questions

Question 1

Which of the following is the subgroup of economics that studies large-scale economic issues such as unemployment, interest rates, price levels, and national income?

A. Microeconomics
B. Macroeconomics
C. Scarcity
D. Supply and demand

Answer 1

B

Question 2

A homeowner hires a landscape company to mow the grass because they would like to use that time to do something else. The trade-off of paying someone to do a job to make more valuable use of time is an example of what?

A. Economic systems
B. Supply and demand
C. Opportunity cost
D. Inflation

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which kind of market does not involve government interventions or monopolies while trades are made between suppliers and buyers?

A. Free
B. Command
C. Gross
D. Exchange

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which is NOT an indicator of economic growth?

A. GDP (Gross Domestic Product)
B. Unemployment
C. Inflation
D. Theory of the Firm

Answer 4

D

Question 5

In a business cycle, a recession occurs between which cycles?

A. Expansion, peak
B. Peak, contraction
C. Contraction, trough
D. Trough, expansion

Answer 5

C

Question 6

What is the name of the central bank that controls the value of money in the United States?

A. Commodity Reserve
B. Central Reserve
C. Federal Reserve
D. Bank Reserve

Answer 6

C

Question 7

Which option does NOT sustain monetary policies?

A. Closed market operations
B. Open market operations
C. Assuring bank reserves
D. Adjusting interest rates

Answer 7

A

Question 8

What determines the exchange rate in a “floating” or “flexible” exchange?

A. The government
B. Taxes
C. The Federal Reserve
D. The market

Answer 8

D

Question 9

Which statement is true about inflation and purchasing power?

A. As inflation decreases, purchasing power increases
B. As inflation increases, purchasing power decreases
C. As inflation increases, purchasing power increases
D. As inflation decreases, purchasing power decreases

Answer 9

B

Question 10

Which statement is true about goods and services?

A. The quantity of goods and services matters more than their value
B. The value of goods and services matters more than their quantity
C. The quality of goods and services matters more than their production
D. The production of goods and services matters more than their quality

Answer 10

B

Question 11

Which of the following refers to the value of a good set by supply and demand rather than the actual value it represents?

A. Commodity money
B. Fiat money
C. Bank money
D. Reserve money

Answer 11

B

Question 12

Which of the following is not a characteristic of contractionary monetary policy?

A. Increases the money supply
B. Possibly increases unemployment due to slowdowns in economic growth
C. Decreases consumer spending
D. Decreases loans and/or borrowing

Answer 12

A

Question 13

Which of the following lists all four phases of the business cycle?

A. Expansion, crest, peak, trough
B. Expansion, contraction, peak, trench
C. Peak, trough, contraction, expansion
D. Peak, rise, trough, decline

Answer 13

C

Question 14

Frictional unemployment is best described by which of the following?

A. When a person is no longer qualified for a job
B. When a qualified person cannot be matched to a job
C. When a person is laid off because of the business cycle
D. When a person is unemployed for longer than six months

Answer 14

B

Question 15

How is economic growth measured?

A. By the rise in the inflation of a country
B. By the amount of reserves that a country holds
C. By the amount of exports that a country has
D. By the GDP of a country

Answer 15

D

Question 16

If a store has a large supply of Widget X and they are not selling many of them, what should they do?

A. Raise the price so that when they do sell one, they will make a large profit
B. Lower the price to hopefully increase demand so they can offload supply
C. Raise the price so that people will think that it is a limited, high value product and buy it
D. Offer the product in a low price bundle with other unrelated products

Answer 16

B

Question 17

Who is in control in a command economy?

A. The consumer
B. Private businesses
C. The government
D. Manufacturers

Answer 17

C

Question 18

Which of the following correctly lists the factors of production?

A. Land, labor, material, entrepreneurship
B. Land, labor, capital, equity
C. Land, a building, capital, labor
D. Land, labor, capital, entrepreneurship

Answer 18

D

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the central bank?

A. Manage interest rates
B. Set the tax rate
C. Backup the commercial banks
D. Set reserve requirements

Answer 19

B

Question 20

Which of the following is the primary problem with map projection?

A. They are not detailed
B. They do not include physical features
C. They distort areas near the poles
D. They only focus on the Northern Hemisphere

Answer 20

C

Question 21

Which type of map illustrates the world’s climatological regions?

A. Topographic Map
B. Conformal Projection
C. Isoline Map
D. Thematic Map

Answer 21

D

Question 22

In which manner is absolute location expressed?

