Questions

Question 1

Lowest layer of atmosphere is
a) Troposphere
b) Tropopause
c) Stratosphere

Answer 1

Troposphere

Question 2

Height of Tropopause at equator is
a) 10-12 km
b) 16-18 km
c) 12-14 km

Answer 2

16-18 km

Question 3

Height of Tropopause at Poles is
a) 12-14 km
b) 12-13 km
c) 08-10 km

Answer 3

08-10 km

Question 4

Higher the surface temperature…….. would be the tropopause
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Same

Answer 4

Higher

Question 5

Height of tropopause……..
a) Is constant
b) Varies with altitude
C) Varies with Latitude

Answer 5

Varies with Latitude

Question 6

Above 8 km the lower temperatures are over
a) Equator
b) Mid Latitudes
c) Poles

Answer 6

Equator

Question 7

Atmosphere is heated by
a) Solar Radiation
b) Heat from earth surface
c) From above

Answer 7

Heat from earth surface

Question 8

Tropos means……
a) Turning
b) Under current
c) Convection

Answer 8

Turning

Question 9

CO2 and H20 are also called
a) Green House Gases
b) Rare Earth Gases

Answer 9

Green House Gases

Question 10

Troposphere is generally
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Neutral

Answer 10

Unstable

Question 11

Stratosphere is
a) Unstable
b) Neutral
c) Stable

Answer 11

Stable

Question 12

Tropopause is discontinuous at about
a) 30°lat
b) 40° lat
c) 60°lat

Answer 12

40° lat

Question 13

Most of atmospheric mass is contained in …
a) Troposphere
b) Stratosphere
c) Heterosphere

Answer 13

Troposphere

Question 14

Stratosphere extends from Tropopause to
a) 50 km
b) 60 km
c) 40 km

Answer 14

50 km

Question 15

The middle atmosphere layer characterised by temperature inversion and stability…
a) Troposphere
b) Tropopause
c) Stratosphere

Answer 15

Stratosphere

Question 16

Mother of pearl clouds occur in.
a) Mesosphere
b) Thermosphere
c) Stratosphere

Answer 16

Stratosphere

Question 17

The temperature in ISA at 17 km is..
a) -56.5°C
b) -65.5° C
c) -35.5° С

Answer 17

-56.5°C

Question 18

By weight, approximate ratio of 02 to N2 in the atmosphere is
a) 1:3
b) 1:4
c) 1:5

Answer 18

1:3

Question 19

By volume, the approximate ratio of 02 to N2 in the atmosphere is
a) 1:3
b) 1:4
c) 1:5

Answer 19

1:4

Question 20

By volume, the proportion CO2 in the atmosphere is
a) 3%
b) 0.3%
c) 0.03%

Answer 20

0.03%

Question 21

In ISA, the mean sea level temperature is
a) 15° C
b) 10° C
c) 25°C

Answer 21

15° C

Question 22

Maximum concentration of ozone is at a height of….
a) 10-15 km
b) 20-25 km
c) 30-35 km

Answer 22

20-25 km

Question 23

Additional oxygen is needed while flying above
a) 5000 ft
b) 7000 ft
c) 10000 ft

Answer 23

10000 ft

Question 24

CO2 and H20 keep the atmosphere
a) Warm
b) Cold
c) Have no effect

Answer 24

Warm

Question 25

Noctilucent clouds occur in
a) Thermosphere
b) Mesosphere
c) Stratosphere

Answer 25

Mesosphere

Question 26

Temperature at 2 km is 05 °C what is ISA deviation. Hint : (Actual-ISA)
a) -05°C
b) -02° C
e) - 03°C

Answer 26

• 03°C

Question 27

Pressure at MSL is 1002.25 hPa. Find the ISA deviation. Hint : (Actual-ISA)
a) -11 hPa
b) 10 hPa
c) 12 hPa

Answer 27

-11 hPa

Question 28

In actual atmosphere temp, at 19 km is -60°C. How much it differs from ISA deviation?
a) -4.5°C
b) -05.5° C
c) -03.5°C

Answer 28

-03.5°C

Question 29

Nacreous clouds occur in
a) Thermosphere
b) Mesosphere
c) Upper Stratosphere

Answer 29

Upper Stratosphere

Question 30

The atmosphere up to 80 km has a nearly similar composition and is called the Homosphere. Its uniform composition is due to.
a) Pressure
b) Gravitation of earth
C) Mixing due to Turbulence

Answer 30

Gravitation of earth

Question 31

Half of the atmosphere, air mass is contained…….. below
a) 20,000 ft
b) 15,000 ft
c) 10,000 ft

Answer 31

20,000 ft

Question 32

In jet standard atmosphere the Lapse rate is
a) 2° С/1000 ft
b) 2° C/km
c) 5 ° C/km

Question 33

The rate of fall of temperatures with height, called
a) Isothermal rate
b) Inversion rate
c) Lapse rate

Question 34

In actual atmosphere the lapse rate could
a) assume any value
b) fall up to 8 km
c) rise up to 30 km

Question 35

Tropical Tropopause extends from the equator to lat 35° - 45º. over India it is at
a) 20 - 21 km
b) 14 - 15 km
c) 16 - 16.5 km

Question 36

Lapse rate in the troposphere is produce by… . and in the stratosphere by…..
a) evaporation; condensation
b）Rising air; solar radiation
c) terrestrial radiation; solar radiation; convection
d) solar radiation; convection

Question 37

Most of the water vapour in the atmosphere is confine upto
a) Stratosphere
b) 30,000 ft
c) mid troposphere
d) lower troposphere

Question 38

Negative lapse rate of temperature is
a) Isothermal rate
b) temperature rise with lowering height
c) temperature rise with increase in height (INVERSION)
d) temperature fall with height

Question 39

In ICAO ISA the atmosphere is assumed to be isothermal
a) In stratosphere
b) 11 to 16 km
c) 11 to 20 km
d)11 to 32 km

Question 40

One of the Characteristics of our atmosphere is
A) poor conductor of heat and electricity
b) equator is warmer than poles above 10 km
c) lapse rate in the stratosphere is positive
d) density is constant above 8 km

Question 41

Heat transfer in the atmosphere is maximum due to
A) convection
b) radiation
c) sensible heat
D) latent heat

Question 42

The knowledge of the height of tropopause is important for a pilot because
a) weather is mainly confined up to this level.
b) clouds rarely reach up to this height due to jetstreams.
C) stratosphere start at this height where all solar radiation are absorbed

Question 43

In ISA atmosphere the tropopause occurs at a height of
a) 8 - 10 km
B) 11 km
C) 16 - 18 km

Question 44

044) Lapse rate in the troposphere is due to……. and is the Stratosphere is due to …..
a) Conduction, convection
b) terrestrial radiation, solar radiation
c) Rising air, solar radiation
d) Water vapour, Ozone.

