Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

A 55-year-old male patient presents with several rough, scaly patches on his scalp, forehead, and ears, which are non-tender and non-itchy. He has a history of significant sun exposure over his lifetime.

What is the most likely diagnosis? [1]

What is the most appropriate management for the likely diagnosis? [1]

A

Actinic keratosis
Tx: Imiquimod

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2
Q

Describe the difference between Eron Class II & III [2]

A

Class II — the person is either systemically unwell or systemically well but with a comorbidity (for example peripheral arterial disease, chronic venous insufficiency, or morbid obesity) which may complicate or delay resolution of infection.

Class III — the person has significant systemic upset, such as acute confusion, tachycardia, tachypnoea, hypotension, or unstable comorbidities that may interfere with a response to treatment, or a limb-threatening infection due to vascular compromize.

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3
Q

The presentation of a rapidly growing, dome-shaped nodule with a central crust that is tender when palpated is consistent with the diagnosis of []

A

The presentation of a rapidly growing, dome-shaped nodule with a central crust that is tender when palpated is consistent with the diagnosis of keratoacanthoma

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4
Q

What is the treatment for headlice? [1]

A

Wet combing or application of dimethicone 4% gel twice, at least 7 days apart

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5
Q

Describe what syndesmophytes are [1]

A

Syndesmophytes are bony growths originating inside a ligament, commonly seen in ankylosing spondylitis. These develop between vertebrae and contribute to the fusion of the spine (ankylosis), which can lead to the “bamboo spine” appearance on X-ray.

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6
Q

What differentiates a nodule from a papule? [1]

A

Both raised lesions

Nodule is found in the deeper layers of the skin

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7
Q

Which sign would help indicate a patient has a dermatofibroma? [1]

A

Positive dimple sign

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8
Q

Describe what is meant by Chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis [1]

A

a benign inflammatory condition that affects the skin and cartilage of the pinna

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9
Q

What is the treatment for hidradenitis suppurativa? [2]

A

Tetracycline antibiotics such as lymecycline and doxycycline are often tried initially.

The combination of clindamycin and rifampicin is another option for a 10-week course

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10
Q

Female x spots on jawline

What should you suspect? [1]

A

PCOS

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11
Q
A
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12
Q

If you suspected a patient to have pityriasis versicolor, describe how you would quickly investigate? [1]

A

Can scrape off the fungal Malassezia (mica)

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13
Q

First line treatment for acitinic keratosis? [1]

A

Cryotherapy or 5-fluorouracil cream

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14
Q

Why should you be concerned if you see a presentation of pemphis vulgaris? [1]

A

Paraneoplastic disease

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15
Q

BP typically presents in older, frail patients.

Potent topical steroids work well but consideration needs to be given because of the effect of the steroids.

What is an alternative treatment? [1]

A

doxycycline OD x 3months

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16
Q

Rosacea: a combination of [] + [] is first-line for patients with severe papules and/or pustules

A

Rosacea: a combination of topical ivermectin + oral doxycycline is first-line for patients with severe papules and/or pustules

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17
Q

[] is the treatment of choice for facial hirsutism

A

Topical eflornithine is the treatment of choice for facial hirsutism

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18
Q

What is the only method for treating rhinophyma? [1]

A

CO2 and Erbium YAG lasers

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19
Q

Acitretin is really useful for treating psoriasis.

Which populations can you not give it to? [1]

A

Females of childbearing age - extremely teratogenic and stays in blood for 3 years

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20
Q

Macular rash that starts on face, that spreads to trunk and limbs. Spares the palms of hands and feet.

Dx? [1]
What other features would indicate this dx? [2]

A

Measles
- Koplik spots
- Onset of rash coincides with highest fever 40C

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21
Q

Which type of melonoma is most common in pigmented skins? [1]

A

Acral lentiginous

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22
Q

Which manifestations of psoriasis would indicate a dermatologist referral? [2]

A

Ocular involvement
Rhinophyma

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23
Q

A diagnosis of actinic keratoses is made. What is the most appropriate first line management?

A

Topical fluorouracil cream

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24
Q

A man is dx with Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC).

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

Radiotherapy
Laser therapy
Mohs micrographic surgery
Sun Cream
Immunosuppressants

A

A man is dx with Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC).