A. The cardinal directions (north, south, east, and west)
B. Through latitudinal and longitudinal coordinates
C. Location nearest to a more well-known location
D. Hemispherical position on the globe

Answer 22

B

Question 23

Latitudinal lines are used to measure distance in which direction?

A. East to west
B. North to south
C. Between two sets of coordinates
D. In an inexact manner

Answer 23

B

Question 24

Literacy rates are more likely to be higher in which area?

A. Developing nations
B. Northern Hemisphere Nations
C. Developed Nations
D. Near centers of trade

Answer 24

C

Question 25

All are true of an area with an extremely high population density EXCEPT which of the following?

A. Competition for resources is intense
B. Greater strain on public services exists
C. Most are found in rural areas
D. Most are found in urban areas

Answer 25

C

Question 26

All of the following are negative demographic indicators EXCEPT which of the following?

A. High Infant Mortality Rates
B. Low Literacy Rates
C. High Population Density
D. Low Life Expectancy

Answer 26

C

Question 27

Which of the following characteristics best defines a formal region?

A. Homogeneity
B. Diversity
C. Multilingualism
D. Social Mobility

Answer 27

A

Question 28

Which of the following is NOT a factor in a location’s climate?

A. Latitudinal position
B. Elevation
C. Longitudinal position
D. Proximity to mountains

Answer 28

C

Question 29

All but which of the following are true of the Tropics?

A. They are consistently hit with direct rays of the sun
B. They fall between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn
C. They are nearer the Equator than the Middle Latitudes
D. They are always warmer than other parts of the Globe

Answer 29

D

Question 30

Which of the following is true regarding the physical process of weathering?

A. It is the same as erosion
B. It involves wind and rain
C. It does not involve moving particles
D. It is only a problem in cold climates

Answer 30

C

Question 31

Which is true of natural hazards?

A. They generally only affect the tropical regions
B. They can occur in all regions of the Earth
C. They are more widespread in the Arctic regions
D. They have become less prevalent in recent years

Answer 31

B

Question 32

A developing nation is more likely to have which of the following?

A. Complex highway networks
B. Higher rates of subsistence farmers
C. Stable government systems
D. Little economic instability

Answer 32

B

Question 33

Which best describes ethnic groups?

A. Subgroups within a population who share a common history, language, or religion
B. Divisive groups within a nation’s boundaries seeking independence
C. People who choose to leave a location
D. Any minority group within a nation’s boundaries

Answer 33

A

Question 34

Which is NOT true of nonrenewable resources?

A. They tend to be used more frequently than renewables
B. They are thought to be responsible for climate change
C. They are relied upon heavily in developing economies
D. They have slowed industrial growth

Answer 34

D

Question 35

Which of the following could be considered a pull factor for a particular area?

A. High rates of unemployment
B. Low GDP
C. Educational opportunity
D. High population density

Answer 35

C

Question 36

In recent years, agricultural production has been affected by which of the following?

A. The prevalence of biotechnology of GMOs
B. Weaker crop yields due to pool soil
C. Plagues of pests, which have limited food production
D. Revolutions in irrigation, which utilize salination water

Answer 36

A

Question 37

The process of globalization can best be described as what?

A. The integration of the world’s economic systems into a singular entity
B. The emergence of powerful nations seeking world dominance
C. The absence of nation-states who seek to control certain areas
D. Efforts to establish a singular world government for the world’s citizens

Answer 37

A

Question 38

Which of the following is true of political boundaries?

A. They have remained static for centuries
B. They are generally visible on Earth
C. They are constantly changing
D. They are never disputed among nations

Answer 38

C

Question 39

In late 1989, President George H.W. Bush launched an invasion of which country in order to depose its president?

A. Panama
B. The Dominican Republic
C. Cuba
D. Nicaragua

Answer 39

A. Panama
In December 1989 President Bush organized Operation Just Cause, in which US troops invaded Panama. The troops deposed the General Manual Noriega, who was then put on trial and convicted in the US for drug trafficking and related charges.

Question 40

Which of the following was a result of the rebellion against the Virginia colonial government in 1676 led by Nathaniel Bacon?

A. The planters in Virginia sought to use the labor of enslaved Africans instead of White indentured servants.
B. Colonists began a movement for independence that would culminate in the American Revolution.
C. The colonial government distributed 40 acres of farmland to every White resident.
D. The British government raised taxes on imported goods to pay for the troops stationed in Virginia.

