A

1) Headache/facial pain, toothache, pain behind the eyes or pressure of constant, or aching sort
2) Pain is localized to the sinus and may worsen when the person bends over or lying down, may cross with time.
3) Precipitated by an earlier upper respiratory tract infection
4) Fatigue and generally not feeling well +/- Fever
5) Nasal stuffiness and discharge

81
Q

60kg pregnant patient in second trimester. Which 2 local anesthetics would you use?

A

2% Lidocaine 1:100,000 epi

4% Prilocaine Plain or 1:200,000 epi

82
Q

Calculate epinephrine concentration in mg/ml of 2 carpules of 1.8mL 2% Lidocaine with 1:100,000 epi. Show calculations

A

1000mg/100000ml=0.01mg/ml

0.01mg/ml x 3.6ml = 0.036mg of epinephrine

83
Q

What is the max number of carps you can use for both anaesthetics (lido, prilo)? Show calculations

A

Max dose of lidocaine is 7mg/kg
Max dose of prilocaine is 8mg/kg
in a 70 kg paitent.

Lidocaine:
7mg/kg x 70kg = 490mg in total
2% lidocaine is 20mg/ml 
each carpule therefore has 20mg/ml x 1.8ml = 36mg 
490/36=13.5 carpules
Prilocaine
8mg/kg x 70kg = 560mg in total
4% prilocaine is 40mg/ml
each carpule therefore contains 40mg/mlx1.8ml = 72mg
560/72=7.7 carpules
84
Q

Sidefects of LA

A

Overdose
Allergy
Paresthesia
Methemoglobinemia (prilocaine, articaine, benzocaine

LA interactions
Cimetidine, beta-blockers,
Antidisrhythmics
Cholinesterase inhibitors

85
Q

Side effects of epi

A
Epi – side effects
•	Cardiovascular reactions
•	Toxicity
Epi – interactions
•	Alfa-adrenergic blockers
•	COMT (cathecolamine O-methyltransferase) inhibitors
•	CNS stimulants
•	Cocaine
•	Tricyclic antidepressants
•	Non-selective beta blockers
86
Q

List 3 pulp responses to caries

A
  • Retraction of odontoblast process with loss of odontoblast and flattened morphology
  • Calcific metamorphosis
  • Tertiary dentin formation
  • Increase in cellularity of the cell free zone of Weli by fibroblasts
  • Could also mention inflamatory cells
  • Vasodilation of arterioles
87
Q

List 6 factors affecting the progression of caries

A
  1. Acidic environment
  2. Salivary flow
  3. Presence of fermentable carbohydrates
  4. Type of bacteria (Strep. Mutans, Lactobacillus)
  5. Dentinal tubule size
  6. Fluoride
  7. Exposed dentin
  8. Poor oral hygiene
  9. Deep pits and fissures
88
Q

List 5 spaces leading to cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

Desa 2012.
The causes of CST are infectious or aseptic. Aseptic causes typically occur after surgery and after trauma.1 and 2 Infectious causes include sinusitis, otitis, odontogenic sources, facial furuncles, and erysipelas.
Odontogenic sources have been reported to be responsible for up to 10% of cases.

A network of valveless veins unites the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus through the foramen ovale and the foramen lacerum. Infection can spread through these emissary veins or through the ophthalmic veins via the angular vein.

Any spaces in close proximity to these areas therefore are candidates for spread:

Most likely:

  1. infraorbital
  2. , 3., 4. Masticator Space” (masseteric space, pterygomadibular and temporal”)

Lesss likely
5 lateral pharyngeal

Treatment includes
Surgery
Antibiotics
Steroids
Anticoagulants (eg. heparin)
89
Q

What is Ludwig’s angina

A

Ludwig’s angina is an aggressive infection involving sublingual, submandibular and submental spaces bilaterally.

90
Q

Ludwig’s angina, name the five spaces and name the boundaries of the spaces

A

Submental – mylohyoid muscle superiorly, anterior bellies of the digastric laterally, platysma inferiorlly

Sublingual – Lateral – body of mandible/ Medial – base of tongue/ Inferior- mylohyoid muscle/ Superior – mucosa of the floor of the mouth

Submandibular – Lateral: superficial fascia and body of mandible/ Medial: mylohyoid muscle/ Superior: mylohyoid line/ Inferior: hyoid bone

Pharyngeal – Superior: base of skull/ Inferior: hyoid/ Medial: pharynx/ Lateral:medial pterygoid m.

Cervical spaces – comprise pretracheal, retrovisceral, danger and prevertebral spaces.

91
Q

An instrument is rotating in a canal and the tip binds, but the motor continues to rotate. As a results the instrument fractures – what is this type of fracture called? (1)

A

Torsion stress is the stress on the instrument when it is bound at the tip and rotated about its axis.

Torsional fracture.