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

Mohs micrographic surgery
- Mohs micrographic surgery involves examining excised tissue under the microscope as it is removed. This ensures all the tumour is removed whilst preserving the maximum amount of healthy tissue possible. It is used in cosmetically sensitive areas, for example near the eye as in this case, and for ill-defined BCCs.

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25
Q

Seborrhoeic dermatitis - first-line treatment is []

A

Seborrhoeic dermatitis - first-line treatment is topical ketoconazole
- It is thought to be related to an overgrowth of yeast-like fungi from the genus Malassezia, which are part of the normal skin flora.

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26
Q

Difference between lichen planus and lichen sclerosus?

A

Lichen sclerosus
- usually affects the genitalia and is more common in elderly females. Lichen sclerosus leads to atrophy of the epidermis with white plaques forming

Lichen planus:
- Planus = all the Ps
purple (violaceous), papular, polygonal plaques; have white striae on them (Wickham’s stria)

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27
Q

The most common dermatosis in pregnancy is []

A

The most common dermatosis in pregnancy is atopic eruption of pregnancy

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28
Q

Describe the ulcers seen in squamous cell carcinoma [4]

A

typically on sun-exposed sites such as the head and neck or dorsum of the hands and arms
rapidly expanding painless, ulcerate nodules
may have a cauliflower-like appearance
there may be areas of bleeding

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29
Q

Pneumonic for drugs that can cause TEN/SJS?

A

Never Press Skin As It Can Peel

NSAIDs, Phenytoin, Sulphonamides, Allopurinol, IV Ig, Carbamazepine, Penicillins

NB: IV Ig is a treatment not cause

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30
Q

The dermatologist diagnoses scalp psoriasis.

What is the most appropriate management for her new diagnosis?

Oral methotrexate
Phototherapy
Topical betamethasone valerate
Topical vitamin D
GP review in 2 weeks

A

Topical betamethasone valerate
Scalp psoriasis - first-line treatment is topical potent corticosteroids

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31
Q

Which score is used to assess level of hirsutism? [1]

What scores would indicate a moderate to severe level? [1]

A

Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system:
- 9 body areas assigned a score from 0-4
- Score > 15 is indicates a moderate to severe level

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32
Q

[Infection] is associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis

A

HIV is associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis

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33
Q

[Neurological condition] is associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis

A

Parkinsons Disease

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34
Q

A non-healing painless ulcer associated with a chronic scar is indicative of []

A

A non-healing painless ulcer associated with a chronic scar is indicative of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

Scar x SSC

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35
Q

Which sides (lateral/medial) are venous and arterial ulcers more likely to present on? [2]

A

vEnous - mEdial
Arterial - lAteral

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36
Q

What is this? [1]

A

This is a common presentation of a dermatofibroma - they are usually asymptomatic and are often precipitated by an injury to the site, such as an insect bite.

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37
Q

Pityriasis rosea often follows a [] infection

A

Pityriasis rosea often follows a viral infection

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38
Q

[] is often the most effective treatment for prominent telangiectasia in rosacea

A

Laser therapy is often the most effective treatment for prominent telangiectasia in rosacea

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39
Q

Oral [] are the first-line treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum

A

Oral steroids are the first-line treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum

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40
Q

Acne vulgaris in pregnancy - use oral [] if treatment needed

A

Acne vulgaris in pregnancy - use oral erythromycin if treatment needed

tetracyclines have a risk of teratogenicity

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41
Q

A man has presented with a rash consistent with seborrhoeic dermatitis, which is a particular risk given a past medical history of []. The first-line treatment for this condition is topical ketoconazole.

A

A man has presented with a rash consistent with seborrhoeic dermatitis, which is a particular risk given a past medical history of [HIV]. The first-line treatment for this condition is topical ketoconazole.

