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Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of a short circuit?

A

Unintentional low resistance path between component and ground

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2
Q

What does a basic DC circuit consist of?

A

A battery source, resistance/load and conductors/wires.

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3
Q

What is inductance?

A

Voltage is induced by magnetic flux lines in a coil of an AC circuit; opposite direction of applied voltage

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4
Q

What is impedance?

A

Total opposition to the flow of current (total resistance)

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5
Q

What is the total resistance of a circuit known as?

A

Impedance

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6
Q

What causes opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit?

A

Inductive and capacitance reactance

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7
Q

What is the unit of impedance?

A

Ohms (total resistance)

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8
Q

What 4 factors affect resistance of a conductor?

A
  • wire gauge
  • wire length
  • temperature
  • material
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9
Q

How many watts equal one unite of horsepower?

A

746 watts

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10
Q

What are the 3 types of circuits?

A
  • series
  • parallel
  • complex (series and parallel)
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11
Q

What should the specific gravity of an electrolyte of a fully charged lead acid battery be?

A

Between 1.275 and 1.300

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12
Q

What temperatures would adjustments have to be made for a state of charge check when using a hydrometer on a lead-acid battery?

A

Below 70°F or above 90°F

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13
Q

How are battery compartments protected against corrosion?

A
  • corrosion resistant paint
    (bituminous paint)
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14
Q

What should be 3/8ths of an inch above the plates of a battery if properly serviced?

A

The electrolyte level (or if battery has baffle plates between cells; up to the hole/)

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15
Q

What happens with a cell imbalance in a nickel-cadmium battery?

A

The cell has low internal resistance; the current increases, causing it to heat up.

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16
Q

The basic unit of measure for inductance

A

Henry

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17
Q

What is ‘tare weight’?

A

The weight of extra equipment like jacking pads, chocks, blocks and chains. They need to be subtracted to obtain the empty weight.

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18
Q

What numbers are used for close tolerance bolts?

A

AN-173 to AN-186 (Hex head)
NAS-80 to NAS-86 (Countersunk)

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19
Q

What does the triangle mean on a hex head bolt?

A

Close tolerance - machined to more precise dimensions and made for high performance applications

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20
Q

What is a rivnut?

A

Threaded body, expanded into the aircraft structure

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21
Q

What is the depth of penetration of a fillet weld?

A

25-50%

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22
Q

What common materials are cotter pins made out of?

A

Low carbon steel and stainless steel

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23
Q

What should be the width of a weld bead and depth of penetration when making a butt weld?

A

3-5 times the thickness of base metal and 100% penetration

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24
Q

What is bolt diameter and lengths measured in?

A

Diameter - 1/16th inch
Length - 1/8 inch

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25
Q

What is the purpose of close tolerance bolts?

A

Used in high performance applications where subject to severe vibrations and load reversals. Machined to higher standards and must be driven in with a hammer

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26
Q

Steps of heat treatment…

A
  • Heated to predetermined temp
  • heat soaked
  • quenched
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27
Q

Why is alloy steel that is responsive to heat treatment usually less suitable for wealding?

A

Due to its tendency to become brittle and lose its ductility around the weld

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28
Q

What are two methods of case hardening?

A
  • Nitriding
  • carburising
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29
Q

What are characteristics of a cold weld?

A
  • appears rough
  • irregular
  • edges are unfeathered
  • cold laps caused by insufficient heat & improper penetration
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30
Q

What are some non-destructive testing methods?

A
  • dye penetrant
  • eddy current
  • X-ray
  • coin tap
  • visual inspection
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31
Q

What NDT inspection methods can be performed without removing surface coatings?

A

Eddy current inspection

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32
Q

Most common type of corrosion?

A

Surface corrosion

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33
Q

Types of washers…

A
  • spring
  • flat
  • lock tooth
  • tab
  • finishing
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34
Q

Where can you find the torque of a bolt if not listed in maintenance procedures?