Question 45

There is reversal of temperature in the atmosphere at 8 km because
a) Lase rate at poles is always higher than at equator
b) Lapse rate at equator is always higher than at poles
C) Lapse rate at equator is always higher than at poles
d) Lapse rate reverses at poles and becomes negative

Question 46

2. ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE

Winds in a low pressure
a) Converge
b) Diverge
c) Go straight

Question 47

Low pressure is associated with
a) Good Weather
b) Bad Weather
c) None

Question 48

In a high pressure area winds are
a) Normal
b) Strong
c) Weak

Question 49

Flying from Low to High an altimeter would read
a) Over
b) Under
c) constant

Question 50

Isallobars are lines of equal
a) Pressure
b) Temperature Tendency
c) Pressure Tendency

Question 51

What kind of a barometer is an altimeter?
a) Aneroid
b) Mercury
c) Alcohol

Question 52

A region between two Lows and Two Highs is
a) Depression
b) Secondary Low
c) Col

Question 53

Bad weather and better visibilitv is associate with
A) High
b) Low
c) Col

Question 54

The relationship between height and pressure is made use in construction of
a) Altimeter
b) ASI
c) VSI

Question 55

Altimeter always measure the height of aircraft above
a) MSL
b) datum level of 1013.2 hPa
c) datum level at which it’s sub-scale is set

Question 56

Two aircraft flying at the same indicated altitude with their altimeter set to 1013.2 hPa. One is flying over cold air mass and other over warm air mass. Which of the two has greater altitude?
a) Ac flying over warm air mass
b) Ac flying over cold air mass

Question 57

The rate of fall of pressure with height in a warm air mass compared to cold air mass will be
a) Same
b) More
c) Less

Question 58

An increase of 1000 ft at msl is associated with decrease of pressure of
a) 100 hPa
b) 1000 hPa
c) 3 hPa
d) 33 hPa

Question 59

Lines drawn through places of equal pressure are known as
a) Isobars
b) Isotherms
c) Isogonal
d) Isoclinal

Question 60

Which is true
a) Trough has frontal characteristics
b) At trough winds back in N - hemisphere
c) At trough winds veer in N- hemisphere

Question 61

Semi Diurnal pressure changes are most pronounced in
a) Polar region
b) Middle latitudes
c) Tropics

Question 62

Flying from Delhi to Calcutta at constant indicated altitude but, experiencing a drift to Starboard. The actual altitude will be (Vis-a-vis) indicated altitude
a) Lower
b) Same
c) Higher

Question 63

In the Southern Hemisphere, around a Low Pressure Area wind blows
a) In clockwise direction
b) In anticlockwise direction
c) Across isobars towards the centre

Question 64

Altimeter of a/c on ground reads aerodrome elevation, its sub-scale is set to
A) QNH
b) QNE
c) QFF
d) QFE

Question 65

Instrument for recording pressure is called
a) Anemograph
b) Barometer
c) Hygrograph

Question 66

Poor visibility is associated with
a) High
b) Low
c) Col

Question 67

On either side, perpendicular to the ………. pressures rise
a) Trough
b) Ridge
c) Low

Question 68

Fall of pressure with height is more rapid in
a) Cold areas
b) Warm areas
c) Humid areas

Question 69

300 hPa in ISA corresponds to the level
a) 20,000 ft
b) 30,000 ft
c) 35,000 ft

Question 70

18,000 ft height in ISA corresponds to level
a) 700 hPa
b) 200 hPa
c) 500 hPa

Question 71

200 hPa in ISA corresponds to the level
a) 20,000 ft
b) 30,000 ft
c) 40,000 ft

Question 72

24,000 ft height in ISA corresponds to level
a) 400 hPa
b) 500 hPa
c) 300 hPa

Question 73

700 hPa in ISA corresponds to the level
a) 20,000 ft
b) 10,000 ft
c) 18,000 ft

Question 74

40,000 ft height in ISA corresponds to level
a) 400 hPa
b) 500 hPa
c) 200 hPa

Question 75

850 hPa in ISA corresponds to the level
a) 7,000ft
b) 5,000 ft
c) 10,000 ft

Question 76

Atmospheric pressure is due to
a) wind
b) temperature
C) gravity
d) density

Question 77

An aircraft is gaining altitude, inspite of altimeter reading constant altitude. why?
a) Standard pressure has risen
b) Flying towards High
C) Flying Towards Low
d) Temperature has decreased

Question 78

A contour of 9160 m can be expected on a constant pressure chart for pressure level
a) 500 hpa
b) 400 hpa
c) 300 hpa
d) 200 hpa

Question 79

In contour chart of 300 hpa, isohypse (contours) are drawn at interval of
a) 20 gpm
B) 40 gpm
C) 60 gpm
d) 80 gpm

Question 80

In constant pressure chart of 500 hpa, isohypse are drawn at interval of
a) 20 gpm
b) 40 gpm
c) 60 gpm
D) 80 gpm

Question 81

QNH of an aerodrome 160 m AMSL is 1005 hpa. QFE? (Assuming 1 hpa = 8 m )
a) 1010 hpa
b) 975 hpa
c) 1005 hpa
D) 990 hpa

Question 82

Steep Pressure gradient would mean
a) Contours far apart and weak wind
b) Contours far apart and strong wind
c) Isobars far apart and temperature low
d) Isobars closely packed and strong wind

Question 83

What type of inversion occurs when a stable layer lies in a high pressure area
a) Negative
b) Radiation
c) Subsidence
d) Airmass

Question 84

Which of the following would cause true altitude to increase when altimeter indicates constant altitude
a) Warm/Low
b) Cold/Low
c) Hot/High
d) Cool/Low

Question 85

The movement of wind in relation to a cyclone is
a) Descending and subsiding
b) Ascending and converging
c) Descending and cooling
d) Ascending and diverging

Question 86

An aerodrome is at the mean sea level. Its QNH is 1014.0 hpa. Its QFF will be
a) 1014.0 hpa
b) 1013.25 hpa
c) Difficult to tell
d) More than QNH

Question 87

3. TEMPERATURE

Diurnal variation of temperature is greatest when wind is
a) calm
b) light
c) strong

Answer 87

calm

Question 88

Diurnal variation of temperature is maximum over
a) forest
b) ocean
c) land

Answer 88

land

Question 89

On a clear day the amount of solar radiation received by earth surface is
a) 3/4 th
b) 30%
c) 5/6 th

Answer 89

5/6 th

Question 90

ALBEDO is
a) Radiation received by earth
b) Amount of heat
c) Reflecting power of earth

Answer 90

Reflecting power of earth

Question 91

During Day the ambient temperature is … than ground
a) Lower
b) Higher
c) Same

Answer 91

Lower

Question 92

Diurnal variation of temperature over ocean is …
a) More than land
b) Above 3°C
c) Less than 1°C

