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VTNE RETAKE Qs > QUESTIONS > Flashcards

QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

in general, how many days should be allowed for diet changes in dogs and cats?

A

5 to 7 days

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2
Q

on average, an adult horse consumes approximately how many gallons of water per day?

A

10 to 15

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3
Q 
which of the following vitamins is/are water soluble?
A. vitamines A and D
B. vitamin E
C. vitamin B12
D. vitamin K
A

C. vitamin B12

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4
Q

patients with pancreatitis or hyperlipidemia should avoid foods high in what?

A

fats

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5
Q

what is the normal urine pH for a cat?

A

6.2

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6
Q

alfalfa is a palatable source of protein for herbivores. in what macromineral is alfalfa also abundant?

A

calcium

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7
Q

The vitamin C level in guinea pig food declines after how many months of storage?

A

3 months

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8
Q

which of these signs is not seen in fearful animals?
A. constricted pupils
B. standing or lying tensely at the rear of the cage
C. facing the back corner of the cage, glancing over the shoulder to keep people in sight
D. ears pulled back

A

A, constricted pupils

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9
Q

you are asked to infuse intravenously 500mL of fluids over 6 hours. The administration set is calibrated at 20 drops/mL. After 4 hours you observe that 150mL have been infused. What should the adjusted drip rate be?

A

58 drops/min

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10
Q

what condition is not exacerbated by obesity?

A

Hyperthyroidism

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11
Q

what species is least likely to require frequent cage cleaning?

A

gerbils

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12
Q 
adult males of what species should not be group-housed?
A. rats
B. mice
C. guinea pigs
D. gerbils
A

B. mice

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13
Q

the most important ingested nutrient is what?

A

water

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14
Q 
a dog experiencing shock my have fluid replacement provided by all of the following. The least desirable is:
A. crystalloids
B. Hypertonic saline
C. Dextrose
D. Colloids
A

C. Dextrose

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15
Q

a normal CVP range is?

A

0 to 10 cm H2O

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16
Q 
multiple parameters are measured to determine a category of shock that an animal may be experiencing. The central venous pressure is high in which of the following types of shock?
A. traumatic
B. Septic
C. Hypovolemic
D. Cardiogenic
A

Cardiogenic

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17
Q 
which of the following is a colloid solution?
A. blood
B. lactated ringers
C. nomosol-R
D. plasmalyte 148
A

A. blood

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18
Q

eclampsia produces elevated body temperatures, resulting from?

A

heat produced through muscle movement

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19
Q

the most common artery to use when assessing the pulse of a dog or cat is?

A

femoral

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20
Q

if a dog that recieves parenteral fluids is pyrexic, how much additional fluid should be added to the maintenance fluid dose?

A

10%

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21
Q 
which would be considered the least important physical measure evaluated during triage of a patient?
A. heart rate
B. respiratory rate
C. capillary refill time
D. weight
A

D. weight

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22
Q

normal urine output in cats and dogs is?

A

1 to 2 mL/kg/hr

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23
Q

petechial hemorrhage on the mucous membranes can indicate?

A

thrombocytopenia

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24
Q

crackles on thoracic auscultation indicate?

A

fluid in the lungs

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25
Q

what is the recommended dosage for intratracheal drug administration during cardiac arrest?

A

double the intravenous dosage

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26
Q

the scientific name of the mouse pinworm is?

A

Aspiculuris

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27
Q

a rabbit with purulent nasal discharge and conjunctivitis would most likely be affected by?

A

snuffles

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28
Q 
normal body temperature is highest in the:
A. Pigeon
B. Hamster
C. Rat
D. Rabbit
A

pigeon

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29
Q

animals that are free of absolutely all microorganisms and parasites are called?

A

axenic

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30
Q

4 to 5 mice housed together have large areas of alopecia on their muzzles. The most likely problem is?

A

barbering

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31
Q 
which of these is a zoonotic disease of sheep?
A. psittacios
B. orf
C. shigellosis
D. yellpw fever
A

B. Orf

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32
Q

the preferred temperature for most laboratory rodents is?

A

21*C

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33
Q

tyzzer’s disease is caused by?

A

Clostridium piliforme

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34
Q

what average weight do you expect your male adult mice and rats to be respectively?

A

30g and 500g

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35
Q

the gland of mice and rats that secrete prophyrin in the tears is?