Answer 40

A. The planters in Virginia sought to use the labor of enslaved Africans instead of White indentured servants.
Bacon’s Rebellion, consisting of farmers, indentured servants, and enslaved Africans, was sparked by what the rebels considered the lack of retaliation against Native American attacks on colonists, and the denial of colonial expansion further west. After the uprising was quelled by the government, planters began relying more heavily on enslaved Africans to defray tensions among White settlers and thereby increase the colony’s stability.

Question 41

Which of the following is outlined in the United States Constitution as ratified in 1788 ?

A.How members of the House of Representatives are chosen
B.The role of the Supreme Court in judicial review
C.The composition of the presidential cabinet
D.The role of the political parties in choosing presidential candidates

Answer 41

A.How members of the House of Representatives are chosen

Article I, Section 2, of the United States Constitution outlines how the populations of the states elect members of the House of Representatives every two years.

Question 42

Which of the following is true about both the electoral college and the House of Representatives?

A. They are directly elected by the citizens.
B. They can be impeached by the Senate.
C. They are described in the Bill of Rights to the Constitution.
D. They provide greater power to more populous states.

Answer 42

D.They provide greater power to more populous states.

Delegates in the electoral college and Congressional representatives are apportioned according to population, though they serve different functions.

Question 43

Thomas Paine’s Common Sense contributed most to which of the following developments?

A.The American colonists declaring independence from Great Britain
B.The adoption of the Bill of Rights in the United States Constitution
C.The abolition of the trans-Atlantic slave trade
D.The ratification of the Paris Peace Treaty at the end of the American Revolution

Answer 43

A.The American colonists declaring independence from Great Britain.

Thomas Paine’s 1776 pamphlet Common Sense raised the need for the American colonies to become independent from Great Britain. Paine’s explanation of the immediate need for independence in clear and accessible language became widely read among colonists.

Question 44

Which of the following developments best accounts for the first appearance of villages in southwestern North America circa 300 B.C.E.?

A.The ability to adapt and grow crops such as maize
B.The use of pottery in ritual ceremonies
C.The emergence of trade routes connecting southwestern communities
D.The use of domesticated animals for agriculture and trade

Answer 44

A.The ability to adapt and grow crops such as maize.

Maize, beans, and squash were introduced to the southwestern United States from Mesoamerica after 1000 B.C.E. By 300 B.C.E. the Hohokam culture in what is today Arizona had developed irrigation based agriculture that led to permanent villages.

Question 45

The initial spread of Buddhism in China and the spread of Christianity in the Mediterranean before 600 C.E. shared which of the following similarities?

A.Both religions were popular because they emphasized gender equality.
B.Both religions were heavily influenced by local religions and philosophies.
C.Both religions gained popularity despite opposition from imperial authorities.
D.Neither religion was significantly influenced by commerce.

Answer 45

B.Both religions were heavily influenced by local religions and philosophies.

Although Buddhism originated in India, Daoist and Confucian influences created a distinct version of Buddhism in China known as Chan. Similarly, while Christianity began as a small Jewish sect, it was heavily influenced by Greco-Roman ideas and philosophies as it spread throughout the Mediterranean.

Question 46

Which of the following was the most important factor in the conduct of long-distance trade in the Indian Ocean region prior to circa 1500 C.E.?

A.The ability to determine longitude
B.The ability to use monsoon winds
C.The spread of advanced maritime technology from Europe
D.The spread of Islam

Answer 46

B.The ability to use monsoon winds

Trading patterns in the Indian Ocean were determined by the seasonal monsoon winds. Merchants used the winds to plan their voyages and reach their destinations.

Question 47

Which of the following political developments most immediately allowed for the emergence of Turkic empires and states across the Middle East and Central Asia shortly after circa 1000 C.E.?

A.The arrival of Latin Christian Crusading armies in the Middle East
B.The resurgence of the Byzantine Empire’s power following conquests in the Balkans
C.The collapse of the Tang Empire in China and its subsequent loss of territories in Central Asia
D.The decline of the Abbasid caliphate’s power because of frequent revolts and political instability

Answer 47

D.The decline of the Abbasid caliphate’s power because of frequent revolts and political instability

The Abbasid caliphs faced numerous revolts from disaffected social and religious groups and powerful families. As a result, they experienced tremendous political instability from civil wars and factional infighting in the caliphal court. These struggles exhausted the caliphate’s resources, weakened its prestige, and limited its ability to maintain control over territories in its far-flung empire. When Turkic peoples such as the Ghaznavids and the Seljuqs began conquering large amounts of territory, the caliphs were unable to stop them and instead had to recognize their conquests.