Answer 92

Less than 1°C

Question 93

At a coast station the diurnal variation of temperature, depends on
a) Wind direction
b) Wind speed
c) Radiation

Answer 93

Wind direction

Question 94

Snow surface reflects about……. % of solar radiation.
a) 75%
b) 80%
c) 90%

Answer 94

80%

Question 95

Amount of Solar radiation received per unit area is …..
a) Insolation
b) Convection
c) Radiation

Answer 95

Insolation

Question 96

Solar radiation received by the earth is …..
a) Long Wave
b) Albedo
c) Shortwave

Answer 96

Shortwave

Question 97

Rise in temperature of a surface is proportional to its specific heat
a) Directly
b) Indirectly

Answer 97

Indirectly

Question 98

Specific heat of land is…… than that of water
a) Lower
b) Same
c) Higher

Answer 98

Lower

Question 99

Minimum temperature is reached at …
a) sunrise
b) midnight
c) 1/2 - 1 hour after dawn

Answer 99

1/2 - 1 hour after dawn

Question 100

An air parcel is lifted till it gets saturated. The temperature attained by it is called
a) Potential temperature
b) Dew Point
c) Wet bulb

Answer 100

Dew Point

Question 101

Cloudy nights are……….
a) cold
b) normal
c) warm

Answer 101

warm

Question 102

Water vapour is transparent to terrestrial radiation
a) completely
b) partially
C) indifferent

Answer 102

partially

Question 103

Higher the temperature….. would be the wavelength of emitted radiation
a) longer
b) shorter

Answer 103

shorter

Question 104

Air is a bad conductor of heat. A parcel of air can therefore be regarded as insulated from the environment
a) False
b) True

Answer 104

True

Question 105

Warmer the earth.. will be the Nocturnal radiation
a) larger
b) smaller
Or

a) weaker
b) moderate
c) intense

Answer 105

larger/intense

Question 106

Heat is the……. of the KE of all molecules and atoms of a substance
a) sum total
b) average

Answer 106

sum total

Question 107

The solar radiation consists of about 46 %
a) UV
b) IR
c) Visible

Answer 107

IR

Question 108

The total energy radiated by a black body is proportional to its temperature (T)
a) T power two
b) T power three
c) T power four

Answer 108

T power four

Question 109

Intense radiation are emitted by
a) Hot bodies
b) Cold bodies
c) Stars

Answer 109

Hot bodies

Question 110

The wavelength of most intense radiation is inversely proportional to its……..
a) Absolute temperature
b) Humidity
c) Albedo

Answer 110

Absolute temperature

Question 111

Hot bodies (like sun) radiate
a) Short Waves
b) Long Waves
c) Both

Answer 111

Short Waves

Question 112

The flow of heat from earth surface is 77% by
a) Sensible Heat
b) Latent Heat

Answer 112

Latent Heat

Question 113

-40° C = -40° F
a) True
b) False

Answer 113

True

Question 114

Surface Temperature is recorded at a height of ……..
above ground
a) 1.5 m
b) 1.25m
c) 2 m

Answer 114

1.25m or 4 feet

Question 115

The door of Stevenson’s screen should open
a) opposite to sun
b) into sun
c) any direction

Answer 115

opposite to sun

Question 116

The liquid used in Minimum Thermometer is
A) mercury
B) alcohol
c) sprit

Answer 116

alcohol

Question 117

Freezing point of water is
a) 0° F
b) 12° F
C) 22° F
d) 32°F

Answer 117

32°F

Question 118

Boiling point of water is
a) 100° F
b) 112° F
c) 212° F
d) 312° F

Answer 118

212° F

Question 119

Freezing point of water is
a) 173° K
b) 273°K
c) 373° K
d) 473° K

Answer 119

273°K

Question 120

Boiling point of water is
a) 373°K
b) 273° K
C) 173° K
d) 312° K

Answer 120

373°K

Question 121

Convert 68° F into Kelvin temperature
a) 233° K
B) 283° K
C) 294° K
d) 293°K

Answer 121

293°K

K= C+273
9C/5=F-32

Question 122

Diurnal variation of temperature is least on a day when it is
a) Clear
b) Partly cloudy
c) Cloudy
d) Overcast

Answer 122

Overcast

Question 123

A clear and calm night is cooler than a cloudy night, because nocturnal radiation
A) escape through cloud
b) are partly radiated back by clouds to earth
C) are fully absorbed by H2O
D) are fully prevented by clouds to escape

Answer 123

are partly radiated back by clouds to earth

Question 124

4. AIR DENSITY
   Density is ……at poles than equator
   a) Higher
   b) Lower
   c) Same

Question 125

Above 8 km density is …….. at poles than at equator
a) Higher
b）Lower
c)Same

Question 126

The altitude in ISA at which air density is the same as the observed density is called
a) Density Altitude
b) ISA Density
c) Real Density

Question 127

Density is usually expressed as
a) Kg/sq m
b) g/cu m
c) N/sq m

Question 128

Higher density altitude means …. density
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Same

Question 129

For given pressure and temperature moist air has density
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Same

Question 130

Air is less denser in
a) High Altitudes
b) Warm Air
c) High humidity
d) All these

Question 131

Density altitude may be defined as:
a) The altitude in a standard atmosphere at which the prevailing pressure occurs.
b) The altitude in a standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density occurs.
c) Surface of constant atmospheric pressure related to standard atmosphere of 1013.2 hPa

Question 132

If pressure increases the density altitude
a) Increases
B) Lowers
C) Remains the same

Question 133

For every 1°C change in temperature, density altitude differs by
a) 33 ft
b) 100 ft
C) 120 ft
D) 210 ft

Question 134

5. HUMIDITY

The ratio in % between the amount of water vapour present in the air to the amount of water vapour that it can hold at the same temperature is
a) Humidity
b) Relative humidity
c) Dew point

Question 135

The temperature to which air be cooled at constant pressure to become saturated, is called
a) Wet bulb temperature
b) Dry bulb temperature
c) Dew point
d) Humidity

Question 136

Free air temperature, Wet bulb temperature and Dew point temperature are equal when
a) Air temperature is 0°C
b) Relative humidity is 100%
c) Air temperature is not below 0°C

Question 137

On a rainy day compared to sunny day the length of runway required is
a) More
b) Less
c) Same

Question 138

The spread (difference) between Free air temperature and Dew point temperature is …. when air is saturated
a) Large
b) Least
c) Same

Question 139

The saturation vapour pressure over water is .. .. than the ice
a) More
b) Less
c) Same

Question 140

As the temperature of the air increases, the amount of water vapour required to saturate it ……..
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same

Question 141

The actual amount of water vapour contained in a given volume of air at a given temperature is termed as …
a) Relative Humidity
b) Specific Humidity
c) Absolute Humidity