A

Harderian gland

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36
Q

regarding anatomy of mice and rats,
A. mice have 5 pairs of mammary glands and rats have 6 pairs
B. the aglandular section of the stomach is rich in histamine-producing cells
C.mice and rats both pant and have sweat glands
D.rats and mice have a gall bladder

A

A. mice have 5 pairs of mammary glands and rats have 6 pairs

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37
Q

the gestation period, estrous cycle, and average litter size of hamsters, respectively, are about ___

A

16 days, 4 to 5 days, and 5 to 9 young

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38
Q

sinus arrhythmia occurs when?

A

heart and pulse rates increase with inspiration and decrease with expiration

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39
Q

the cages of immunocompromised animals should be cleaned when?

A

before cleaning the general nursing wards

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40
Q

milk fever is caused by what?

A

lower blood calcium level

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41
Q 
grass tetany in cattle:
A. occurs in midsummer
B. caused by low blood calcium level
C. caused by low blood magnesium level
D. occurs in midwinter
A

C. caused by low blood magnesium level

42
Q 
which of these IV fluids would increase oncotic (osmotic) pressure?
A.lactated ringers
B.5% dextrose in water
C.normal saline
D.hetastarch
A

D. hetastarch

43
Q

what sling is used to stabilize the coxofemoral joint?

A

ehmer

44
Q

what fluid should you choose to lavage a deep traumatic wound?

A

warm sterile saline

45
Q

which statement is true about rabies?
A. contact with infected urine is the most common mode of transmission
B. bites from suspected animals should be left untreated to prevent spreading the virus
C. rural dogs develop natural immunity to rabies because of their exposure to wild animals
D.dogs, cats, horse, and cows can transmit rabies, but rabbits, gerbils, hamster, and mice seldom do

A

D. dogs, cats, horse, and cows can transmit rabies, but rabbit, gerbils, hamster, and mice seldom do

46
Q

what bacterium that is pathogenic to humans is contracted from chicken, horses, and reptiles?

A

Salmonella

47
Q

a Wood’s lamp can be used to detect what condition in the dog?

A

ringworm

48
Q 
which of the following agents is not safe for cats?
A. halogens
B. coal tar
C. benzoyl peroxide
D. chlorhexidine
A

coal tar

49
Q

the function of the anal gland is to _____

A

produce a scented material to mark territory

50
Q

the main purpose of the x-ray fixer is to ______

A

clear away the unexposed, undeveloped silver halide crystals

51
Q

what should be the maximum intensity of the bulb in a safelight in developing rooms?

A

15 watts

52
Q

safelight fogging on a radiograph appears as a _____

A

diffuse grayish area

53
Q

if you were going to decrease the focal film distance from 100 cm to 50 cm, what should you new mAs be if the old mAs was 16?

A

4.0 mAs

54
Q

to get more density on a film, you should do what to the kVp and mAs?

A

increase either or both

55
Q

if using rare-earth screens, what spectrum of light must the film be sensitive to?

A

green range

56
Q

the crystals of high-speed screens, as compared to similar types of par screens are ____

A

bigger, and there is less detail

57
Q

for cervical studies you should center the primary beam at ____

A

C3 and C4

58
Q

an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is also referred to as a(n) _____

A

excretory urogram

59
Q

the film-focal distance for a dental radiograph machine is _____ inches

A

16

60
Q

the bisecting angle technique is associated with taking an x-ray of the ______

A

teeth

61
Q

a black “tree” pattern artifact on the film is caused by _____

A

static electrical charge

62
Q

the imaging technique that involves a plezoelectric crystal within a transducer is _____

A

ultrasound

63
Q 
images are displayed in real time in which of the following?
A.Ultrasound and fluoroscopy
B. CT and MRI
C. Scintigraphy
D. PET scan
A

A. ultrasound and fluoroscopy

64
Q 
which of the following involves no ionizing radiation to create the image?
A. Scintigraphy
B. CT
C. MRI
D. Fluoroscopy
A

C. MRI

65
Q

which joints must be included in a radiograph of the humerus?

A

the humeroradial and scapulaohumeral jionts

66
Q 
which drug is the most potent sedative?
A. xylazine
B. detomidine
C. acepromazine
D. diazepam
A

detomidine

67
Q

epidural techniques are used in many species, but the primary disadvantage in animals is ____

A

movement of the patient

68
Q

a 10% solution of thiopental sodium for anesthetic induction contains ____

A

100 mg/mL

69
Q

diazepam is used to produce what?