Question 48

The intensification of the trans-Atlantic slave trade between 1600 and 1750 C.E. was most directly the result of the

A.establishment of English and French colonies in North America
B.decline of Islamic empires in West Africa
C.increase of silver imported into China via the Philippines
D.growing global demand for sugar

Answer 48

D.growing global demand for sugar

Europeans colonizing the Caribbean and Latin America in the late fifteenth and sixteenth centuries began cultivating and refining sugar on large plantations. As demand for sugar grew in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, the profitable yet labor intensive nature of sugar cultivation and production fueled the intensification of the trans-Atlantic slave trade.

Question 49

Which of the following developments most strongly contributed to the Industrial Revolution in eighteenth-century Great Britain?

A.The overthrow of King James II during the Glorious Revolution
B.The end of the Seven Years’ War between Great Britain and France
C.Land reforms and increases in agricultural production
D.Growing popular support for the abolition of slavery in the British Empire

Answer 49

C.Land reforms and increases in agricultural production

Prior to the Industrial Revolution in Great Britain, smaller agricultural holdings were consolidated into larger farms, and communal lands were eliminated through enclosure. In addition, innovations and improvements in agricultural technology and transportation helped increase food production and decreased the share of population dedicated to agriculture. The reduction in workers needed for agriculture allowed more people to migrate to cities, thereby substantially increasing the pool of urban workers needed for industrialization.

Question 50

Which of the following best describes how the Scientific Revolution affected seventeenth-century Europe?

A.It undermined religious teachings about the nature of the universe and physical matter.
B.It challenged traditional gender roles.
C.It reinforced Greco-Islamic scientific and mathematical theories about natural forces.
D.It prevented the growth of new religious movements such as Deism.

Answer 50

A.It undermined religious teachings about the nature of the universe and physical matter.

Although most of the intellectuals involved in the Scientific Revolution retained strong religious convictions and respect for ancient and medieval learning, their theories about the universe, the solar system, and physical forces such as gravity undermined traditional religious teachings.

Question 51

Which of the following Islamic states that existed in the period 1500–1750 C.E. do historians frequently refer to as a “gunpowder empire”?

A.The Ottoman Empire
B.The Umayyad Caliphate
C.The Abbasid Caliphate
D.The Seljuq Empire

Answer 51

A.The Ottoman Empire

Although the Ottomans were not the first to develop or use gunpowder, their successful deployment of cannons and other gunpowder weapons during battles and sieges played a major role in their expansion across southern Europe and the Middle East.

Question 52

The end of the Cold War most strongly accelerated which of the following economic features of globalization?

A.Free-market reforms in countries with state-controlled economies
B.The decreasing role of developing nations in global trade
C.The adoption of visa programs to attract foreign labor
D.The emergence of multinational corporations

Answer 52

A.Free-market reforms in countries with state-controlled economies

After the fall of the Berlin Wall in 1989, the collapse of communist governments in Eastern Europe shortly thereafter, and the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991, many of these states instituted free-market policies.

Question 53

Which of the following was the most immediate consequence of the Great Depression in Europe?

A.The decline of the power of labor unions
B.The rise of right-wing nationalist governments
C.The creation of global economic institutions such as the World Bank
D.The independence of African and Asian colonies

Answer 53

B.The rise of right-wing nationalist governments

Right-wing nationalist political parties blamed the economic turmoil and suffering caused by the global Great Depression on ethnic and religious minorities, immigrants, labor unions, and capitalists, allowing those parties to tap into popular resentment and build support. Such parties came to power in the 1930s in Germany, Portugal, Romania, Spain, and elsewhere.

Question 54

Which of the following was the most immediate cause of the Russian Revolution of 1917 ?

A.Russian involvement in the First World War
B.The abolition of serfdom in Russia
C.The intensification of Russian nationalism
D.Russian state support for industrialization

Answer 54

A.Russian involvement in the First World War

Russia suffered a series of major defeats and territorial losses to German armies between November 1914 and October 1916 that led to millions of casualties, mass desertions, and rampant inflation and food shortages. The Russian government under Czar Nicholas II was unable to address these problems adequately, which led to the February Revolution, the abdication of Nicholas II, and the establishment of a provisional government. When this government proved unable to deal with these problems, it was overthrown by the Bolshevik Revolution of October 1917.