A

The standard torque table

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35
Q

What steel alloy is noted for toughness?

A

Chrome-Molybdenum Steel

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36
Q

What is a portable hardness tester is commonly used for testing?

A

Barco tester

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37
Q

Where are thermoplastics & thermosetting used?

A
  • thermoplastic (windshields)
  • thermosetting (used as matrix material in composites)
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38
Q

Name some reinforcing materials in structural composite laminates?

A
  • kevlar
  • fibreglass
  • graphite
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39
Q

What substances are commonly used as the matrix material in composites?

A
  • polyester resin
  • epoxy resin
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40
Q

What is another name for aramid material?

A

Kevlar

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41
Q

What is used to repair threads?

A

Helicoil

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42
Q

Why must aircraft and fuel trucks be grounded together with a grounding cable?

A

Prevents static electricity that could result in explosion

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43
Q

What are the functions of tetraethyl lead in avgas?

A
  • lubricate
  • reduce detonation
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44
Q

Which publication lists the standard FAA hand signals a taxi signalman should use?

A

FAA airman’s information manual (AIM)

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45
Q

What types of fire can a CO2 fire extinguisher be used on?

A

A, B and C

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46
Q

Why are fingers not curled over prop blades when hand propping an engine?

A

Kickback could break them and draw your body into the blade path

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47
Q

What are the 5 common forms of corrosion?

A

F-DISS
Fretting, dissimilar metals (galvanic), Intergranular, Surface and Stress

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48
Q

What factors affect corrosion?

A
  • Temperature
  • types of metal
  • conditions of protective coatings
  • electrolytes in dissimilar metals
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49
Q

What is filiform corrosion?

A

Surfaces that have not had the correct chemical treatment prior to painting

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50
Q

What are the basic steps when removing corrosion?

A
  • clean and strip area
  • remove corrosion
  • neutralise
  • restore protective finish
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51
Q

What can be used to repair anodised surface of an aluminium part?

A

Alodine or other chemical conversion coating

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52
Q

What form of corrosion can be found in battery compartments?

A

Chemical corrosion

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53
Q

What is wet wash and dry wash cleaning?

A

Wet Wash
Used to remove oil/grease etc

Dry Wash
Used to remove dust films and small accumulations of dirt

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54
Q

Define the aspect ratio of a wing

A

The ratio of length (span) to its width (chord)

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55
Q

Define pi

A

The ratio of the circumference to the diameter of any circle

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56
Q

Define the root of a number

A

The base number that is multiplied by itself

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57
Q

What is a quadrant?

A

A quarter of a circle

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58
Q

What is a closed shape made up of 3 or more sides?

A

A polygon

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59
Q

What is a parallelogram?

A

Two pairs of parallel sides (rhombus)

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60
Q

What is the name of the atmospheric condition where cool air is trapped near the earth by warm air?

A

Temperature inversion

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61
Q

What is the speed of sound through air at standard sea level?

A

761mph

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62
Q

What is specific gravity?

A

The ratio of a substance’s density to the density of pure water

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63
Q

What are the 4 forces acting on an aircraft in flight?

A

Thrust, lift, drag and gravity

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64
Q

What is autorotation?

A

When helicopter blades spin without engine power as air flows through the rotor 

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65
Q

What is Blade flapping?

A

Increased angle of attack on retreating blade and decreasing angle attack on advancing blade 

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66
Q

What is the name of the imaginary line that runs from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil? 

A

The chord line 

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67
Q

What are the four ways of measuring temperature? 

A

Fahrenheit, Celsius, kelvin, Rankin 

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68
Q

What is relative humidity? 

A

The ratio of the amount of water vapour actually present in atmosphere, as compared to when the air is saturated with water vapour 

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69
Q

What type of materials are used in metallic honeycomb construction?

A

Stainless steel, titanium, magnesium, plywood, resin, impregnated, paper, E-glass and nylon in various combinations 

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70
Q

What calculations must be made when bending sheet metal? 