A

muscle relazation

70
Q 
epinephrine:
A, increased the heart rate
B. decreases the heart rate
C. decreases the blood pressure
D. should be used to reverse the effects of acepromazine
A

A. increases the heart rate

71
Q 
A diadvantage of breathing 50% nitrous oxide that is:
A. decrease the arterial PaO2
B. increases the arterial PaO2
C. slows the induction time
D> prolongs the recovery time
A

A. decreases the arterial PaO2

72
Q

apneustic breathing patterns are frequently seen in cats with us of ______

A

ketamine

73
Q

the dosage of Acepromazine is 0.1 mg.kg and the maximum dose is 4 mg. How many milligrams would you administer to a 60-kg dog?

A

4

74
Q

the most reliable sign of inadequate anesthetic depth is what?

A

responsive movement

75
Q

a half-full tank of nitrous oxide gas has a pressure of what?

A

750 psi

76
Q

precision vaporizers, such as those used for isoflurane, work correctly when placed where?

A

out of the circle

77
Q

an intravenous catheter should be:
A. large enough to allow adequate fluid delivery, if cardiac arrest occurs
B. as small as possible to avoid pain
C. place in critically ill patients only
D. left in place for at least 3 days after surgery

A

A. large enough to allow adequate fluid delivery, if cardiac arrest occurs

78
Q

the pressure of gas that enters the flowmeter of an inhalant anesthesic machine is ___

A

50 to 60 psi

79
Q

the best method for determining the proper inflation of an endotracheal tube cuff is ____

A

inject are while applying pressure from the reservoir bag until no air escapes around the tube

80
Q

the responsibilities of the anesthetist during surgical procedure include continuous monitoring of the patient’s vital signs and recording observations at approximately ____ intervals

A

5-minute intervals

81
Q

once extubated, all animals should be place in ____

A

sternal recumbency with the neck extended

82
Q

it is a cause for concern if an anesthetied cat;s heart rate falls below ____

A

100 bpm

83
Q 
malignant hyperthermia is a potentially fatal syndrome to the anesthetized patient, which of the species is most prone to this condition?
A. cattle
B. pigs
C.dogs
D. goats
A

B. pigs

84
Q

what stage of anesthesia may be characterized by vocalization, struggling, and breath holding?

A

stage II

85
Q

intravenous sodium bicarbonate is used to ____

A

combat acidosis

86
Q 
doxapram may produce all of the following except:
A. CNS depression
B. increase ventilation rate
C. respiratory alkalosis
D. hypoventilation
A

D. hypoventilation

87
Q

______ is an analgesic and sedative

A

xylazine

88
Q

______ is a concern when recovering a patient from anesthesia if nitrous oxide has been used

A

dissusion hypoxia

89
Q 
a patient's hydration status can be assessed by all of the following except:
A. repsiratory rate
B. PCV
C. Total soilds
D> skin turgor
A

A. respiratory rate

90
Q

a/an _____ in the blood stimulates the animal to take a breath

A

increase in carbon dioxide

91
Q

if the soda lime canister is exhauster, the patient may become _____

A

hypercapnic

92
Q

a small animal patient’s systolic blood pressure was measured at 50 mm HG. what is your best course of action?

A

increase the drip rate of the IV fluids

93
Q

the usual induction vaporizer setting for sevoflurane is _____

A

5% to 7%

94
Q

Acepromazine is classified as a (an) ____

A

phenothiazine

95
Q

a capnograph measures what?

A

expired CO2

96
Q 
which of the following is least commonly used in cattle to perform procedures?
A. sedation
B. restraint
C. general anesthesia
D. local anesthesia
A

C.general anesthesia

97
Q

by which route can short-acting barbiturate drugs be safely administered to induce general anesthesia?

A

IV

98
Q 
the ideal inhalant anesthetic should have all of the following characteristics except:
A. low vapor pressure
B. high solubility coefficient
C. low MAC
D. provide good muscle relaxation
A

B. high solubility coefficeint

99
Q

ideally, in a patient under anesthesia:
A. the PaO2 should be high, and the PaCO2 should be low
B. The PaO2 should be high, and the PaCO2 should behigh
C. the PaO2 should be low, and the PaCO2 shold be low
D. the PaO2 should be low, and the PaCO2 should be high

A

A. The PaO2 should be high, and the PaCO2 should be low

100
Q 
Which of the following is a component of a Bain anesthetic circuit?
A. a reservoir bag
B. unidirectional valves
C. oxygen flush valve
D. carbon dioxide absorber
A

A. a reservoir bag

VTNE RETAKE Qs (1 decks)

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