Question 55

Vodou (voodoo) and Santería are examples of

A.syncretic religions
B.Islamic sects
C.tantric practices
D.Buddhist rituals

Answer 55

A.syncretic religions

Both vodou (voodoo) and Santería emerged in the Caribbean under European colonial rule and combine traditional West African and Christian religious traditions.

Question 56

The end of the Cold War most strongly accelerated which of the following economic features of globalization?

A.Free-market reforms in countries with state-controlled economies
B.The decreasing role of developing nations in global trade
C.The adoption of visa programs to attract foreign labor
D.The emergence of multinational corporations

Answer 56

A.Free-market reforms in countries with state-controlled economies

After the fall of the Berlin Wall in 1989, the collapse of communist governments in Eastern Europe shortly thereafter, and the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991, many of these states instituted free-market policies.

Question 57

Which of the following was the most immediate consequence of the Great Depression in Europe?

A.The decline of the power of labor unions
B.The rise of right-wing nationalist governments
C.The creation of global economic institutions such as the World Bank
D.The independence of African and Asian colonies

Answer 57

B.The rise of right-wing nationalist governments

Right-wing nationalist political parties blamed the economic turmoil and suffering caused by the global Great Depression on ethnic and religious minorities, immigrants, labor unions, and capitalists, allowing those parties to tap into popular resentment and build support. Such parties came to power in the 1930s in Germany, Portugal, Romania, Spain, and elsewhere.

Question 58

Which of the following was the most immediate cause of the Russian Revolution of 1917 ?

A.Russian involvement in the First World War
B.The abolition of serfdom in Russia
C.The intensification of Russian nationalism
D.Russian state support for industrialization

Answer 58

A.Russian involvement in the First World War

Russia suffered a series of major defeats and territorial losses to German armies between November 1914 and October 1916 that led to millions of casualties, mass desertions, and rampant inflation and food shortages. The Russian government under Czar Nicholas II was unable to address these problems adequately, which led to the February Revolution, the abdication of Nicholas II, and the establishment of a provisional government. When this government proved unable to deal with these problems, it was overthrown by the Bolshevik Revolution of October 1917.

Question 59

“You have the right to remain silent. Anything you say can and will be used against you in a court of law. You have the right to an attorney.”
What are the direct origins of the Miranda Rights quoted above?

A.The Magna Carta
B.The Declaration of Independence
C.The Fifth and Sixth Amendments to the United States Constitution
D.The Seventh and Eighth Amendments to the United States Constitution

Answer 59

C.The Fifth and Sixth Amendments to the United States Constitution

The Fifth and Sixth Amendments protect a citizen’s rights to due process and a fair and speedy trial.

Question 60

In the United States, the federal bureaucracy functions as part of the

A.legislative branch
B.judicial branch
C.military
D.executive branch

Answer 60

D.executive branch

Federal bureaucratic organizations such as the Department of State, the Federal Trade Commission, and the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) are organized under the executive branch to perform essential functions and ensure that services are regularly delivered.

Question 61

Which of the following best characterizes the effect of the electoral college on United States presidential elections?

A.It encourages candidates to maximize their votes in states where most of their supporters live.
B.It requires the winner to gain a plurality of the popular vote in a majority of states.
C.It ensures that the winner will also win a majority of the national popular vote.
D.It encourages candidates to focus their campaigns on a handful of competitive states.

Answer 61

D.It encourages candidates to focus their campaigns on a handful of competitive states.

The Electoral College has the effect of encouraging candidates to focus their campaigns on a handful of competitive states.

Question 62

Which of the following outlines the basic structure of the three-tiered federal court system from lowest to highest tier?

A.State supreme court, circuit court, United States Supreme Court
B.District court, state supreme court, United States Supreme Court
C.Circuit court, district court, United States Supreme Court
D.District court, circuit court, United States Supreme Court

Answer 62

D.District court, circuit court, United States Supreme Court

In the three-tiered federal court system, cases are initiated in district courts. If a district court decision is appealed, a circuit court will hear the case on appeal. The highest level of the federal court system is the United States Supreme Court, which is the highest court of appeal and hears a relatively small number of cases.

Question 63

According to pluralist theories of democracy, which of the following is a benefit provided by the activities of interest groups?

A.Judicial interpretation
B.Raising revenue
C.Interest aggregation
D.Government accountability

Answer 63

C.Interest aggregation

A benefit provided by the activities of interest groups is interest aggregation, or the combining of political demands into policy programs.

