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Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Principle that allows workers to report to more than one supervisor? pg. 30

A

Functional Supervision

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2
Q

Co. Officer
Span of control ratio of? Optimum of? pg. 30

A

1 supervisor to 3-7 subordinates
Optimum 1 to 5

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3
Q

Anticipating, embracing and meeting change is an example of which leadership quality? pg. 48

A

Proactiveness

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4
Q

Group establishes and adheres to its own set of norms or value. Members become closer and more cohesive?

A

Norming

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5
Q

What is the E in the Step 5 of planning process?

A

Evaluate

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6
Q

A reason people break the rules is created when there is a lack of knowledge of the job requirements and or the rules of conduct known as ?

A

Ignorance

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7
Q

Requiring the reciever to repeat the message back to the sender reducing change of understanding is which if the 5 c’s of communication?

A

Control

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8
Q

Example of unsafe conditions include:

A

Hostile Crowd

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9
Q

The process of identifying and analyzing the exposure to hazards, selecting appropriate techniques to handle exposures, implementing chosen techniques, and monitoring the results?

A

Risk Management

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10
Q

Top cord of bowstring truss bears what kind of load?

A

Compresive load

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11
Q

What provides the company officer with the opportunity to become familiar with the structures and potential hazards within their response district?

A

Inspection

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12
Q

Where is it a good place to train for high angle rescue and standpipe operations?

A

Parking Garage

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13
Q

Inspection of protective clothing of all members assigned to the platoon in their district shall be inspected by ________ and on ?

A

District Chief; January and July

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14
Q

Which NFPA standard prohibits a beard or facial hair that interferes with face-piece seal?

A

NFPA 1500

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15
Q

When members are involved in operations that require the use of SCBA, at least ____ member shall be assigned to remain outside the area where respiratory protection is required?

A

One Member

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16
Q

When responding to an emergency under favorable conditions, fire department vehicles are authorized to exceed posted speed limit by a maximum of?

A

10 MPH

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17
Q

When more than one unit is dispatched on any fire related response and the first unit arriving on scene reports that there is “nothing showing” or “investigating” units shall continue to respond w/lights and audible warning device shall proceed with with caution, not exceeding posted speed limit. This response shall be referred to ?

A

Responding with caution

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18
Q

Based on the information received from the unit at the scene a response at a reduced speed is warranted for units not yet on scene. Discontinue use of audible warning devices and warning lights is known as :

A

Code C

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19
Q

Operators unfamiliar with the operation of engine transmission and driveline retarders shall?

A

Not operate apparatus equipped with such devices

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20
Q

When roads are wet and/or slippery, with the exception of Telma retarders shall?

A

Not be used, Telma can be used under any conditions

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21
Q

Provided that the CGI remain Below what percentage?

A

10% LEL

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22
Q

Members operating in boats shall wear?

A

United States Coast Guard Type III Personal Flotation Device (PFD), unless wearing survival suit

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23
Q

Members operating on the deck of Marine 1 when actively involved in firefighting shall wear?

A

Structural firefighting PPE

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24
Q

Companies dispatched for incidents involving Marine 1 will operate on the channel assigned by?

A

Fire Alarm

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25
Q

When a small boat is deployed to an emergency incident, who shall be dispatched?

A

Division 1 and Safety Operations Battalion

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26
Q

Companies dispatched for incidents on any inland pond or inland body of water will operate on?

A

assigned fire ground channel

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27
Q

Marine 2 and Marine 3 is what type of boat?

A

14’ Achilles SG 140

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28
Q

What is the most important infection control procedure?

A

Hand washing

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29
Q

Hand washing shall be performed for a minimum of?

A

10 to 15 seconds

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30
Q

Cleaning and disinfection of emergency medical equipment shall take place at a ?

A

Medical Facility

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31
Q

Person in imminent danger of death or severe injury due to fire exposure. The person on the fire floor or floor above is known as?

A

Severely Exposed

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32
Q

If possible, secondary search should be conducted by ?

A

members other than those who conducted the primary search.

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33
Q

Only if it will not contribute to fire spread members shall?

A

vent as they go

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34
Q

Perform search and rescue operations on?

A

the fire floor or location of the most severely exposed victims.

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35
Q

Level I accountability is?

A

the lowest level of accountability and automatically and not announced

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36
Q

If any FD unit shall discover a bomb during the course of other activities that unit shall?

A

Immediately withdraw from the area and evacuate civilians in the process

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37
Q

Complaint slips shall be utilized for any private fire alarms with?