A

Set back and bend allowance 

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71
Q

What factors are used to determine setback? 

A

The radius plus the thickness 

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72
Q

When bending sheet metal, how should the grain be in relation to the bend? 

A

Perpendicular to the bend 

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73
Q

What is the bend tangent line? 

A

The line at which the metal starts to bend (imaginary line)

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74
Q

What is a Joggle?

A

And offset near the edge of a piece of sheet metal allowing clearance for another sheet, or extrusion 

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75
Q

What are several methods used in forming sheet metal? 

A

Folding, bumping, crimping, shrinking, and stretching 

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76
Q

What kind of metal forming is done by bumping?

A

Compound curves 

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77
Q

What is anodising?

A

An electrolytic bath, causing a thin film with hydroxide to form on the surface. It provides excellent resistance to corrosion and excellent bond for painting 

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78
Q

What are the proper dimensions for the shop head of a rivet?

A

1.5 x diameter in width & 1/2 diameter in height

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79
Q

What is a bonded honeycomb construction? 

A

A laminar construction consisting of alternating dissimilar metals.
Reduces weight

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80
Q

What procedures should be used to prevent damage to the hole when drilling through plexiglass? 

A
  • backed with Wood
  • slow fed
  • Drillbit modified to 60° tip angle 
  • cutting edge to zero-rake angle
  • back lip clearance angle 12-15°
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81
Q

What is crazing? 

A

Hairline cracks in the surface of a plastic due to heat damage causing excessive stress 

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82
Q

What is used for Hole filling in a bonded honeycomb repair?

A

Potting compound 

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83
Q

What is a warp line? 

A

A highlighted strand in the fabric used for ply orientation 

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84
Q

What is a barcol tester? 

A

Portable device that spikes into composite. The depth of penetration is measured to determine if resins have cured. 

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85
Q

What is a helicopter cyclic?

A

It is used to control the main rotor and change the helicopters direction of movement 

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86
Q

What needs to be done to prepare an aircraft for an annual or 100 our inspection?

A
  • Open all inspection plates and access doors
  • Thoroughly clean the aircraft and engine 
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87
Q

What are the operating conditions which make the 100 our inspection mandatory?

A

Required only for aircraft carry persons for hire always used to give flight instruction for hire 

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88
Q

Does an aircraft been operated under a progressive inspection program require a 100 hour inspection if it is used to give site instruction for higher? 

A

No

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89
Q

What are the three auxiliary, landing gear types?

A
  • nose gear
  • tail gear
  • outrigger type
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90
Q

What is the purpose of the rubber O-ring mounted on the main surface of the outer wheel half of a split-type wheel?

A

Preventing air leakage from the tubeless tire 

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91
Q

What are the three types of aircraft brake systems? 

A
  • independent
  • Power boosted
  • Power control 
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92
Q

What is the purpose of the shuttle valve in a power control system? 

A

It’s isolates the emergency brake system from the normal brake system 

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93
Q

What safety procedure should be followed when inflating tires?

A

Inflate them inside of a cage, where ever possible 

94
Q

What are two methods for bleeding brakes? 

A

Gravity and pressure methods 

95
Q

When installing a chevron seal, what must be considered?

A

It is directional and must be installed with pressure going towards the open side of the seal 

96
Q

What are the filters used in aircraft pneumatic systems?

A
  • Paper type
  • screen type 
97
Q

What are two types of accumulator housings?

A

Spherical and cylindrical 

98
Q

Name, three types of hydraulic accumulators 

A
  • diaphragm
  • bladder
  • piston 
99
Q

What protects direct pressure type hydraulic pressure gauge from pressure surges?

A

A dampening device in the form of a very small restrictor 

100
Q

The production of gas is oxygen for commercial aircraft cylinders is through what process? 