Question 142

Humidity Mixing Ratio ….. when air is lifted adiabatically
a) decreases
b) remains constant
C) increases

Question 143

6. WIND

In S hemisphere if an observer faces wind, low will be to his
a) Right
b) Left

Question 144

In N hemisphere due to rotation of earth winds are deflected to
a) Left
b) Right

Question 145

Local Winds follow Buys Ballot’s law
a) False
b) True

Question 146

Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the ….. of wind direction in N hemisphere
a) Left
b) Right

Question 147

155) Geostrophic wind is due to the balance between the forces ……….
a) Coriolis and Friction
b) Pressure gradient and Cyclostrophic
c) Pressure gradient and Coriolis

Question 148

Coriolis force is strongest at ………
a) Mid latitudes
b) Poles
c) Equator

Question 149

Geostrophic rule breaks down at …….
a) Mid latitudes
b) Poles
c) Equator

Question 150

Fohn winds are ……. on the Leeward side of a mountain,
a) Dry & Warm
b) Cold & Humid

Question 151

The wind sliding down a hill during night is called….. wind.
a) Fohn
b) Anabatic
c) Katabatic

Question 152

With the onset of sea breeze there is a …… in temperature and ……. in RH.
a) Fall/Rise
b) Rise/Fall
c) Fall/Fall

Question 153

Sea breeze sets in by ……. and dies off at …..
a) Night/Day
b) Day/Night
c) Both Day and Night

Question 154

If an aircraft in N-hemisphere flies from H to L it will experience
a) Starboard drift
b) Port drift

Question 155

In N-Hemisphere if you experience Port drift, altimeter will read
a) Under
b) Over

Question 156

Lines of constant wind speed drawn on weather charts are called
a) Isobars
b) Isotachs
c) Isogons

Question 157

Squall are distinguished from gusts by:
a) Shorter duration
b) Longer duration
c) Lower wind speed

Question 158

The thermal wind is:
a) The wind that blows because of thermals
b) The warm wind that blows down the hill on the leeward side
c) The wind which must be added vectorially to the lower level geostrophic wind to obtain the upper level geostrophic wind

Question 159

On a weather map where isobars are closely packed, the surface winds are likely to be
a) Light and parallel to isobars
b) Strong and parallel to isobars
C) strong and blowing across the lsobars

Question 160

Anabatic wind occurs
a) At night
b) Any time of day and night
C) During day

Question 161

Anabatic wind is stronger than katabatic
a) True
b) False

Question 162

Katabatic wind is down slope cold wind due to nocturnal cooling
a) True
b) False

Question 163

Katabatic wind occur due to sinking of air down the hill slope
a) True
b) False

Question 164

172) Anabatic wind occur due to downward movement of air along valley
A) True
b) False

Question 165

Sea breeze is stronger than land breeze
a) True
b) False

Question 166

The wind blows clockwise around low in a N-hemisphere
a) True
b) False

Question 167

The wind blows clockwise around low in S-hemisphere
a) True
b) False

Question 168

The wind blows anticlockwise around low in N-hemisphere
a) True
b) False

Question 169

The wind blows anticlockwise around low in S- hemisphere
a) True
b) False

Question 170

The resultant wind that blows under the influence of pressure gradient force, geostrophic force and cyclostrophic force is called
a) Gradient wind
b) Geostrophic wind
c) cyclostrophic wind

Question 171

Due to friction, from day to night for an isobaric pattern (in N hemisphere) the Surface wind backs and weakens
a) True
b) False

Question 172

The winds which spiral inward in a counter-clockwise direction in the N Hemisphere are associated with
a) Turbulence
b) High pressure area
c) Low pressure area

Question 173

Lower level wind 05010 kt, upper level wind 23005 kt, what is the thermal wind
a) 05005 kt
b) 23015 kt
c) 05015 kt

Question 174

A change in wind direction from 310° to 020° is
a) Backing
b) Veering

Question 175

A change from 270° to 250° is
a) Backing
b) Veering

Question 176

Sudden change in wind speed from 10 kt to 30 kt and then to 15 kt is
a) Gust
b) Squall
c) gale

Question 177

Sudden change in wind speed from 10 kt to 30 kt for 2 - 3 minutes
a) Squall
b) Gust

Question 178

A significant wind shear can be associated with TS or line squall
a) False
b) True

Question 179

Cyclostrophic wind gives a good approximation of the 2000’ wind in an intense tropical storm
A) True
B) False

Question 180

Rotor clouds have extremely turbulent flying conditions
a) False
b) True

Question 181

Friction causes winds to flow cross isobaric by …….
over land and …… over sea
a) 20°/10°
b) 20º/30°
c) 40°/30°

Question 182

If the S is warmer than N, level by level, from surface up to higher levels, then the …….wind will strengthen with height with no change in direction in N hemisphere
a) Ely
b) Wly
c) Sly
d) Nly

Question 183

Gradient wind is ……of geostrophic wind in an anticyclone
a) Under estimate
b) Accurate
c) Over estimate

Question 184

Gale is
a) persistent strong winds with mean speed 44 kt, associated with thunderstorm
b) marked increase in wind speed lasing few minutes associated with CB or DS (dust storm)
c) persistent strong winds exceeding 33 kit, associated with depression

Question 185

In N hemisphere thermal wind is parallel to …… with low value to left
a) Isobars
b) Isotherms
c) Isallobars

Question 186

The inertial flow is
a) cyclonic in both the Hemispheres
b) anticyclonic in both the Hemispheres
c) anticyclonic around an anticyclone

Question 187

Upper level wind is 24025 kt, lower level wind is 16015 kt, the thermal wind is?
a) 16010 kt
b）24040 kt
c) 24010 kt

Question 188

7. VISIBILITY AND FOG

Fog is reported when visibility is reduced to
a) Less than 1000 m
b) 1000m
c) 1000 to 2000

Question 189

RVR is reported when visibility falls below
a) 500 m
b) 1000 m
с) 1500 m

Question 190

Radiation fog occurs
a) Over land
b) Over sea
c) During day

Question 191

When visibility reduces between 5000 m and 1000 m and RH is almost 100%, it is
a) Mist
b) Haze
c) Fog

Question 192

Radiation Fog forms over N India during
a) May to June
b) Dec to Feb
d) Oct to Nov

Question 193

Warm and moist air moving over a cold ground gives rise to:
a) Thunder clouds
b) Fog and stratus
c) Frontal clouds

Question 194

Warm and moist air moving over a cold surface causes
a) Radiation Fog
b) Advection Fog
c) Frontal Fog

Question 195

The radiation fog forms due to
a) Heating of the earth during day
b) Radiational cooling of earth at night
c) Advection of cold air

Question 196

The radiation fog activity increases after the passage of a ……….
a) WD
b) Depression
c) Col