A

repeated defective devices

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38
Q

Upon notification that an actual recall to duty has been ordered, who shall be responsible for effectuating this notification?

A

On duty chiefs, utilizing company officers and other available resources.

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39
Q

The overarching goal of rail response is?

A

Life safety

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40
Q

The incident commanders 1st priority when dealing with a rail incident is?

A

Controlling the hazard

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41
Q

When dealing with an Acela train, do not approach within?

A

20 Feet

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42
Q

Pantographs contain how much volts of electricity?

A

25,000

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43
Q

Who is the most valuable source of information regarding train operations?

A

Conductor

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44
Q

How many engine companies at elevated roadway fires?

A

3 Engine Companies

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45
Q

The Optimum location for companies to stage at Highway Operations is?

A

One that Provides immediate access to the highway, as well as access to alternative route

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46
Q

Ladder co. primary function will be to act as and position apparatus approximately?

A

Blocking Vehicle; 100 feet upstream

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47
Q

On highway operations safety vest are not required when?

A

FF are actively engaged in fire suppression

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48
Q

One recommendation to help eliminate feedback is?

A

Utilize volume control on the microphone.

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49
Q

Communication unit will consist of at a minimum?

A

Communications unit leader
Incident Dispatcher
Mobile command post

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50
Q

There is a slight momentary delay from powering up the VRS until it is operational. This is done by?

A

All units equipped with VRS unit and assigned to an incident

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51
Q

On our portables channel 8 is designated as?

A

Providence Police channel 3

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52
Q

On our portables channel 9,10,11 are designated as?

A

Mutual Aid channels

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53
Q

Intercity fire ground operations channel is?

A

Channel 10

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54
Q

The 1st due engine company will not be used as RTF company, they will?

A

Establish Casualty Collection Point (CCP)

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55
Q

Initial RTF will be deployed into______, with the purpose of locating and stabilizing patients according to the guidelines of tactical Emergency Casualty Care?

A

Warm Zone

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56
Q

All members shall be sent to rehabilitation following the use of?

A

2 - 30 min bottle
1 - 45 or 60 min bottle
or 40 min of intense work w/o scba

  • rest should be 10 - 20 min
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57
Q

At an elevator emergency what is the engine co. primary task?

A

Locate elevator car in question

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58
Q

After locating the elevator what should be done next?

A

make contact with the passengers

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59
Q

Engine co. at elevator emergencies shall be responsible for?

A

any EMS needs of civilians in stalled elevators upon their extrication.

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60
Q

At an elevator emergency the primary function of the Special Hazards is?

A

Enter Hoist-way and extricate the passengers.

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61
Q

Who will be responsible for sizing up the elevator and recommending an appropriate incident action plan?

A

Officer and members of special hazards 1

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62
Q

Elevator not level with the extrication floor and with the car opening for extrication less than 36 in. must have the elevator car?

A

secured by struts or rail blocks before performing extrications.

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63
Q

When there is not at least one EMT-C staffed on the fire company than?

A

Officer shall notify
BOC
District Chief
Safety Operations Battalion

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64
Q

At an Emergency scene who is responsible for scene management, safety, proper lighting, removal of obstructions, extrication tactics, request for additional assets, and communications with the BOC and overall command of the incident?

A

FIRE COMPANY

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65
Q

Life safety rope used for rescue at fires or other emergency incidents shall be permitted, to be re-used if?

A

inspected before and after each use in accordance with the manufacturer’s instruction and
-not visually damaged
-not subject to impact load
-not exposed to chemical liquids, solids, gases, mists or vapors of any material known to deteriorate rope.

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66
Q

Life safety rope that fails the visual inspection it shall?

A

be removed from service and destroyed

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67
Q

Life safety rope shall be removed from service that is?

A

10 years old

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68
Q

It it becomes necessary to transmit on police frequency use PFD channel?

A

Channel 8 which is PPD channel 3

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69
Q

What shall be maintained between the operating saw and members not involved with the cut?

A

20 foot danger circle

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70
Q

Before putting saw in operation you should have a plan of action, which should include?

A

Wind Direction
2 means of egress
location and sequence of cuts

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71
Q

Power saw operations are safest when cutting?

A

On horizontal surfaces near the ground level or on vertical surfaces near the waist level

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72
Q

What distance shall be maintained between the work area and refueling area?

A

10 foot

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73
Q

All members of the PFD shall be trained for hazmat to the?

A

first responder operations level

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74
Q

Level II hazmat incident requires what type of evacuation?