92
Q

An instrument is rotating in a curved canal and the tensile and compressive stresses that occur as a result cause fracture – what is this type of fracture called? (1)

Does this type of fracture increase or decrease when the degree of curvature increases? (1)

Does the fracture resistance increase or decrease when the diameter of the file is increased? (1)

A

Cyclic fatigue fracture occurs when an endodontic instrument rotates in a curved canal. In this condition, the instrument under elastic deformation is subjected to a mechanical load represented by alternating tensile and compressive stresses. The cyclical repetition of the load leads to instrument fracture through low-cycle fatigue. The cyclic fatigue resistance comprises the number of cycles that an instrument can endure under a specific loading condition until fracture occurs. Because the number of cycles to fracture is cumulative, it can be calculated by multiplying the rotation speed by the time elapsed until fatigue fracture occurs. (Lopes 2010)

Increases

Decreases

93
Q

• What do radial lands do?

A

Reduce screwing tendency, Reduce microcracks, support for cutting edge, slower but safer

decrease flexibility

Help to center the file.

94
Q

• How does a wide land affect flexibility and friction?

A

More friction, less flexibility

95
Q

Findings of Kuttler study

A

The center of the apical foramen deviates from the apical vertex with increase in age

The diameter of the apical foramen increases with increasing age (due to increase in cementum

The minor foramen is located in the dentin and there is an increase/widening as it exits into the major foramen in the cementum

Because of the funnel shape the apical foramen cannot be hermetically filled unless it is overfilled with cement

Distance from center of apex to center of foramen 495 microns 607 microns (0.5-0.6mm)

96
Q

Byrnolf ’67 – what is the percentage of teeth that didn’t show inflammation? (1)

A

only 7%.

97
Q

Byrnolf ’67 – what is the percentage of teeth showed inflammation?

A

93%

98
Q

Green 1997: what percentage of teeth with normal radiographics findings showed NO inflammation

A

74%

99
Q

List 2 limitations to Brynolf’s (’67) results as described by Green ’97.

A

a) obturation techniques (chloropercha vs mostly GP)
chloropercha has been associated with leakage due to evaporation of solvent and GP shrinkage.

b) Brynolf only studied MX ANTERIOR teeth (which have a higher rate of failure)
c) 43% of the cases studied by Byrnolf displayed obturating material in the periapical tissues (poor control of material) vs 2/19 for Green.

100
Q

Patient was prescribed Amoxicillin for oral infection. 3 hours later, patient returns to your office with a rash and hives. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is this? Mechanism, Management

A
Type I (immediate hypersensitivity)
Mechanism (4  steps )
1. An allergic reaction to a re-exposure to a specific type of antigen called an allergen (Ingestion, inhalation, injection, or direct contact).
  1. An antigen is presented to CD4+ Th2 cells that stimulate B cell production of IgE antibodies specific to the allergen
  2. IgE binds to the Fc site of Mast cells and Basophils which become sensitized, releasing in degranulation and secretion of histamine, leukotrienes and prostaglandins.
  3. These cause Vasodilation (increased permeability) and Smooth Muscle relaxation. This can be localized or systemic when it’s severe.
    Management(5pts)

Management:

Suspend the use of amoxicillin
Administer Diphenhydramine hydrochloride 50mg every 4h for 1-3 days

If patient in acute distress give 0.3mg (1:1000) Epi IM
50mg diphenhydramine
give oxygen
call 911

101
Q

Siquera et al 2000. Chemomechanical reduction of the bacterial population in the root canal with instrumentation and irrigation with 1%, 2.5%, 5.25% sodium hypochlorite. What was the conclusion regarding bacteria and NaOCl? Siqueira ’00 – effect of 1% vs. 2.5%, 5.25% NaOCl on bacterial reduction? (2)

A

no significant difference between the three NaOCl solutions tested (p > 0.05).

Recommends larger volume if use low concentration to compensate

102
Q

86-Epithelial healing and CT healing – list 3 features of each and list 3 differences b/w them (table)

A

Epithelial healing
•Epithelial cells from the wound edges dedifferentiate and migrate across the fibrin clot.
•Migration stops when cells encounter epithelial cells from the other site. This forms an epithelial seal.
•Epithelial cells then differentiate, undergo accelerate mitosis and re-establish the layers of stratified squamous epithelium, forming the epithelial barrier.

Connective tissue healing
•Its initiation depend on the formation of epithelial seal and epithelial barrier
•Macrophages release factors that attract fibroblasts to the wound area.
•Fibroblasts produce initially Type III collagen and later type I collagen.
•Collagen synthesis stimulates angiogenesis
•As wound healing progresses, the ratio of macrophages to fibroblasts decreases and the fibroblast becomes the predominant cell in the healing wound site
Differences:
•Epithelial healing occurs first
•Epithelial cells are major cells on epithelia healing, macrophages and fibroblasts are major cells in connective tissue healing
•No vascular formation on epithelial healing