A

Liquefying air
(Sodium chlorate)

101
Q

What are the two groups of independent cabin compressors?

A

Positive displacement and centrifugal compressors

102
Q

What are three methods of supplying heat to the conditioned air, when the heat of compression is not sufficient?

A
  • Fuel burning Combustion heaters
  • electric heaters
  • exhaust gas air-to-air heat exchangers
103
Q

What are the sources for ventilation air in a combustion heater?

A

Blower is used on the ground
In-flight, Ram air
Cabin compressors 

104
Q

What are the components in a vapour cycle cooling system? 

A

Compressor
Condenser
Receiver dryer
Expansion valve
Evaporator 

105
Q

How is a vapour cycle cooling system compressor lubricated?

A

Specialised refrigerant oil 

106
Q

How are high and low pressure, oxygen cylinders identified?

A

High pressure - green in colour and have the words “aviators breathing oxygen” in White, 1 inch letters.

Low pressure are painted light yellow 

107
Q

What are three ways supplemental oxygen can be carried in an aircraft?

A

Liquid
High pressure
Chemical candle 

108
Q

What is a roots blower?

A

A type of engine driven compressor

109
Q

What are the sources of power to a gyroscopic instrument?

A

Vacuum
Electricity
Air pressure 

110
Q

What is a syncro-type remote indicating system?

A

Show movement and position of landing gear wing, flaps, cooler, doors, or other movable parts of an aircraft.

It’s an electrical system, transmitting information from one point to another. Three most common types are Autosyn, Magnesyn and Selsyn.

111
Q

What is meant by swinging a Compass? 

A

The adjustment of the north, south east, and west magnets to reduce deviation 

112
Q

What is a tachometer used for in a crankshaft of a reciprocating engine, or the speed of the main shaft of a turbine engine? 

A

Indicates the speed 

113
Q

What is a BNC type connector in a communication system?

A

Connector used with coaxial cables that takes 1/4 turn to fully seat

114
Q

What are the typical components of a VOR system? 

A

Receiver, visual indicator, dipole, antenna, and power supply 

115
Q

What are the basic components of an autopilot system? 

A

Gyros, servos and amplifier 

116
Q

What are three types of servos used in autopilot systems? 

A

Hydraulic
Pneumatic
Electron

117
Q

What is the frequency of an ELT? 

A

121.5 / 243 / 406 MHz

118
Q

What is the minimum bend of a coaxial cable? 

A

10 times the size of the diameter 

119
Q

At what intervals should coaxial cable be secured?

A

Approximately 2 feet / 24 inches

120
Q

What are marker beacons? 

A

A part of the ILS system, indicating aircraft position on approach to the runway 

121
Q

What is the indication of a middle marker beacon? 

A

Amber light and audible tone 

122
Q

What is an ADF?

A

Automatic direction finder 

123
Q

How often does the ATC transponder require certification?

A

Every 24 calendar months 

124
Q

How is the weight of a bladder type fuel cell supported?

A

Depends on structure of cavity; supporting weight of fuel and maintains shape of the cell. Made of rubber or nylon impregnated with neoprene

125
Q

What colour indicator is 10 gauge wire?

A

Yellow

126
Q

Why do you feel selectors have detents?

A

To lock the switch into the selected position


127
Q

What are four general types of fuel quantity gauges?

A
  • sight glass
  • mechanical
  • electrical (transmitter/receiver)
  • electronic (totalizer)
128
Q

What is the purpose of a circuit breaker?

A

To protect the circuits and wires from fire

129
Q

What are the two principles on which circuit breakers operate?

A

Thermal and magnetic

130
Q

What are the factors to be considered when selecting wire size for electrical power?

A

Allowable power loss in the line
Permissible voltage drop
Current carrying ability 

131
Q

What type of breakers are not acceptable for use in aircraft?

A

Auto reset breakers

132
Q

What are the three most common faults that occur in electrical circuits?