A

Limited evacuation of nearby residents or facilities
-Level II-Hazmat
-Expanded geographic scope
-potential threat to life, health, environment and property

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75
Q

What are the 2 phases a hazmat incident can be broken down into?

A

Emergency phase
Post-Emergency Phase

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76
Q

What 2 stages at a hazmat can an emergency phase be broken into?

A

Critical Stage
Containment Stage

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77
Q

What is the final stage at a hazmat incident?

A

Recovery and Cleanup

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78
Q

Generally there are 4 choices in handling spills or leak which are?

A

C.A.N.S
containment
absorption
neutralization
segregation

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79
Q

At a Hazmat hot zone denotes (indicates)?

A

Exclusion Zone

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80
Q

At a Hazmat warm zone denotes (indicates)?

A

Contamination Reduction

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81
Q

At a Hazmat cold zone denotes (indicates)?

A

Support Zone

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82
Q

What is the 1st step of decontamination ?

A

minimize contact with chemicals and the potential for contamination

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83
Q

Chemicals move from areas of ?

A

High Concentration to areas of low concentration.
- concentration of chemicals increase, the potential for permeation( penetrating something) of PPE increases.

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84
Q

An increase in temperature generally?

A

increase permeation (penetrating something) rate of contaminants

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85
Q

Gases, vapors, and low viscosity liquids tend to ?

A

permeate more readily than high viscosity liquids and vapors

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86
Q

IC must maintain or cause to be maintain?

A

A written record of all activities related to the incident

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87
Q

What is another requirement of OSHA/EPA at hazmat incident?

A

Keeping a Master Log

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88
Q

Chemicals that have the potential for spreading contamination can be made less hazardous by ?

A

Simply diluting them with copious amounts of water.

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89
Q

If decontamination cannot be done on victim you should?

A

wrap the victim in blankets
plastic or rubber to reduce contamination of other personnel.

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90
Q

At a hazmat incident a primary consideration in doffing is to?

A

Avoid transfer of chemical that may be on the outside of the PPE to clean areas, skin or underclothing

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91
Q

Isolate scene and deny entry. Establish control zones and perimeter?

A

Hot Zone - Exclusion zone
Warm Zone - Contamination Reduction
Cold Zone - Support Zone

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92
Q

At carbon monoxide incidents SCBA shall be worn whenever CO levels are determined to be in excess of?

A

35 ppm
*50 ppm produce symptoms
*1500 considered IDLH
*50,000 ppm or 5% LETHAL

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93
Q

What are the problems associated with new high-rise buildings?

A
  • Lack compartmentation and massive building construction practices that were used in years past
  • Extensive use of plastic materials
  • Interior walls and ceiling finish materials have long been recognized as providing potential for fire spread.
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94
Q

At a high-rise fire the first arriving company shall respond with IAT to?

A

Lowest floor that is in alarm on the annunciator panel.

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95
Q

If IAT is notified by BOC or by a person in the building that the fire is located in a kitchen or in an electrical equipment room, what type of extinguisher should be brought into building?

A

Dry Chemical or CO/2

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96
Q

At a high-rise fire the 2nd arriving Chief officer when so assigned by the incident commander will establish?

A

Forward command post, one floor below the fire. This fire floor sector will have control of the fire floor and floor above

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97
Q

In regards to mayday incident, members in distress shall?

A

activate Personal Alert Safety System (PASS) and attempt to get to one (1) of the outside walls of the building.

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98
Q

Providing additional access by creating or clearing means of egress, removing window bars and opening boarded doors and windows is know as?

A

softening the building

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99
Q

At what point in the incident is it no longer in the initial stage?

A

Once a second company arrives

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100
Q

What are the 3 main areas of concerns in regards to size-up?

A

What do we have?
Where is it going?
How do we control it?

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101
Q

The first attack line shall be placed?

A

between the fire and the most severe exposure.

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102
Q

Second dispatched company at a fire is responsible for?

A

Immediately providing an adequate water supply to the first arriving engine company

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103
Q

Used for a narrow, dead-end or limited access streets?

A

Split-lay

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104
Q

IC shall use one of the following when reporting status of incident?

A

Doubtful - will be under control in next 10 min
Will hold - with current assignment
Under Control

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105
Q

Primary cause of injuries to firefighters during overhaul is?

A

Fatigue

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106
Q

Heavy timber 4 to 7 story brick-walled buildings. To qualify as heavy timber construction ?

A

A wood column cannot be less than 8” thick in any dimension and wood girder cannot be less than 6” thick

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107
Q

All suspicious packages should?