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42
Q

In acute urticaria a sedating antihistamine (e.g. []) may be considered for night-time use for troublesome sleep symptoms

A

In acute urticaria a sedating antihistamine (e.g. chlorphenamine) may be considered for night-time use for troublesome sleep symptoms

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43
Q

Severe urticaria - A short course of an oral [] may required in addition to a non-sedating antihistamine

A

Severe urticaria - A short course of an oral corticosteroid may required in addition to a non-sedating antihistamine

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44
Q

Which three risk factors increase the risk of a patient presenting (often in a q) with pityriasis rosea? [3]

A

Present on trunk, flaky and recent sun exposure all suggest Piyriasis Vesicolour

45
Q

Solitary firm papule/nodule that dimples on pinching → []

A

Solitary firm papule/nodule that dimples on pinching → dermatofibroma

46
Q
A

This man has a rhinophyma, a complication of acne rosacea.

47
Q

Dx? [1]

Usual pattern of disease? [1]

A

Pemphigoid gestationis
- pruritic blistering lesions
- peri-umbilical region, later spreading to the trunk, back, buttocks and arms
- usually presents 2nd or 3rd trimester and is rarely seen in the first pregnancy

48
Q

Dx? [1]
Tx ? [1]

A

Pemphigoid gestationis:
- oral corticosteroids are usually required

49
Q

Dx? [1]
Tx? [1]

A

Atopic eruption of pregnancy:
it typically presents as an eczematous, itchy red rash.
- no specific treatment is needed

50
Q

Erysipelas is localised skin infection caused by []

How do you differentiate this from cellulitis? [1]

A

Erysipelas is localised skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes
- It is differentiated from cellulitis due to its raised and well defined border.

51
Q

How do you differentiate between liver failure and hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia when a patient presents with small lesions with a number of tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle? [1]

A

Spider naevi can be differentiated from telangiectasia by pressing on them and watching them fill.

Spider naevi fill from the centre, telangiectasia from the edge

Telangi-edge-tasia

52
Q

What is the difference between port-wine stains and salmon patches? [1]

A

Salmon patches or ‘stork bites:
- are small pink or red patches that typically form on the eyelids, between the eyes or on the back of the neck which typically FADE and disappear by the age of two

A port-wine stain
- is a flat, pink, red, or purple coloured birthmark and does not disappear over time and so would not be the right answer in this scenario.

53
Q

Malignant melanoma: the [] is the single most important prognostic factor

A

Melanoma: the invasion depth of the tumour is the single most important prognostic factor

54
Q

A depressed intra-articular fracture of the lunate fossa of the distal radius is also known as a…
Barton fracture
chauffeur fracture
Colles fracture
die-punch fracture
Smith fracture

A

A depressed intra-articular fracture of the lunate fossa of the distal radius is also known as a…
Barton fracture
chauffeur fracture
Colles fracture
die-punch fracture
Smith fracture

55
Q
A
56
Q

Name a first line non-sedating antihistamine that might be used for acute urticaria [1]

Name a sedating antihistamine that might be used for acute urticaria for nightime use [1]

A

anti-sedating:
Loratadine or cetirizine

sedating antihistamine:
- chlorphenamine

57
Q

What is a dermoid cyst? [1]
Where are they usually found? [1]

A

Dermoid cysts are embryological remnants and may be lined by hair and squamous epithelium (like teratomas).
- located in the midline and may be linked to deeper structures resulting in a dumbbell shape to the lesion.

58
Q

Whats the treatment for a dermoid cyst? [1]

A

Complete excision is requires as they have a propensity to local recurrence if not excised.

59
Q

What is desmoid tumour? [1]
Where do they develop? [1]

A

Desmoid tumour:
- aggressive fibromatosis and consist of fibroblast dense lesions (resembling scar tissue)
- most commonly develop in ligaments and tendons

60
Q

Dermatitis in acral, peri-orificial and perianal distribution can be caused by a deficiency in which mineral? [1]

A

Dermatitis in acral, peri-orificial and perianal distribution → zinc deficiency

61
Q

Aim for a [] week break in between courses of topical corticosteroids in patients with psoriasis

A

Aim for a 4 week break in between courses of topical corticosteroids in patients with psoriasis

62
Q

A 34-year-old man presents for the removal of a mole. Where on the body are keloid scars most likely to form?

Sternum
Lower back
Abdomen
Flexor surfaces of limbs
Scalp

A

A 34-year-old man presents for the removal of a mole. Where on the body are keloid scars most likely to form?