A

Open circuits
Short-circuits
Low power

133
Q

What size electrical conduit should be used for a specific cable bundle?

A

The inside diameter is 25% larger than the conductor bundle 

134
Q

What would cause an AC motor to run too fast?

A
  • excess supply of voltage
  • motor field windings shorted
135
Q

How is the output voltage of an alternator controlled?

A

Voltage regulator to control the exciter field current

136
Q

What are two items that wear on a starter generator?

A
  • commutator
  • brushes
137
Q

What are two types of AC generators?

A
  • single phase
  • 3 phase
138
Q

What are two methods of inflating de-icer boots?

A

Engine bleed air
Engine driven air pump

139
Q

What is the purpose of an air-oil separator in a pneumatic de-icing system?

A
  • removes oil from the air to prevent deterioration of the rubber de-icing boots
140
Q

What must be done before you can make a cold patch repair to a de-icer boot?

A

Clean, rough the surface of the boot & patch, glue and attach

141
Q

What component of a pneumatic de-icer system system normally allows suction to be supplied to the boots to hold them down in flight?

A

The solenoid distributor valve

142
Q

How is overheating prevented in a thermal anti-icing system?

A

A thermal switch (temp of 185°F will close and stop flow)

143
Q

What problems are associated with electrically heated windshields?

A

Delaminating
Arcing
Scratches
Discolouration

144
Q

What does arcing usually indicate in an electrically heated windshield?

A

A breakdown in the conductive coating

145
Q

What type of power is used to operate a windshield wiper system?

A

Electrical or hydraulic power

146
Q

What are the two most common fire extinguishers?

A

Halon 1211
Water

147
Q

What colour does a CO detector change to when carbon monoxide fumes are present?

A

Silica gel - changes to Green

148
Q

What type of extinguishing agent is usually found in HRD system?

A

Halogenated hydrocarbons

149
Q

What type of fire extinguisher is recommended for brake fires?

A

A dry powder extinguisher

150
Q

What type of fire extinguishers are used for interior aircraft fires?

A

Water, CO2 and dry chemical

151
Q

At what time interval is the next hydrostatic test due on a portable fire extinguisher?

A

5 years from the last test date

152
Q

What is the operating flexibility of an engine?

A

The ability of an engine to run smoothly at all speeds

153
Q

How are reciprocating engines classified?

A

In line, radial and opposed

Or by cooling method (liquid or air cooled)

154
Q

What are the different types of piston rings?

A
  • scraper
  • compression
  • oil control
155
Q

What is the purpose of the oil control rings?

A

They provide the oil film on the cylinder walls and control thickness

156
Q

What type of piston rods are in radial engines?

A

Master and articulating rod assembly

157
Q

What types of bearings are used in reciprocating engines?

A

Plain
Roller
Ball

158
Q

How do you detect valve blow by?

A

Hissing or whistling sound when pulling the prop by hand (compression check should be completed)

159
Q

What is the main purpose of valve overlap?

A

Volumetric efficiency (lowers temp of cylinders)

160
Q

What inspections would you do to the valves on complete engine overhaul?

A

Compression strength check
Visual inspection for cracks/corrosion
Cleaned thoroughly

161
Q

What is the purpose of sodium filled stemmed valves?

A

Excellent hear conductor; the sodium melts and allows heat transfer from valve head to the stem

162
Q

What are crankshaft dynamic dampers?

A

Floating dampers in the counterweight assembly reduce crankshaft vibrations

163
Q

How would you do a runout check?

A

Remove the propeller; attach dial indicator and rotate crankshaft to check for misalignment

164
Q

What cylinder is engine to magneto timing based on?

A

Cylinder number 1 (around 30 degrees before TDC of compression stroke)

165
Q

What instrument(s) can be used to check bore for out of roundness?

A

Dial indicator
Telescopic gauge
Outside/inside micrometer

166
Q

Where is a crack most likely to occur on a piston?