A

Be treated as a bomb threat and evaluated by bomb squad

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108
Q

What will be the acceptable threshold for field operations on high-wind conditions?

A

Sustained winds of 65 MPH
*only ACOD and DAC can allow operations with sustained winds greater than 65 mph

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109
Q

Aerial ladders are capable of operating at sustained winds of?

A

35 mph or lower

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110
Q

Conditions found that pose an immediate threat to the safety of members shall be reported to?

A

Fire Alarm

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111
Q

Captain of each company shall prepare a list of the buildings to be surveyed by each shift of his company by?

A

First of each month

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112
Q

How many building survey will each company complete and with what frequency?

A

2 surveys per week

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113
Q

Alpha particles can be stopped by ?

A

Piece of paper

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114
Q

What is the effective shielding for gamma radiation?

A

Lead

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115
Q

What is the preferred Method of public protection at Radiological response?

A

Evacuation

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116
Q

What are effects of WMD’s?

A

TRACEM

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117
Q

Safe place to wait for decon and where evacuated persons await?

A

Warm zone - Area of refuge

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118
Q

When setting up an engine corridor for decon how should they be setup?

A

Engine side by side in opposite direction so pump panels are on the outside. Trucks are placed 25 feet apart fog nozzle attached to 2 1/2 in. Discharge port nozzle are open wide fog

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119
Q

For paid details portable radios shall be signed out from B.O.C. Members shall not?

A

Use portables from fire companies

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120
Q

With the safe station ask the person if they have drugs or paraphernalia inb their possession. If yes?

A

Please ask them to dispose of them in the proper place that has been installed in the station

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121
Q

The Captain of each company shall not permit use of bed other than?

A

2100 - 0700

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122
Q

Captain of each company shall cause an inspection of each hydrant within the companys district when?

A

Annually; starting in April

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123
Q

Captain of the house shall make a monthly requisition of supplies or equipment as necessary no later than?

A

20 of the month for the following month

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124
Q

Captainn of the house will prepare a new housework schedule on ? And forwarded to for approval?

A

1st of January; ACOD administration

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125
Q

Whwnever off-duty members of any unit report for duty at the beginning of a shift and finds that unit has responded to a fire or other emergency then?

A

Officer in command after arrival of ALL Members shall promptly notify B.O.C of their availability

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126
Q

When using east side tunnel?

A

Officer in command notify B.O.C when unit enters and exits the tunnel

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127
Q

The first company (or the companies designated) can handle the situation

A

Code yellow

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128
Q

Malicious false alarm?

A

Code Blue

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129
Q

At fires or other emergencies, members are expected to be?

A

Courageous w/o being reckless

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130
Q

When ever an eating establishment or place where food is sold or stored the IC must make sure notification to?

A

RI Department of Health

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131
Q

All hose ahall be service tested?

A

Annually

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132
Q

Officers in command of engine companies shall supervise?

A

Monthly replacement of hose on all apparatus under their command

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133
Q

Aerial ladders shall be extended and lubricated?

A

Semi-annually by Automotive Maintenance Division

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134
Q

According to Maintenence schedule thursday is designated for?

A

Floors

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135
Q

When placing hydrant signs on private property, permission shall be obtained from?

A

Property Owner

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136
Q

Wet sprinker system tgat has been deactivated shall?

A

Be odered reactived by officer in command

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137
Q

When apparatus has to be placed out of service for repairs, officer in command of unit shall?

A

Notify B.O.C and ensure District Chief and Safety Ops Battalion are notified

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138
Q

When unusual or dangerous conditions are found company officers shall?

A

Forward a complaint report to Fire Prevention

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139
Q

Training shall be provided for at least?

A

1 hour during day tour and 30 minutes during night tour

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140
Q

At least 1 hour of training each cycle shall be devoted to?

A

Structural Firefighting and and additional hour for Emergency Medical services

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141
Q

2 general classes of message?

A

Urgent and routine

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142
Q

Members unable to report for duty shall promptly notify officer in command of their unit by?

A

0630 for the day tour and 1500 for the night tour

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143
Q

Officers may permit sleeping while on duty from?

A

2200 - 0700

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144
Q

Summer dress and summer uniform shall be worn during?

A

May 15 to Oct 15

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145
Q

Lieutenants Shield color?

A

Red shield with white letters

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146
Q

Highest order of prestige medal?

A

Medal of Honor

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147
Q

Any member reporting for dutybecause of sickness shall notify immediate officer on duty and notification shall be made?

A

At least 1.5 hours prior to day tour and 3 hours before night tour

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148
Q

The national flag shall be properly displayed from?