Sternum
Lower back
Abdomen
Flexor surfaces of limbs
Scalp

63
Q

What is the name for widespread soft un-pigmented hair that covers an entire body? [1]

What can this be caused by? [1]

A

This question provides an example of a patient with ‘lanugo hair’. This is generally found in newborn babies and those with chronic malnutrition. It is an important sign to remember as it can be found in patients with anorexia nervosa.

64
Q

What is the first line treatment for lichen planus? [1]

A

Topical betamethasone valerate 0.1%

65
Q

What is the treatment for:
- For patients with rosacea with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia [1]
- Rosacea and mild-to-moderate papules and/or pustules [1]
- moderate-to-severe papules and/or pustules [1]

A

Rosacea with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia
- consider prescribing brimonidine gel: provides temporary relief of flushing and erythema symptoms is the most appropriate option. It reduces erythema within 30 minutes

Mild-to-moderate papules and/or pustules:
- topical ivermectin is first-line

moderate-to-severe papules and/or pustules:
- combination of topical ivermectin + oral doxycycline

66
Q

The most common malignancy in the lower lip is a []

A

The most common malignancy in the lower lip is a squamous cell carcinoma

67
Q

Erythema multiforme is which type of HS reaction? [1]

A

type 4

68
Q

Eczema herpeticum is a primary infection of the skin caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) and uncommonly []

A

Eczema herpeticum is a primary infection of the skin caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) and uncommonly coxsackievirus

69
Q

Which type of skin cancer is the most aggressive? [1[

A

Nodular melanoma: Invade aggressively and metastasise early

70
Q

[] is the most common side-effect of isotretinoin

A

Dry skin is the most common side-effect of isotretinoin

71
Q

What information should be given about the infectiveness of shingles to patients ? [1]

A

People with shingles should be advised that they are infectious until the vesicles have crusted over, usually 5-7 days following onset

72
Q

When do you use topical amorolfine vs oral terbinafine to treat nail dermatophyte infection? [1]

A

Symptomatic dermatophyte nail infections should be treated with oral terbinafine, if there are no contraindications.

Topical amorolfine can be used in patients who are asymptomatic or if they are not experiencing pain or significant psychological distress due to cosmetic appearance of the nail.

73
Q

Do you use oral or topical steroids for lichen planus? [1]

A

First line: topical potent steroids

74
Q

A 65-year-old lady presents to her GP with a 3 month history of weight loss and feeling generally unwell. She has also noticed the skin under her armpits has become darker and slightly thicker. What is the most common malignancy associated with acanthosis nigricans?

Gastrointestinal adenocarcinoma
Phaeochromocytoma
Bile duct cancer
Endometrial carcinoma
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

A 65-year-old lady presents to her GP with a 3 month history of weight loss and feeling generally unwell. She has also noticed the skin under her armpits has become darker and slightly thicker. What is the most common malignancy associated with acanthosis nigricans?

Gastrointestinal adenocarcinoma
Phaeochromocytoma
Bile duct cancer
Endometrial carcinoma
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

75
Q

Which one of the following complications is most associated with psoralen + ultraviolet A light (PUVA) therapy?

Squamous cell cancer
Osteoporosis
Basal cell cancer
Dermoid cysts
Malignant melanoma

A

Which one of the following complications is most associated with psoralen + ultraviolet A light (PUVA) therapy?

Squamous cell cancer

76
Q

Key side effect of ketoconazole? [1]

A

Gynecomastia

77
Q

How can you distinguish polymorphic eruption in pregnancy to pemphigoid gestationis based on area of body affected? [1]

A

One of the main clinical features of polymorphic eruption in pregnancy is periumbilical sparing

The skin rash in pemphigoid gestationis usually starts in the periumbilical area and can cause blisters.

78
Q

Which of the following complications is a patient with PsA at higher risk of?

Cardiovascular disease
Lung cancer
Neutropenia and splenomegaly
Pericarditis
Mononeuritis multiplex

A

Which of the following complications is a patient with PsA at higher risk of?