A

Where the piston pin connects

167
Q

What should be done to repair a loose stud in an engine crankcase?

A

Remove the stud; inspect the hole for size and condition of threads. Replace

168
Q

What is an indication that primer is leaking or is open during engine operation?

A

The engine will not idle properly

169
Q

What is the term thermal efficiency?

A

The ratio of net work produced by the engine to the chemical energy supplied

170
Q

What is the major difference between a turbo prop and a turbo fan engine?

A

The turbo prop normally has more turbine stages

171
Q

What is an indication of a turbojet engine is out of trim?

A

High EGT and EPR at takeoff

172
Q

What is a free turbine?

A

Drives a propeller or helicopter transmission

173
Q

What are 3 types of ultrasonic inspection methods?

A
  • resonance
  • pulse-echo
  • through transmission
174
Q

What additional inspection should be carried out if cylinder compression is weak?

A

An internal inspection for improper tolerances

175
Q

What type of FAA approval is required when a change to an engine design is not enough to require a new type certificate?

A

Supplemental type certificate

176
Q

How does an oil analysis program help evaluate the internal condition of an engine?

A

A system that establishes a trend to measure engine health

177
Q

What is the purpose of a hot section inspection of a turbine engine?

A

To determine the integrity of hot section components

178
Q

What are the two units in an engine fuel control system?

A

A transmitter and an indicator

179
Q

Where is a fuel flow transmitter located?

A

In the fuel line between the engine pump and the carburettor

180
Q

What type of readout is indicated on a fuel flow system?

A

Calibrated to show fuel flow in lbs/hr

181
Q

What exactly does a mass fuel flow transmitter measure?

A

The density mass of fuel that flows through it

182
Q

What is the reason for monitoring fuel flow?

A

To make sure the engine is operating at the correct fuel-air mixture at a given power setting

183
Q

Where is a carburettor air temperature bulb located?

A

In the intake passage to the engine

184
Q

How can EGT of a turbine engine be checked without operating the engine?

A

By checking resistance to the thermocouples and circuits

185
Q

What is the typical resistance of a cylinder head thermocouple cable?

A

2-8 ohms

186
Q

What is the possible cause when a turboprop engine’s oil pressure drops off severely, and the oil supply remains? 

A

Oil pressure transmitter or indication malfunction

187
Q

What are the three main categories of engine fire protection systems?

A

Spot detection
Continuous loop
Flame detectors

188
Q

What are the two types of spot detection systems?

A

Thermoswitch and thermocouple

189
Q

How many thermocouples are required for engine fire detection?

A

Depends on the size of the fire zone/circuit resistance

190
Q

How does a thermal switch fire detection work?

A

When the heat sensitive switch closes, it closes the circuit to a light for information

191
Q

What is the most common cause of a false fire warning in a continuous loop fire detection system?

A

Dents/kinks/crushed sensing element

192
Q

What two methods are used to discharge fire extinguishing agents?

A

Mechanical and electrical

193
Q

What is the colour marking used to identify fire extinguishing lines?

A

Brown with black diamonds

194
Q

What is the purpose of the yellow and red disks in a turbine engine fire extinguishing system?

A

Yellow = pilot initiated
Red = thermal activated discharge

195
Q

What are the basic components of a basic magnetic circuit?

A

Permanent magnet
Soft iron core
Pole shoes

196
Q

How are new brushes installed in a generator?

A

Face of brushes are shaped to provide max contact with commutator using fine grade sandpaper and turning the commutator in direction of rotation until properly contoured. Blow out residue with compressed air

197
Q

When should brushes be replaced in a generator?

A

When they are 1/2 of their original length

198
Q

What units make up a DC generator?

A

Voltage regulator
Current limiter
Reverse current cutout

199
Q

What are the 3 types of DC motors?

A

Series
Shunt
Compound

200
Q

What are the parts of a DC motor?

A

Armature
Brushes
Commutator
Field frame

201
Q

What do a the AWG system?