A

0800 till sunset

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149
Q

National flag on Memorial day and Firemans Memorial day Flag shall be displayes at?

A

Half staff from 0800 till noon
And at the peak from noon till sunset

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150
Q

National Flag shall be displayed upon death of an active member from?

A

The day of the death until the day of the burial. Flow at half staff from day of death til noon of day of burial and then flown at the peak until sunset.

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151
Q

An action undertaken for the purpose of saving or attempting to save life of a human being who is in imminent danger of death?

A

Heroic Action 1st Class

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152
Q

The Incident command also has the capability of growing the needs of an incident by?

A

Modular expansion

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153
Q

The regulation from OSHA dealing with hazardous materials emergency response mandates the useof an incident command system. This regualtion is found in?

A

Title 29 of the code of federal regulation, part 1910.120

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154
Q

The most effective use of incident command system is?

A

Its day to day use

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155
Q

If one individual can simultaneously manage all major functional areas, no furthur organization is required as long as ?

A

Span of control does not exceed 7

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156
Q

Defined as the number of subordinates 1 supervisor can manage effectively is?

A

Span of contol
1 supervisor to 3 to 7 subordinates
5 is optimum

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157
Q

Are the broad objectives necessary to handle a given situation?

A

Strategic Objectives

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158
Q

Specfic and measurable and are given a specific time frame?

A

Tactical Objective

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159
Q

Provides line of authority, responsibility and communication, and increase the control necessary to provide the the safety of personnel from all involved agencies?

A

Liaison Management

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160
Q

Fires that have consumed most of available oxygen within a structure?

A

Ventilation Limited

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161
Q

Unburned fuel gas is?

A

Smoke

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162
Q

Differences between the fire environment of yesterday vs today?

A
  • Well insulated
  • Nature of fuel load ( Very High Plastic fire load)
  • make of building (lightweight construction)
  • size of structure
  • staffing
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163
Q

Ventilation must be?

A

Coordinated with hoseline advance

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164
Q

Always attack with?

A

Wind at your back

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165
Q

The job of the officer is to?

A

Understand the options available tontheir team and choose the most appropriate one for their situation

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166
Q

Removing an adult victim via portable ladder requires?

A

2 ppl (1 on ladder and 1 inside room)

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167
Q

If a building contains 8-10 ppl or victim location not immediately known, requiring an involved search and not enough personnel to put fire out?

A

Place line between fire and victim, try to put fire out but if not possible protect means of egress

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168
Q

Remove those in the greatest danger first?

A

Most to least
- in vicinity of fire
- floor above fire
- top floor (smoke/heat/gases accumulate)
-anyone in panic ( threatening to jump may have to be removed immediately)
-people below the fire typically last priority

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169
Q

When you dont have sufficient personnel to perform all the needed task, first perform?

A

Those that protect the greatest # of human life

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170
Q

ff must be constantly aware that fire spread has how many possible directions?

A

6 (up, down, left, right, ahead and back)

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171
Q

Sequence of action to be taken?

A

Size up
Locate
Confine
Extinguish

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172
Q

A critical factor that will begin as soon as the alarm is recieved by the responding ff?

A

Size-up

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173
Q

Actions to be taken at a structural fire (SLICE-RS)

A

Size up
Locate the fire
Identify and control flow path
Cool the fire from safe location
Extinguish fire

Rescue
Salvage

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174
Q

COAL WAS WEALTH

A

Construction
Occupancy
Apparatus + personnel
Life Hazard

Water supply
Auxilary appliances
Street conditions

Weather
Exposures
Area + height
Location and extent of fire
Time
Height or hazmat

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175
Q

An evaluation of problems and conditions that affect the outcome of a fire?

A

Size-up

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176
Q

Proper size up begins from?

A

Moments the alarm is recieved and continues until emergency is under control

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177
Q

Best method to reduce life hazard is?

A

Installing a complete wet-pipe automatic sprinkler system

Other ways
- imposing occ. Load restrictions
- improve exit facilities
- by specifying fire doors + partition

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178
Q

Life hazards comes in 2 form?

A

Them and us

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179
Q

Most effective tool for recalling preplan information?

A

CADS

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180
Q

The longer the _____ time, the greater the danger?

A

Elapsed

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181
Q

20 minute rule applies to only 2 types of construction which are?

A

Type V - wood frame
Type III - ordinary

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182
Q

The 20 minute rule starts from what time frame?

A

Once the fire reaches flashover

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183
Q

Fire that is venting out windows on 2 floors typically indicate?