Question 197

Radiation fog is essentially a ………… phenomena
a) Nocturnal
b) Dusk
c) Day

Question 198

The radiation fog forms over ……
a) Water
b) Land
c) Both

Question 199

The ……. fog forms due to horizontal movement of warm moist air over cold surface
a) Radiation
b) Advection
c) Frontal

Question 200

Advection fog forms during
a) night only
b) day time only
c) any time of day and night

Question 201

For formation of Radiation fog
a) There should be sufficient moisture in atmosphere, cloudy sky, nil wind
b) There should be sufficient moisture in atmosphere, clear sky, light wind.
c) There should be sufficient moisture in atmosphere, cloudy sky, strong wind

Question 202

Instrument used for measuring visibility is called ….
a) Visiometer
b) Transmissometer
c) Ceilometer

Question 203

Advection fog forms
a) over sea
b) over Land
c) both over land and sea

Question 204

fog is …….. cloud on ground
a) stratocumulus
b) stratus
c) Nimbostratus

Question 205

Frontal fog is more common with a
a) Western Disturbance
b) cyclone
c) Warm Front
d) Cold Front

Question 206

The favourable pressure system for formation of fog is
a) Lows and Cols
b) High and Trough
c) Lows and Ridges
d) Highs and Cols

Question 207

Thermal processes / temperature distribution which favours formation of fog is
a) Isothermal
b) Adiabatics
c) Inversion
d) SALR

Question 208

8. VERTICAL MOTION AND CLOUDS

Drizzle occurs from
a) CS
b) ST
c) NS
d) CU

Question 209

Altostratus (AS) is
a) a) Low cloud of sheet type
b) A medium cloud of sheet type
c) A cloud of large vertical growth
d) A high cloud of sheet type

Question 210

Altostratus (AS) is
a) a) Low cloud of sheet type
b) A medium cloud of sheet type
c) A cloud of large vertical growth
d) A high cloud of sheet type

Question 211

Showers occurs from
a) CU
b) СВ
c) AS
d) AC

Question 212

Heavy icing is possible in
a) CI
b) CS
c) ST
d) CB

Question 213

To avoid icing in cloudy conditions, a pilot is advised to fly through a cloud which shows an optica phenomena
a) Halo
b) Corona
c) With multi-coloured clouds

Question 214

Dark gray cloud giving continuous rain is called
a) AS
b) NS
c) ST
d) CB

Question 215

A uniform layer of cloud resembling fog but not on the ground
a) AS
b) NS
c) ST

Question 216

The clouds composed of ice crystals having feathery appearance
a) CI
b) CS
c) AS

Question 217

Halo is associated with the cloud
a) AC
b) AS
c) CS
d) CI

Question 218

NS clouds occur
a) At cold front
b) At warm front

Question 219

Corona is associated with the cloud
a) AS
b) AC
с) СС
d) CS

Question 220

Lenticular clouds indicate presence of
a) Warm Front
b) Cold front
c) Mountain waves

Question 221

The lowest level below which condensation trails will not form is
a) Mintra Level
b) Drytra Level
c) Maxtra Level

Question 222

Rain falling from cloud but not reaching ground is
a) Virgo
b) Virga
c) Mirage

Question 223

CB with distinct anvil is called

a) Castellanus
b) Capillatus
c) Uncinus

Question 224

Cloud ceiling is the height of the cloud covering
a) 3-4/8
b) 8/8
c) 5/8 or more

Question 225

No condensation trails occur above
a) Maxtra Level
b) Dytra Level
c) Mintra Level

Question 226

Cloud of operational significance has base below ..
….. m or below the highest minimum sector altitude, which is greater
a) 1500
b) 2000
c) 1000

Question 227

AC cloud with cumuliform protuberances are indicative of
a) Stability
b) Instability
c) Neutrality

Question 228

Hail may be experienced under the anvil of a CB
a) True
b) False

Question 229

9. ATMOSPHERE STABILITY AND INSTABILITY

DALR = 9.8 °C, ELR = 6.8 °C; atmosphere is
a) stable
b) unstable
c) indifferent

Question 230

SALR = 5.5 °C, ELR= 4.5 °C ; atmosphere is
a) unstable
b) stable
c) indifferent

Question 231

DALR > ELR > SALR
a) conditionally stable
b) latently stable
c) potentially stable

Question 232

Dry air is unstable when
a) ELR=DALR
b) ELR>DALR
c) ELR<DALR

Question 233

The saturated air is said to be unstable if
a) SALR=ELR
b) SALR<ELR
c) SALR > ELR

Question 234

If ELR = SALR = DALR the atmosphere is
a) Stable
b) Instable
c) Indifferent

Question 235

DALR means:
a) The rate at which temperature of unsaturated parcel of air falls with height when made to ascend adiabatically.
b) The rate at which temp falls with height.
c) The rate at which ascending parcel of saturated air cools.

Question 236

Surface temp, is 30° C. Assuming DALR. what is the temperature at 2 km
a) 18° C
b) 10° C
c) 42° C

Question 237

An Isothermal atmosphere is
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Neutral

Question 238

If environmental lapse rate(ELR) is less than SALR, the atmosphere is said to be:
a) Absolutely unstable
b) Conditionally stable
c) Absolutely stable

Question 239

DALR is approximately
a) 5°C/km
b) 15 ° C/km
с) 10 °C/km

Question 240

SALR at mean sea level is about
a) 10 °C/Km
b) 5 °C/Km
c) 5° F/Km

Question 241

SALR approaches DALR
a) at 0°C
b) at -15°F
c) at-40°C

Question 242

Dry air having a temperature of 35°C on surface when forced to rise adiabatically by 1 km would attain a temperature of
a) 29°C
b) 25°C
c) 45°C

Question 243

Inversion in the atmosphere indicates
a) Stability
b) Instability
c) Neutrality

Question 244

Inversion is … Lapse Rate (LR)
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral

Question 245

Environmental LR can be more than DALR
a) True
b) False

Question 246

The process which to a large extent determines the vertical distribution of temperature in atmosphere is
a) Adiabatic
b) Isothermal
c) Isentropic

Question 247

Rise in temperature with height is
a) Inversion
b) Lapse
c) Normal

Question 248

Inversion is common in
a) Post Monsoon
b) Monsoon
c) Winters

Question 249

10. OPTICAL PHENOMENA

Aurora Australis occur in the
a) S hemisphere
b) N hemisphere
c) Equator

Question 250

Aurora Australis called …. Lights
a) Northern
b) Southern
c) Temperate

Question 251

Aurora Borealis occur in the
a) S hemisphere
b) N hemisphere
c) Equator

Question 252

Aurora Borealis are called….. Lights
a) Northern
b) Southern
c) Temperate

Question 253

Corona occur in….. clouds
a) AS
b) NS
c) CS

Question 254

Bishop’s ring is due to the diffraction of light by fine particles of
a) water
b) dust
c) ice