Question 64

“Democracies have ever been spectacles of turbulence and contention; have ever been found incompatible with personal security or the rights of property; and have in general been as short in their lives as they have been violent in their deaths.”
James Madison, The Federalist #10

Which of the following best characterizes Madison’s preferred form of government?

A.Parliamentary democracy
B.Theocracy
C.Constitutional republic
D.Constitutional monarchy

Answer 64

C.Constitutional republic

In The Federalist #10, James Madison argues that the best form of government is a constitutional republic.

Question 65

Which of the following checks is an implied power Congress has over the executive branch?

A.Approving presidential appointments
B.Declaring war
C.Impeachment
D.Oversight of executive agencies

Answer 65

D.Oversight of executive agencies

Of the choices given, only the function of oversight of executive agencies is considered to be an implied power of the United States Congress.

Question 66

Significant campaign finance reform is difficult to achieve because the Supreme Court views campaign donations as being protected by the

A.Tenth Amendment
B.Fourteenth Amendment
C.First Amendment
D.Eighth Amendment

Answer 66

C.First Amendment

The Supreme Court has ruled that campaign donations are a form of free speech protected by the First Amendment and therefore difficult to limit.

Question 67

Which of the following had the responsibility to oversee the implementation of school desegregation after the Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka ruling?

A.The president
B.Congress
C.Federal district courts
D.The police

Answer 67

C.Federal district courts

Federal district courts were charged with overseeing the implementation of school desegregation following the Supreme Court decision in Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka

Question 68

The United States political system differs from parliamentary democracies in which of the following ways?

A.The United States has fixed terms of office for the president and legislature, while most parliamentary democracies have variable terms.
B.The United States holds direct elections for all national legislators, while legislators in most parliamentary democracies are appointed.
C.The United States does not use primary elections, while primary elections are common in most parliamentary democracies.
D.The United States legislature is bicameral, while all parliaments are unicameral.

Answer 68

A.The United States has fixed terms of office for the president and legislature, while most parliamentary democracies have variable terms.

In the United States the president and members of Congress serve fixed terms, while in most parliamentary democracies terms are variable.

Question 69

Which of the following expansions of presidential power has been limited by the courts?

A.Executive orders on bureaucratic issues
B.Executive agreements with other countries
C.Signing statements attached to bills
D.Impoundment of funds from Congress

Answer 69

D.Impoundment of funds from Congress

The Supreme Court has limited the power of presidents to impound funds from Congress.

Question 70

Which of the following best describes selective incorporation?

A.If there is a conflict between federal and state law, federal law is superior.
B.Business in the United States is regulated by the commerce clause of the Constitution.
C.Portions of the Bill of Rights are applied to states on a case-by-case approach.
D.Segregation deprives people of equal protection under the law.

Answer 70

C.Portions of the Bill of Rights are applied to states on a case-by-case approach.

Beginning in the 1920s, the Supreme Court made several rulings that enforced the Bill of Rights at the state level.

Question 71

Which of the following is a unique function of political parties?

A.Running candidates for elected office
B.Raising money to fund election campaigns
C.Organizing voter-registration and get-out-the-vote campaigns
D.Drawing public attention to pressing policy issues

Answer 71

A.Running candidates for elected office

A key function of political parties that is not performed by any other group is running candidates for elected office.

Question 72

Which of the following can serve as a limit on a president’s foreign-policy-making power?

A.Congress can veto a president’s declaration of war.
B.The Senate can refuse to ratify an executive agreement with another country.
C.Low public-approval ratings can undermine a president’s foreign policy agenda.
D.Limited media coverage of foreign affairs can diminish the president’s ability to take action abroad.

Answer 72

C.Low public-approval ratings can undermine a president’s foreign policy agenda.

While the president has vast powers in foreign policy making, those powers may be limited by low levels of public support.

Question 73

A narrow corridor extends the Democratic Republic of the Congo to the Atlantic Ocean, and the Caprivi Strip extends a very slim section of Namibia to the Zambezi River. The Democratic Republic of the Congo and Namibia are examples of

A.prorupt states
B.compact states
C.fragmented states
D.perforated states

Answer 73

A.prorupt states

A prorupt state is defined as having a political border that is generally compact but that has one or more corridors or panhandles that extend outward from the main body of the country.