A

Prolonged burning - more than 10 min
Use of an accelerant
Large holes connecting the floors

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184
Q

Responsible for the destruction by fire of more buildings than any other construction related factor?

A

Hidden voids
* third concern related to building construction implications

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185
Q

Fourth concern in regards to building implications is ?

A

Ability to resist collapse

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186
Q

Type 1: fire resistive the walls and partition, column, floors, and roof ofv these building are noncombustible. The various construction elements are designed to with stand the effects of fire for ?

A

A limited time and prevent its spread
(Fireproofing)

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187
Q

2 constructions that have 2-hour fire-resistive rating?

A

Class 3 - Ordinary Construction
Class 4 - Heavy timber

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188
Q

If you encounter a floor that is full of hot smoke and find no visible fire is a classic indicator of?

A

A Cellar Fire

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189
Q

What does black smoke often indicate?

A

Presence of petroleum-based products

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190
Q

Large volume of black smock at the roof level can indicate?

A

Involvement of roofing materials

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191
Q

Lighter to moderate quantities of black smoke found in basement often indicates?

A

Oil burner malfunction
*bring class B fire extinguisher q

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192
Q

Produce gray to light brown smoke when sufficient oxygen is present?

A

Class A material ( ordinary combustible wood/paper)

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193
Q

Reduced amount of oxygen produce large amounts of?

A

Dark gray or yellow gray smoke. (Indication of potential backdraft )

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194
Q

Wispy smoke, usually light in color indicates a fire in?

A

Incipient stage

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195
Q

After life hazard, ff next priorty is ?

A

Protection of exposure

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196
Q

How many gpm for each 100 sq ft is needed to control fires in area of light fire load of ordinary combustible?

A

10 gpm

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197
Q

An out of service auxiliary appliance is often Justification for?

A

An extra alarm

198
Q

Fires progress through what stages?

A

The incipient stage
Free Burning stage
Smoldering stage

199
Q

The presence of trapped occupants narrows mode of operation to?

A

Offensive Mode

200
Q

The risk of pushing fire, gases and steam back into building is greatest when?

A

Fog stream is used

201
Q

A 75 ft platform can cover a frontage of ?

A

100 feet

202
Q

3 topics that directly affect putting water on a fire?

A

Selecting the proper size and length of hose
Quickly + efficiently stretching the line
stretched to the proper position

203
Q

Two main type of fog nozzles currently in use?

A

Constant gallonage and constant pressure

204
Q

Which type of truss roof offer no visual hints?

A

Flat Timber Truss

205
Q

On a dry-pipe sprinkler system the air pressure on top of clapper valve is?

A

30 to 40 psi
*known as differential dry-pipe valve

206
Q

Most common and simplest type of sprinkler?

A

Automatic wet system

207
Q

Each normal sprinkler head flowing 50 psi will deliver about?

A

40 gpm

208
Q

According to NFPA 35% of victims died while?
A. Victim was sleeping
B. Trying to escape
C. Trying to hide from fire
D. Other unknown activities

A

B. Trying to escape

209
Q

Each normal sprinkler head flowing 50 psi will deliver about?

A

40 gpm

210
Q

Fires in sprinklered buildings are more smoky than those unsprinklered for these 3 reasons?

A

Carbon monoxide
sinking fire gases
smoke being pushed down

211
Q

What type of ventilation will be required for cold smoke?

A

Mechanical

212
Q

What is the 2nd most common type of sprinkler system?

A

Automatic dry (Dry-pip) system

213
Q

Water above the clapper is so high that its weight will hold the clapper closed, know as?

A

Water Columning

214
Q

Deluge system has ?

A

Open sprinkler heads, which allow water to flow all at once.
* used at aircraft hangars and flammable liquids loading dock

215
Q

What is installed over very expensive electronic equipment that could be damaged by water leak?

A

Preaction Systems
* consist of an automatic detection system coupled w/ automatic dry-pipe system.

216
Q

Exterior signs that a building is protected by a sprinkler system are?

A
  • presence of siamese connection
  • sight or sound of the water motor alarm gong
  • running water discharge from pipes coming through the wall of the building
217
Q

Best way to determine whether or not a sprinkler system is present?

A

is by prefire inspection and preplanning

218
Q

If the building is built with an automatic wet sprinkler system, many codes allow the exit travel distance to be?

A

doubled to 200 ft

219
Q

at a sprinkler system, no fluctuation in pressure or if sprinklers are not operating chances are that?