Question 255

The radius of the Bishop’s ring is about
a) 32°
b) 22°
с) 42°

Question 256

Superior Mirage occurs in marked
a) Lapse
b) Isothermal
c) Inversion

Question 257

Inferior Mirage occurs when there is
a) Lapse
b) Isothermal
c) Inversion

Question 258

Corona are formed due to the ….. of light
a) Refraction
b) Diffraction
c) Scattering

Question 259

Corona are formed due to light, passing through
a) Mist only
b) Fog only
c) small water or ice particles only
d) Any one of all these

Question 260

Halo is produced by
a) Refraction
b) Diffraction
c) Scattering

Question 261

Halo is produced when light passes through
a) water particles
b) ice crystals
c) both

Question 262

Halo occur in the cloud
a) AS
b) NS
c) CS

Question 263

Halo is luminous ring of ….. radius
a) 32°
b) 22°
с) 42°

Question 264

Halo round the sun shows a pure clear ….. on the outside
a) Red
b) Yellow
c) Violet

Question 265

Halo signifies predominance in the cloud of
a) Supercooled water drops
b) Ice crystals
c) Both

Question 266

The cloud which cause Halo has … chances of ice accretion
a) negligible
b) maximum
c) medium

Question 267

Sometimes a halo with a radius of ………. is observed, called Large Halo
a) 32°
b) 42°
с) 22°

Question 268

Halo occurs from… cloud
a) Low
b) Medium
c) High

Question 269

11. PRECIPITATION

When super cooled water drops and ice particles co-exist, the ice crystals grow at the expense of the water drops because
a) Saturation vapour pressure over water drops is less than over the ice crystals
b) Saturation vapour pressure over the ice crystals is less than over water drops
c) The ice crystals convert into water drops

Question 270

The clouds whose tops extend well above the freezing level are called
a) Warm Clouds
b) Cold Clouds
c) Moderate Clouds

Question 271

The clouds whose tops do not extend to the freezing level are called
a) Warm Clouds
b) Cold Clouds
c) Moderate Clouds

Question 272

Coalescence Theory explains occurrence of rainfall from the
a) Warm Clouds
b) Cold Clouds
c) Both types of Clouds

Question 273

Ice crystal Theory explains occurrence of rainfall from the
a) Warm Clouds
b) Cold Clouds
c) Both types of Clouds

Question 274

Giant Nucleus Theory explains occurrence of rainfall over
a) Maritime areas
b) Inland areas
c) Hilly areas

Question 275

Very heavy precipitation as showers over a short period is called
a) Flash floods
b) Cloud Burst
c) Orographic Rain

Question 276

Rain shadow area is on the…. . of the mountain range
a) Top
b) Windward side
c) Leeward side

Question 277

Sleet is a mixture of
a) Hall & Snow
b) Rain & Snow
c) Frozen Rain

Question 278

Rainfall in the tropics is more in
a) Winters
b) Summers
c) Post monsoon

Question 279

Rainfall in the tropics is more in the
a) Morning
b) Afternoon
c) Night

Question 280

Rainfall in the temperate latitudes is more in
a) Winters
b) Summers
c) Spring

Question 281

Over J&K and western Himalayas Rainfall is more in
a) Winters
b) Summers
c) Post monsoon

Question 282

Rainfall over coastal areas is more in the
a) Evening
b) Afternoon
c) Night & early morning

Question 283

Areas to the ….. of western Ghats of India are rain shadow areas
a) W
b) S
c) E

Question 284

A sudden rise in the level of rivers or streams causing floods is called
a) Cloud Burst
b) Catchments flooding
c) Flash Floods

Question 285

Artificial rain making is also termed as
a) Simulation
b) Cloud seeding
c) Nucleation

Question 286

Fog can be dispersed for a short period by artificial stimulation
a) True
b) False

Question 287

Showery precipitation occurs from
a) NS
b) AC
с) СВ

Question 288

A day is called Rainy day when rainfall in 24 hr is .…… mm or more
a) 1.5
b) 2
c) 2.5

Question 289

12. ICE ACCRETION

Hoar frost occurs on airframe in clear air when the temperature of airframe is
a) below the frost point
b) frost point
c) just above the frost point

Question 290

In clouds at temperatures below 0° C an aircraft may encounter icing of the type
a) only Glazed
b) only Rime
c) intermediate between these two

Question 291

Opaque Rime ice is
a) Light porous
b) Solid
c) Mixture of porous and solid

Question 292

Rime is formed by freezing of …..supercooled water droplets on airframe when aircraft is flying through
clouds
a) Small
b) Large
c) Medium

Question 293

Glazed ice is formed by freezing of ….. .. supercooled water droplets on airrame when aircraft is flying through clouds
a) small
b) Large
c) medium

Question 294

The …… ice poses serious aviation hazard
a) Rime
b) Hoar Frost
c) Glazed

Question 295

Airframe icing occurs below 0°C. Its probability of occurrence decreases progressively below -20 °C, as at lower temperatures the proportion of super-cooled water drops in a cloud
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Does not change

Question 296

CI, CS and CC clouds consist mostly ice crystals. Icing hazard is therefore
a) Maximum
b) Medium
c) Negligible

Question 297

AS, NS consist of supercooled water drops and ice crystals in varying proportion .…… icing is possible.
a) Maximum
b) Light or moderate
c) Negligible

Question 298

In AC clouds ….. icing is likely in mountainous areas
a) Severe
b) Light to moderate
c) Negligible

Question 299

In TCU icing may range from light to severe type at least up to ………. level.
a) - 40 °C level
b) 30 °C level
c) - 20 °C level

Question 300

In CB icing may range from light to severe type up to -20°C level. Below this temperature severe icing is
a) not significant
b) significant
c) maximum

Question 301

Liquid water content is an important factor in icing. As the maximum water concentration is around ..……. maximum ice formation in clouds may also be expected around that level.
a) -25° C level
b) -20° C level
c) -15° C level

Question 302

Carburetor icing occurs when air from intake passes through a venturi (choke) and causes expansional cooling and vaporization of fuel. Serious icing can occur at extreme temperatures
a) 13 °C
b) 30°C to -10°C
c) 20 °C

Question 303

…….. occurs in a moist cloudless air on an aircraft surface having temp. below 0° C, due to sublimation of water vapour onto feathery ice crystals.
a) Rime
b) Glazed
c) Hoar Frost

Question 304

..……. occurs in St, Sc, Ac, Cu, Ns at temperature -10 to -40° C and in Cb at temperature -20 to -40°C
a) Rime
b) Glazed
c) Hoar Frost

Question 305

In clouds .…… occurs when a wide range of water drop sizes are present at temperatures between 0°C and -40°C
a) Rime
b) Glazed
c) Mixture of rime and clear ice

Question 306

…….. occurs in AS, NS, SC and towering CU or CB between 0° C and -20° C, in warm front below 0° C, especially if the aircraft has rapidly descended from a colder region
a)Glazed
b) Fume
c) Mixture of Rime and Clear ice

Question 307

When fog freezes on parked aircraft it produces..,
a) Hoar Frost
b) Hoar Frost
c) Clear ice

Question 308

Icing ……. the stalling speed appreciably
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Does not increase/decrease

Question 309

13. THUNDERSTORM

The condition necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm are:
a) Steep lapse rate, strong winds
b) shallow lapse rate, adequate supply of moisture
c) Steps lapse rate , adequate supply of moisture and trigger action.