A

American wire gauge.
Smaller number = larger wire

202
Q

How do you control the voltage output of a DC aircraft generator?

A

Controlling the strength of the magnetic field
- using a vibrating type voltage regulator
- three unit regulator
- carbon pile

203
Q

What causes excessive arcing on generator brushes?

A

Dirty, rough or out-of round commutator
Worn brushes
Brush spring tension being low

204
Q

How much slack is normally allowed between supports when installing single wires/bundles?

A

Not exceeding 1/2 an inch

205
Q

What components make up a direct cranking electric starter?

A

Electric motor
Reduction gears
Automatic engage/disengage mechanism

206
Q

Why is a series wound motor used for engine starting?

A

High starting torque under heavy load conditions

207
Q

What is the most important property that an aircraft reciprocating engine oil must possess?

A

Viscosity

208
Q

What is S.O.A.P analysis?

A

Spectrometric Oil Analysis Program
- establishes trend and engine wear

209
Q

Where are carbon seals used in turbine engines?

A

Gearboxes
Starters
Main shaft seals

210
Q

What is the purpose of the condenser in a magneto?

A

Prevents arching at the points
Hastens collapse of magnetic field around primary coil

211
Q

What happens as the breaker points open in a magneto?

A

The primary coil magnetic field collapses; the flux lines cut across the secondary coil and induce a high voltage current which is sent to the spark plugs

212
Q

What three conditions are required to fireplugs in a cylinder when the piston is in the prescribed position? 

A

E-gap position
Breaker points open
Distributor rotor aligned

213
Q

What are two types of igniter plugs?

A

Annular gap
Constrained gap

214
Q

What is a sign that a starter commutator is worn?

A

A noisy starter

215
Q

What is the function of a metering jet?

A

It limits fuel flow when throttle valve is wide open

216
Q

What could be the result of using excessively rich idle mixtures? 

A

Carbon fouling of the spark plug 

217
Q

What is the purpose of the economiser system in a float carburettor? 

A

Closed at throttle settings below 60% to 70%
Provides additional fuel for engine, cooling to prevent detonation at higher throttle settings 

218
Q

What operates an automatic mixture control on a pressure carburettor? 

A

The AMC contains sealed bellows that expand or contract with changes in atmospheric pressure in which the movement operates a tapered needle 

219
Q

What are the three types of carburettor icing? 

A

Throttle, impact and fuel evaporation

220
Q

What is the typical fuel pressure in a float type carburettor?

A

3-5psi

221
Q

What two items are adjusted when setting idling conditions on a float carburettor?

A

Throttle stop
Idle mixture

222
Q

What is the purpose of using boost pumps in a fuel system? 

A

Supply fuel during engine starting
Back up if engine pump fails
Keeps the pressure from becoming low enough to permit fuel to boil at high altitudes (Vapour lock) 

223
Q

What are three general causes of vapour lock? 

A

Low fuel pressure
High fuel temperature
Excessive fuel turbulence 

224
Q

What are the three major parts of a reciprocating engine induction system? 

A

Air scoop
Fuel delivery system
Intake manifold 

225
Q

What are two general classifications of superchargers in reciprocating engine induction systems?

A

Externally driven (exhaust gases)
Internally driven (gear train)

226
Q

What is the purpose of a distribution impeller in a radial engine? 

A

To break up fuel globules into finer particles for better distribution 

227
Q

What are two general types of exhaust systems in use of reciprocating aircraft engines? 

A

Short Stack (open)
The collector system 

228
Q

What exhaust system is generally used on low powered non-supercharged engines?

A

The short stack system 

229
Q

What drawback in using collector type exhaust systems is more than offset one used on turbocharged engines?

A

Loss of horsepower due to exhaust system back pressure 

230
Q

What are two types of propeller configurations? 

A

Tractor type
Pusher type 

Oral and Practical (1 decks)

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