Question 74

The map displays the pattern of Chinese ethnic populations in regions outside of China. Which of the following best describes this pattern resulting from outward migrations beginning in the 1800s?

A.Low physiological density
B.Balkanization
C.Hierarchical diffusion
D.Diaspora

Answer 74

D.Diaspora

The dispersed migration pattern of ethnic Chinese to separate parts of the world is best described as a diaspora.

Question 75

The global industrial division of labor has impacted East Asia in which of the following ways?

A.Poverty has increased within the urban populations of East Asia.
B.The middle-class population of East Asia has grown substantially.
C.The status of East Asian women has declined substantially.
D.Population growth in most East Asian countries has boomed.

Answer 75

B.The middle-class population of East Asia has grown substantially.

The change brought by the global industrial division of labor has converted East Asian countries from agricultural economies to manufacturing and service-based urban economies, which has resulted in increased wages and improved social status for much of the region’s population.

Question 76

In terms of the amount of biomass produced, what are the most productive land ecosystems?

A.Tundra and permafrost
B.Tropical savannas
C.Coniferous forests
D.Equatorial rain forests

Answer 76

D.Equatorial rain forests

Rain forests near the equator produce the largest amounts of biomass, the total plant and animal matter, of any of the world’s land ecosystems. The high temperatures and wet tropical climates in these areas generate the most plant life, which is able to support a larger volume of animal species and populations in comparison to other regions.

Question 77

What type of map projection shows lines of longitude as straight, parallel lines but shows the shortest land distance between two points on such a map as a great circle route?

A.Polar azimuthal
B.Robinson
C.Goode homolosine
D.Mercator

Answer 77

D.Mercator

The Mercator projection shows lines of longitude as straight, parallel lines on the map surface that do not intersect at the poles, as they do on a globe. When calculating for Earth’s curvature, the shortest distance between two locations on a Mercator projection will follow a great-circle line across the map, which by comparison would follow a straight line across the surface of a globe.

Question 78

Which of the following areas of devolution is correctly matched with the state from which it may secede?

A.Catalonia in Spain
B.Scotland within Ireland
C.Wallonia in Germany
D.Basque region in Italy

Answer 78

A.Catalonia in Spain

The Catalan region in northeastern Spain is an area of significant cultural and linguistic difference from the rest of the Spanish population. The local political debate in and around Barcelona is whether Catalans should secede as an independent country.

Question 79

Which of the following is an expansionary fiscal policy action?

A.Increasing government spending
B.Increasing federal income tax rates
C.Increasing the federal funds rate
D.Increasing the required reserve ratio

Answer 79

A.Increasing government spending

An expansionary fiscal policy action involves an increase in government spending or a decrease in taxes.

Question 80

Which of the following actions by the Federal Reserve Bank will decrease the federal funds rate?

A.Purchasing bonds on the open market
B.Decreasing the money supply
C.Increasing the required reserve ratio
D.Increasing the discount rate

Answer 80

A.Purchasing bonds on the open market

The Federal Funds rate is the rate at which banks borrow reserves from other banks. When the Federal Reserve Bank purchases bonds on the open market, the supply of reserves increases and the federal funds rate will decrease.

Question 81

Which of the following illustrates the short-run impacts of an increase in government purchases on the price level and real output?

A.The aggregate demand curve shifts to the right, decreasing the price level and real output.
B.The aggregate demand curve shifts to the right, increasing the price level and real output.
C.The aggregate supply curve shifts to the right, increasing the price level and real output.
D.The aggregate supply curve shifts to the left, increasing the price level and decreasing real output.

Answer 81

B.The aggregate demand curve shifts to the right, increasing the price level and real output.

Government purchases are a component of aggregate demand. An increase in government purchases increases aggregate demand (AD), shifting the AD curve to the right, increasing both the price level and real output in the short run.

Question 82

Which of the following is an example of frictional unemployment?

A.After retirement, Archeta decides to volunteer at a local food bank instead of looking for paid jobs.
B.Guillermo is laid off when sales at his firm decline.
C.Pingli loses her job after a robot is developed that can do her work.
D.Donte has completed his master’s degree and is looking into several job offers.

Answer 82

D.Donte has completed his master’s degree and is looking into several job offers.

Frictional unemployment occurs when an individual is unemployed because of changing jobs or looking for the occupation that best suits his or her experience.

Question 83

Which of the following describes the fundamental economic problem?