Question 310

Hail is most likely to fall from a cloud
a) Having layers
b) Composed of Ice crystals
c) Having strong vertical development

Question 311

Norwesters are
a) The western disturbances which affect NW India
b) Severe thunderstorms which occur over NE India during hot weather period
c) Severe thunderstorms which occur over Peninsula during hot weather period

Question 312

Dust Storm usually occurs over NW India during
a) Post-monsoon
b) Winter
c) Pre-Monsoon

Question 313

A ‘mature’ thunderstorm has
a) updraft only
b) downdraft only
C) updrafts and downdrafts

Question 314

Aircraft icing is most favoured in the cloud which have temperatures ranging between
a) - 20° C and - 40° C
b) 0° C and - 20° C
c) below -40 ° C

Question 315

A short duration, showery precipitation is associated with
a) ST
b) AS
c) CB

Question 316

Hail is
a) Solid precipitation which commonly occurs over the mountainous regions in winter.
b) Frozen or partly frozen rain falling from sheet type of clouds
c) Solid precipitation falling from a deep convective cloud

Question 317

The most hazardous cloud for aviation is
а) СВ
b) CU
c) NS

Question 318

The life of a Cb cell is usually
a) 7 to 8 hrs
b) 3 to 4 hrs
c) 2-3 hr

Question 319

Generally the severest activity of a, heat type, TS is for
a) 2 hrs
b) 30 to 45 min
c) 3 to 4 hr

Question 320

Norwesters occur during
a) Jan-Feb
b) Mar-May
c) June-Sep
d) Oct - Dec

Question 321

Norwesters occur during
a) Winter
b) Hot weather
c) Monsoon
d) Post Monsoon

Question 322

Norwesters affect
a) N India
b) Bengal, Bihar, Orissa and Assam
c) Central India

Question 323

The trigger action may take place due ro
a) Clear night sky no wind
b) Orographic lifting
c) high pressure

Question 324

Norwesters normally occur during
a) Mornings
b) Afternoons
c) Nights

Question 325

Norwesters originates over
a) Chota - Nagpur hills
b) Deccan Plato
c) Khasi hills

Question 326

Andhi (blinding storms) occur generally over
a) S India
b) N India
c) NE India

Question 327

Wind speed in Light DS is
a) 25 kr
b) 30 kt
c) up to 21 kt

Question 328

The diameter of Microburst is
a) less than 4 km
b) less than 2 km
c) less than 6 km

Question 329

The diameter of and Macroburst
a) < 4 km
b) 4 km or more
c) > 8 km

Question 330

For detecting precipitation a Radar wavelength in the range .…… is suitable
a) 30 to 200 mm
b) 400-500 mm
c) 600-700 mm

Question 331

For airborne radars wavelength generally used
a) 20 mm
b) 40 mm
c) 60 mm

Question 332

The wavelength of TS detection X band radar is
a) 10 mm
b) 20 mm
с) 30 mm

Question 333

The wavelength of storm detection S band radar is
a) 50 mm
b) 100 ram
c) 200 mm

Question 334

Over plains TS mostly occur during the
a) afternoon
b) night
c) early morning

Question 335

Over valley and foot hills TS generally occur during
a) afternoon
b) night & early morning

Question 336

Over the sea TS are more frequent
a) afternoon
b) night
c) early morning

Question 337

The life of Mesoscale Convective Complex TS is
a) 2-3 hr
b) 3-4 hr
c) 6 to 24 hr

Question 338

Loud peals of thunder, frequent flashes of lightning, moderate or heavy showers accompanied by light hail with maximum wind speed 15-40 kt is classified as
a) Light TS
b) Moderate TS
c) Severe TS

Question 339

For a severe TS one of the requirements is strong wind shear
a) Horizontal
B) Vertical
c) Slant

Question 340

Severe TS cells are tilted
a) in vertical
b) to the South
c) to the North

Question 341

When flying through on active TS, lightning strikes are mostly likely
A) Above 5000 ft and under the anvil
B) In the clear air below the cloud in rain
C) In the temperature band between +10 C and -10 C
D) At or above 10000 ft

Question 342

Hazards of the mature stage of TS Cell include lighting, turbulence and
A) Microburst, wind-shear and anvil
b) Icing, microburst and WS
c) Icing, drizzle and microburst
D) WS, hail and fog

Question 343

Hail grows by
a) freezing as it leaves the cloud
b) up and down forces in CU cloud
c) collision with ice crystals
D) collision with supercooled water drops

Question 344

14. AIR MASSES, FRONTS AND WESTERN DISTURBANCES

Airmass which originates at sea in High latitudes is called
a) Polar maritime
b) Tropical continental
c) Tropical maritime

Question 345

The air mass which originates over equatorial region is
a) Warm & dry
b) Warm & Moist
c) Cold & dry

Question 346

If the advancing cold front is colder than the cool air mass of the warm front, the advancing cold front undercuts and lifts both the warm and cool air masses of the warm front. This is
a) Warm Occlusion
b) Cold Occlusion

Question 347

The airmass which originated over land area located in polar region:
a) Warm & dry
b) Warm & Moist
c) Cold & dry

Question 348

If a warm air mass overtakes a cold air mass, it is called
a) Cold Front
b) Warm Front
c) Occluded Front

Question 349

At warm front
a) Warm air overtakes the cold air
b) Cold air undercuts the warm air

Question 350

The conditions are always unstable at
a) Cold front
b) Warm front

Question 351

Line squall occurs about 100-300 km ahead of
a) Warm front
b) Cold front

Question 352

Precipitation occurs over a belt of 30 - 50 km on both side of front
a) Cold front
b) Warm front

Question 353

Cold front moves at …… the speed of a warm front moves
a) Same
b) Double
c) Half

Question 354

Line Squalls occur …. .. of Cold front
a) Ahead
b) Behind
c) At the

Question 355

Fronts are associated with
a) Tropical cyclone
b) Monsoon Depression
c) Extratropical Cyclones

Question 356

CB, Roll-type clouds, SC, AC with embedded CB are associated
a) Cold front
b) Warm front