A

the valve is closed

220
Q

If you respond to a sprinkler system where water is dripping you have 3 options?

A
  • force entry/locate cause
  • hold some or all units wait for owner
  • return all units to quarters
221
Q

What is a better alternative where freezing weather makes the installation of wet standpipes impractical?

A

semiautomatic dry system

222
Q

Sprinkler system which has a deluge-type valve connected to a set of manual pull boxes at each hose station

A

semiautomatic dry system

223
Q

Which sprinkler system should be discouraged in favor of automatic wet systems?

A

Manual wet Systems

224
Q

What are the sources of water supply?

A
  • Gravity tank
  • direct connection to city main
  • pressure tanks
225
Q

If a gravity tank is located 20 ft above 100ft tall building what will be the pressure at the first floor outlet?

A

50 psi
* 4.34 or 5 psi per floor or 10 ft

226
Q

Where 1½ in occupant hose is supplied what is the maximum pressure at the top floor outlet?

A

no more than 65 psi (100 psi after 1993)

227
Q

Whenever a serious fire demands the use of a standpipe system, a good practice is to?

A

have supply lines stretched to pump into the first floor hose outlets of each riser

228
Q

Class I standpipe systems are ?

A

those designed primarily for use by fired department personnel.
* have 2½ in threads
* no hose is provided

229
Q

What is required for every 150 ft of height in many codes?

A

Riser control valve

230
Q

Class II standpipe systems are designed for?

A

control of minor fires until FD arrives.
*Usual design flow is only 100gpm

231
Q

According to NFPA recommendations on class III standpipe system hose be placed?

A

Outside of the stairwell on the fire floor
* so it doesn’t hold door open

232
Q

Systems that have more than ____psi at any hose outlet could be dangerous to the untrained user?

A

100 psi
*some type of device required that will restrict pressure to 80 psi or 100psi after 1993 on 1½ in outlet

233
Q

For structures built after 1993, NFPA 14 permits standpipe up to ?

A

175 psi at 2½ in outlet but still a minimum of 100psi.
*expect 100psi

234
Q

Has 2 sets of overlapping holes on a movable plate. Has an adjusting stem when turned the holes can be nonaligned (closed) to aligned (open)?

A

vane-type PRV (pressure reducing valve)

235
Q

As a precaution, before connecting any fire department hose to a standpipe outlet you must?

A

probe inside the threads with a spanner wrench or other small tool, make sure no obstructions.

236
Q

Operations in buildings with standpipes require?

A

1 - plan
2. Location of fire

237
Q

High heat or fire entering the stair way at the fire floor could prevent a member from standing up to operate the outlet valve which is ?

A

At head height
*for this reason hoseline should be connected on floor below the fire

238
Q

Firefightera should never hook up to a standpipe that is?

A

On fire floor outside the stairwell in public hallway

239
Q

According to NFPA 14 what is the required hose length in sprinklered buildings?

A

5 hose lengths

240
Q

FDNY mandate the 1st hoseline off a standpipe be?

A

2 1/2 in with a solid tip

241
Q

All nozzles used in standpipe operations should be of?

A

Breakapart designn with 1 1/2 in hose thread

242
Q

What size pipe wrench should be brought to stand pipe operations?

A

14 or 18 in

243
Q

If the fire is on the 7th floor or below?

A

Members should climb the stairs instead of taking the elevator

244
Q

Fires in standpipe building are usually in Class I (fireproof) the threat of interior fire spread and danger to life is greatest in?

A

Immediate fire area

245
Q

Good starting discharge pressure for standpipe syatem operations is?

A

100psi plus 5 psi per floor
If fog nozzle 150 psi plus 5 psi per each floor above grade

246
Q

Lovers U is ladder company operations, the acronym means?

A

Laddering
Overhaul
Ventilation
Entry (forcible entry)
Rescue and search
Salvage

Utilities

247
Q

Consider several factors when planning that a member may be operating alone for even part of the time ?

A

1 - Experience level of member
2. availability of portable radio

248
Q

Basic sequence of actions?

A

Size Up
locate
confine
extinguish

249
Q

In the actual plan in ladder company functions the 1st item to be decided is?

A

Number of people that will be part of the plan

250
Q

Ladder company operations guide, now officially know as firefighting procedures is ?

A

Ladders 4
* in this plan ladder co. have 5 ff and 1 officer w/ apparatus

251
Q

The single ff assigned to the roof assignment, should work?

A

at the front of building where he is observable and VEIS (Vent, Enter, Isolate, Search) the front 2nd floor

252
Q

The highest hazard area regardless of time of day is

A

Bedroom

253
Q

Rather than assigning duties to people assign them to?