Cardiovascular disease
Lung cancer
Neutropenia and splenomegaly
Pericarditis
Mononeuritis multiplex

79
Q

Scarlet fever is caused by []

A

Scarlet fever is caused by group A haemolytic streptococci (usually Streptococcus pyogenes)

80
Q

Describe the characteristic rash in scarlet fever [1]
what other change occurs in children? [1]

A

The characteristic rash is described as ‘sandpaper’ texture and children can develop ‘strawberry tongue

81
Q

rash worsens after eating spicy food indicates which pathology? [1]
1st line Tx? [1]

A

Rosacea:
- Topical ivermectin is an appropriate first-line treatment for papulopustular rosacea

82
Q

A 5-year-old girl presents with a rash that started on her face and spread to her trunk. She also has a low-grade fever and swollen lymph nodes behind her ears.
Which of the following viruses is most likely causing her symptoms?

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

Influenza virus

Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Rubella virus

A

A 5-year-old girl presents with a rash that started on her face and spread to her trunk. She also has a low-grade fever and swollen lymph nodes behind her ears.
Which of the following viruses is most likely causing her symptoms?

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

Influenza virus

Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Rubella virus

83
Q

Describe the rash typically seen in rubella [1]

A

The rash typically begins on the face and spreads to the trunk, arms, and legs

84
Q

When do you perform sentinel node biopsies in MM? [1]

A

Where the Breslow thickness is greater than 1mm, a sentinel node biopsy should be performed to look for evidence of metastases and stage the cancer

85
Q

A 9-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his mother who is worried as he has developed a fever and a rash since yesterday. On examination, the rash is erythematous, widespread across the body and feels rough. His tongue is bright red and appears bumpy and he has enlarged cervical lymph nodes. He has also has a temperature of 38.5.

Based on the most likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin:
- The features in this case - a rash which is rough to touch, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy and fever - point towards a diagnosis of scarlet fever. Scarlet fever is caused by group A streptococcus (specifically streptococcus pyogenes). It is treated first-line with a 10 day course of phenoxymethylpenicillin.

86
Q

A 70-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with a spot on his forehead. Examination reveals a 2cm round lesion with an ulcerated centre.
Given the history and examination findings, what is the most appropriate management?

Topical 5-flourouracil

Excision biopsy (4mm margin)

Cryotherapy

Excision biopsy (6mm margin)

Curettage and cautery

A

A 70-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with a spot on his forehead. Examination reveals a 2cm round lesion with an ulcerated centre.
Given the history and examination findings, what is the most appropriate management?

Excision biopsy (6mm margin)
- As this lesion is 2cm in diameter it is considered high risk and requires a 6mm excision margin.

87
Q

A 32 year old woman attends the GP with a blistering skin condition. A biopsy was taken and immunofluorescence shows IgG deposition between cells in the epidermis.

Dx? [1]

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

88
Q

A 22-year-old woman presents with a pruritic, scaly rash between the toes of her right foot which has been present for several weeks.

What is the most appropriate management for the likely diagnosis? [2]

A

Topical miconazole and topical hydrocortisone

89
Q

a bright red rash across the cheeks, reticular rash across the body and viral prodrome most likely has [] nfection

A

a bright red rash across the cheeks, reticular rash across the body and viral prodrome most likely has Parvovirus B19 infection

90
Q

Parvovirus B19 infection during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy can cause [1]

A

Parvovirus B19 infection during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy can cause hydrops fetalis

91
Q

PUVA and UV-B are both forms of light therapy. Which is generally used as first line and why? [1]

A

UV-B
- PUVA is far more phototoxic with more side effects.

92
Q

A 26-year-old female presents with a scaly, erythematous rash on the flexor surfaces of her elbows and knees. She reports the rash is frequently itchy and has been ongoing for several months. On examination, localised skin thickening is noted. Her only past medical history of note is asthma.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?

Oral corticosteroid

Clobetasone butyrate 0.5%

Hydrocortisone 1%

Topical calcineurin inhibitors

Betamethasone valerate 0.1%

A

Hydrocortisone
- Although this patient has presented with moderate eczema, NICE recommends initially prescribing a mild potency topical corticosteroid (such as hydrocortisone 1%) for delicate areas of skin (such as the face and flexures).