A.Resources are used by the private sector and the public sector.
B.There is a lack of appropriate information for making decisions.
C.Resources are limited and wants and needs are unlimited.
D.Different economic systems distribute wealth differently.

Answer 83

C.Resources are limited and wants and needs are unlimited.

The fundamental economic problem is defined by scarcity of resources, which means that resources are limited and not enough to satisfy the unlimited wants and needs.

Question 84

Which of the following financial instruments is most likely to offer the lowest risk and highest return for a short-term investment?

A.Cash
B.Certificate of deposit
C.Real estate
D.Stocks

Answer 84

B.Certificate of deposit

The certificate of deposit has a higher return than cash and is less risky than stocks and real estate.

Question 85

Rhonda owns her own business setting up Web sites for individuals and businesses. Working from her home office, she uses her computer to design the sites. She earns $50 per hour for her efforts. Which of the following is an example of capital as a factor of production for Rhonda?

A.The $50 per hour that Rhonda earns designing Web sites
B.The time that Rhonda devotes to her business
C.The computer Rhonda uses to design the Web sites
D.The Web sites that Rhonda sets up for her clients

Answer 85

C.The computer Rhonda uses to design the Web sites

The computer is the tool used to set up the Web sites, and so it is capital.

Question 86

Which of the following is an example of government intervention in a mixed economy?

A.Spending for infrastructure improvement and maintenance
B.Allocating scarce resources to their best use
C.Protecting workers from dangerous working conditions
D.Setting production goals

Answer 86

C.Protecting workers from dangerous working conditions

In a mixed economy, the government has important roles of ensuring appropriate working conditions. Setting prices, allocating scarce resources, and setting production goals would happen in a command economy where the government owns the resources and not in a mixed economy.

Question 87

Which of the following is true about monopoly and perfect competition?

A.Monopoly produces larger output and charges a higher price than perfect competition does.
B.Monopoly produces larger output and charges a lower price than perfect competition does.
C.Monopoly produces smaller output and charges a higher price than perfect competition does.
D.Monopoly produces smaller output and charges a lower price than perfect competition does.

Answer 87

C.Monopoly produces smaller output and charges a higher price than perfect competition does.

Monopoly always produces a smaller output and charges a higher price than perfect competition.

Question 88

Which of the following best describes a situation where economic efficiency is achieved?

A.The economy can produce more goods and services when resources are redistributed.
B.A country distributes income and wealth equally among its citizens.
C.An economy can only produce more goods and services when more resources are available.
D.A country’s unemployment rate is higher than its natural rate of unemployment.

Answer 88

C.An economy can only produce more goods and services when more resources are available.

Economic efficiency means that an economy cannot do better with its current resources and technology.

Question 89

Which of the following are the four types of anthropology?

A.Linguistic, archaeological, social, and civilized
B.Biological, archaeological, linguistic, and cultural
C.Linguistic, sociological, biological, and psychological
D.Psychological, paleontological, linguistic, and cultural

Answer 89

B.Biological, archaeological, linguistic, and cultural

Biological, archaeological, linguistic, and cultural are the four major fields in anthropology.

Question 90

In psychological research, the independent variable is the variable that

A.is manipulated by the researcher in order to see what impact it has on behavior
B.is the measurement of the behavior that results from the experimenter’s manipulations
C.is held constant by the experimenter to see whether the behavior changes
D.stands alone in the experiment and does not change

Answer 90

A.is manipulated by the researcher in order to see what impact it has on behavior

The independent variable is the variable that researchers manipulate.

Question 91

Karen and her husband both maintain full-time careers. At home in the evening, however, Karen finds herself responsible for the majority of the housework. Which concept best describes the pattern that sociologists find when working women perform more domestic labor than their spouses?

A.The division of labor in society
B.The domestic principle
C.The second shift
D.Workforce development

Answer 91

C.The second shift

In this case, Karen’s additional responsibilities to complete household chores serve as an example of the “second shift” fulfilled most often by working women in the United States.

Question 92

Reinforcers and punishers influence the probability that a given behavior will be repeated in the future. What impact does a negative reinforcer have on a future behavior?

A.It increases the probability of reoccurrence.
B.It decreases the probability of reoccurrence.
C.It has no effect on the probability of reoccurrence.
D.It can either increase or decrease the probability of reoccurrence depending on the situation.

Answer 92

A.It increases the probability of reoccurrence.

All reinforcers increase behavior. A negative reinforcer is when something unpleasant is taken away, therefore increasing the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur to avoid the aversive stimulus.