Question 357

The Surface of discontinuity between the Polar Easterlies and the temperate Westerlies is called
a) Equatorial Front
b) Tropopause
c) Polar Front

Question 358

The air mass which originates from sea area located in lower Lat is
a) Warm & Dry
b) Warm & Moist
c) Cold & Moist

Question 359

WDs approach India as
a) Cols
b) Occluded Fronts
c) Highs

Question 360

Maximum WDs occur in
a) Summers
b) Post Monsoon
c) Winters

Question 361

Ahead of a warm front the surface wind
a) Backs & weakens
b) Veers & strengthens
c) Backs & strengthens

Question 362

On approach of a Warm Front temperature
a) Fall
b) Rise
c) Remain same

Question 363

CI, CS, AS, NS, ST in sequence are associated with the front
a) Warm
b) Cold
c) Occluded

Question 364

During the passage of a Cold Front winds
a) Suddenly become squally
b) Back and weaken
c) Veer and are of moderate strength

Question 365

Visibility is poor in a Warm Front
a) Ahead
b) Ahead & During
c) After & During

Question 366

Fog occurs in Cold Front
a) Ahead
b) During
c) After

Question 367

WD is a.……. front
a) Cold
b) Warm
c) Occluded

Question 368

FZRA and FZFG occur …. … of a warm front
a) Ahead
b) During
c) After

Question 369

Precipitation ceases after the passage of a front
a) Cold
b) Warm
c) Occluded

Question 370

During the approach of a Warm Front wind
a) Backs
b) Veers
c) Does not change

Question 371

A WD has two or more closed isobars, at 2 hPa interval, it is termed as
a) Troughs in Westerlies
b) Western Depression
c) Western Cyclone

Question 372

A WD originate over
a) Baluchistan
b) Caspian sea
c) Mediterranean, Caspian and Black Seas

Question 373

Induced lows develop to the ..….. of a WD
a) N
b) S
c) NE

Question 374

15. JET STREAMS

The arbitrary lower limit of jet core velocity has been assigned by WMO as
a) 60 kt
b) 60 m/s
c) 70 m/s

Question 375

Jet stream has
a) one maxima
b) one or more maxima
c) only two maxima

Question 376

The vertical wind shear in a Jet stream is about
a) 5m/s/ km
b) 6m/s/km
c) 8m/s/km

Question 377

Compared to horizontal wind shear the vertical wind shear in a Jet stream is
a) weaker
b) stronger
c) same

Question 378

In a jet stream, the path of the maximum speed is known as
a) Core
b) Axis
c) Jet streak

Question 379

The wind speed along the axis of a jet stream is always
a) Uniform
b) Not uniform

Question 380

Along the axis of a jet stream there are centres of high speed winds, these are called
a) Jet streaks
b) Core
c) Axis

Question 381

In a wavy jet the Jet streaks are located over or near the
a) Ridge
b) Trough
c) Between Trough and Ridge

Question 382

Sub-tropical Jet Stream (STJ) is
a) Westerly
b) Easterly
c) Southerly

Question 383

The normal position of Sub-tropical Jet Stream is
a) 30° N
b) 27° N
c) 35° N

Question 384

The southern most position of STJ is in February is
a) 22° N
b) 20° N
c) 18° N

Question 385

The STJ affects India from
a) Jun to Jul
b) Oct to May
c) Aug to Sep

Question 386

397) STJ has a layered structure. There are often two layers of maximum wind to the ….. of jet core
a) S
b) N
c) SW

Question 387

The STJ strengthens
a) Northwards
b) Upstream
c) Downstream

Question 388

At and near the STJ the temperature gradient is very
a) Small
b) Large
c) Moderate

Question 389

Vertical wind shear in STJ is greater ……….. the core
a) above
b) below
c) along

Question 390

The TJ prevails over the Indian Peninsula from
a) May to Jun
b) Sep to Oct
c) Jun to Aug

Question 391

The TJ is located over the Indian Peninsula, approximately at
a) 13° N
b) 17° N
c) 18° N

Question 392

The TJ is located over Indian, approximately at a height of
a) 15-16 km
b) 12 - 13 km
c) 11 - 12 km

Question 393

The TJ is strongest in
a) July-Aug
b) Sep-Oct
c) June

Question 394

In the TJ the wind shears are much …… than the STJ
a) more
b) less
c) same

Question 395

TJ is
a) Westerly
b) Easterly
c) Southerly

Question 396

A jet Stream can be recognized by
a) High level dust
b) High Pressure
c) Streaks of Cl
d) Lenticular clouds

Question 397

Flying at right angles to a jet stream with falling pressure you will experience
a) wind from left
b) Increasing head wind
c) Increasing tail wind
d) Wind from right

Question 398

When and Where tropical jet stream occurs
A) All year along equator
B) In middle East in summers
C) In winters over Russia
d) In summers over SE Asia and Central Africa

Question 399

17. MOUNTAIN WAVES

For mountain waves to form there should be flow of air across the ridge, generally within ……….of the perpendicular to the ridge.
a) 30°
b) 45°
c) 60°

Question 400

For mountain waves to form the wind speed for small mountains should be atleast
a) 15 m/s
b) 10 m/s
c) 7m/s

Question 401

For mountain waves to form the wind speed for large mountains should be atleast
a) 15 m/s
b) 10 m/s
c) 7m/s

Question 402

For mountain waves to form the atmosphere should be …..….. up to the ridge, where air stream strikes the ridge.
a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Indifferent

Question 403

For mountain waves to form the atmosphere should be …… at higher levels above the ridge
a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Indifferent

Question 404

In Mountain waves the Rotor clouds form in
a) Troughs
b) Ridges
c) Valley

Question 405

Clear air turbulence is often encountered
a) At the boundary of a jet stream
b) In the wake of a passing airplane
c) In the wake of a larger airplane at take off and landing
d) All of the above

Question 406

Most CAT occurs on the ……of a jet stream and in the vicinity of upper level frontal zones where temperature contrasts are strong.
a) Fringes
b) Within the core
c) Axis

Question 407

Most CAT occurs on the ……of a jet stream and in the vicinity of upper level frontal zones where temperature contrasts are strong.
a) Fringes
b) Within the core
c) Axis

Question 408

CAT is the bumpiness experienced by aircraft at high altitudes…….. in either cloud-free conditions or in stratiform clouds
a) above 18,000 feet
b) below 18,000 feet
c) below 28,000 feet

Question 409

When approaching an area where mountain waves have been reported, a pilot should expect:
a) Possible presence of roll clouds and lenticular clouds
b) Intense updrafts and downdrafts on the lee side of the mountains
c) Moderate to severe turbulence as far as 20 to 30 miles from the range on lee side
D) all of the above

Question 410

18. TROPICAL SYSTEMS

Wind speed in a tropical severe cyclone is:
a) 27-33 kt
b) 48 - 63 kt
c) 17-27 kt