93
Q

Describe the changes seen in nails in 10& of those suffering from lichen planus [1]

A

Lichen planus causes longitudinal ridges in nails in 10% of patients

94
Q

How do you treat lichen planus? [1]
How do you treat lichen planus with oral involvement? [1]

A

Lichen planus:
- potent topical steroids

Lichen planus with oral involvement
- potent topical steroids, with benzydamine being used for oral involvement.

95
Q

How long does chickenpox usually lost? [1]
When is it safe to let children return to school? [1]

A

The disease course of chickenpox usually lasts 5 days;
it is around this time that lesions crust over, and the patient is no longer contagious

It is important to note that it is the lesions crusting over, not the time since the presentation, that determines whether a patient is infectious or not.

96
Q

Which type of malignant melanoma is most commonly found on the legs of young and middle aged adults?

Subungual melanoma

Superficial spreading melanoma

Nodular melanoma

Acral lentiginous melanoma

Lentigo maligna melanoma

A

Which type of malignant melanoma is most commonly found on the legs of young and middle aged adults?

Subungual melanoma

Superficial spreading melanoma

Nodular melanoma

Acral lentiginous melanoma

Lentigo maligna melanoma

97
Q

Which is the name for scalp ringworm? [1]

What is the treatment? [2]

A

Scalp ringworm - Tinea capitis

Treatment: Oral itraconazole and topical ketoconazole

98
Q

Previous viral infection x non-blanching rash x purpura = ? [1]

A

ITP

99
Q

Name [1] and treatment [1] for athletes foot?

A

Tinea rubris:
- topical clotrimazole

100
Q

A patient presents with suspected lichen sclerosis.

What level of topical corticosteroid would you prescribe? [1]

Name an example [1]

A

Potent topical corticosteroid
- E.g. dermovate

101
Q

A patient is treated for fungal nail infection with which drug? [1]

What monitoring would you perform and why? [1]

A

terbinafine - perform LFTs every 6 months

102
Q
A

The well-defined erythematous plaque with fine scaling is indicative of psoriasis.

103
Q

How would you treat this patient (Figure 1)?

A

Ciclosporin is a clear first choice here. The patient is young and healthy, and therefore likely to tolerate the drug well. It has the fastest onset of action of all the options and usually works well for acute guttate psoriasis.

104
Q

Why would chronic alcohol use CI MTX as a treatment? [1]

A

The patient’s liver health would require careful monitoring as pre-existing fatty liver disease increases the risk of methotrexate-induced liver injury.

105
Q

Ciclosporin can cause what metabolic effect? [1]

A

Ciclosporin can also increase the lipids, though as with acitretin, this issue would not be a complete contraindication.

106
Q

An otherwise well 35-year-old woman requires systemic treatment for both moderate chronic plaque psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis. She has not taken systemic medication in the past. Select the most appropriate drug from the list.

Select 1 option from the answers below, then Submit.

Possible answers:
A. Ciclosporin
B. Apremilast
C. Hydroxycarbamide
D. Leflunomide
E. Methotrexate

A

E. Methotrexate

107
Q

A 70-year-old retired man seeks treatment for his widespread psoriasis. He has not found topical treatment sufficiently helpful and his PASI score is 8.4. He has a history of a moderately differentiated squamous cell carcinoma on the right ear. He is unable to attend regularly for phototherapy as he is the main carer for his wife. Select the most appropriate drug from the list.

Select 1 option from the answers below, then Submit.

Possible answers:
A. Acitretin
B. Ciclosporin
C. Dimethyl fumarate
D. Methotrexate
E. Apremilast

A

Acitretin appears to reduce the risk of keratinocyte cancer. Immunosuppression increases the risk of further skin cancer.

108
Q

A 28-year-old woman, who is 23 weeks pregnant, presents with a severe exacerbation of chronic plaque psoriasis (her PASI score is 14.4 and the DLQI score is 24), which has not responded to topical treatment. She previously suffered significant burns from phototherapy and would not be prepared to risk this again. She also declines admission for more intensive topical treatment. Select the most appropriate drug from the list.

Select 1 option from the answers below, then Submit.

Possible answers:
A. Acitretin
B. Ciclosporin
C. Dimethyl fumarate
D. Methotrexate
E. Apremilast

A

B. Correct. Ciclosporin appears to be safe in pregnancy. It is also suited to treating a young, otherwise fit patient with an acute exacerbation.