A

Riding position

254
Q

An interior team of a ladder company should always be assigned and equipped at a minimum with?

A

Halligan
flathead
pike pole
light
portable

255
Q

Factors that affect the selection and placement of portable ladders?

A
  • Reach
  • weight
  • nested or stored length
  • material of construction
  • # of personnel needed to place in operation
256
Q

Off all the factors affecting ladder selection, whether for purchase or for use, the most important is its?

A

Length

257
Q

NFPA requirement for ground ladders is?

A

168 ft

258
Q

When selecting ladders for length, the first consideration should go to?

A

Extension Ladders
*35 ft will replace a 28 & 24
35 ft nested is 20 ft

259
Q

From floor to floor residential is ? commercial is?

A

residential = 9 ft
Commercial = 12 ft

260
Q

Average window sill is ?

A

3 ft from above the floor

261
Q

Window Height is ?

A

4 ft

262
Q

Proper Climbing angle is ?

A

70 degrees

263
Q

At a 70 degree climbing angle, what percent of ladders total length is lost?

A

6%
94% is working length

264
Q

To ensure the proper climbing angle check the climbing angle by?

A

standing on the last rung and reaching out for the rungs at chest height

265
Q

the approximate location to place the butt of the ladder is a quick estimate using?

A

working height of ladder divided by 4

266
Q

What will determine the proper location of the ladders tip?

A

the task which the ladder is being used for

267
Q

What is the best position for the tip of the ladder to be placed to ventilate?

A

Even with the top of the window. Just off to the upwind side of the objective

268
Q

By placing the tip just at or below the windowsill, this allows?

A

the entire width of the window is kept clear for firefighter

269
Q

What is the average residential window size?

A

30 Inches
* ff w/scba is 20 inches wide
* Ladder 16 in wide

270
Q

Most ladders in the fire service are made of?

A

Aluminum

271
Q

What is the drawback of aluminum?

A

Electrical conductivity

272
Q

Have beams of nonconducting fiberglass and rungs of aluminum?

A

Composite ladders

273
Q

Fiberglass and aluminum drawback is?

A

lack of resistance to heat

274
Q

According to NFPA 1932 Aluminum and fiberglass have a heat indicating label that?

A

changes color when exposed to dangerous temperatures (300℉) similar to bluing

275
Q

What is the design load selected for most ladders?

A

750 lb

276
Q

A large proportion of ladder failures occur during ?

A

Training
*keep the best for frontline

277
Q

Guidelines for safe use of ladders?

A
  1. Proper length and type of ladder
  2. proper angle
  3. objective in mind
  4. away from electrical lines
  5. do not position ladders directly in front of egress/ingress or where likely to vent
  6. Do not overload
  7. Always 1 hand on ladder
  8. ladder locks or ladder belt
  9. don’t overextend yourself (reposition if necessary)
  10. Tie off at the base - *unattended secure at the tip
  11. Check stability of the area your entering
278
Q

Aerial devices shouldn’t be viewed as?

A

be viewed as replacement for portable ladders

279
Q

Consist of a basket attached to an aerial ladder?

A

Ladder Tower

280
Q

A Platform attached to a boom with a built in waterway and sideless escape ladder?

A

Tower Ladder

281
Q

At large structure fires a better situation is to have?

A

2 aerial devices

282
Q

The most versatile master-stream on the fireground?

A

Tower Ladder
*Unrestricted master stream use at any angle or extension

283
Q

Aerial ladders being raised to the roof should be extended so that at least?

A

5 rungs project above the level of the roof.
-an inch or two away from the building

284
Q

When position an aerial make sure that the ladder is placed?

A

as square to the building as possible

285
Q

When placing a platform to the roof, who can place it in the best location?

A

the member in the basket

286
Q

if no parapet wall it is best to place the basket so it is?

A

just resting on the roof

287
Q

With telescoping boom you must make certain that the basket?

A

is raised above the roof or parapet before retracing the boom

288
Q

a primary function of all aerial devices is?

A

allow ff access to upper floors via exterior (Vent Enter Isolate Search VEIS)

289
Q

For entry into upper floors which aerial device is the clearer choice?

A

Elevating Platform

290
Q

When positing an elevating platform for rescue?

A

Spot the basket in line with the objective

291
Q

For maximum scrub area the best position for aerial device is?

A

as close to the building as possible.
*apparatus should not be positioned closer than the shortest nested length of the aerial device if it is to be used to the lower floors

292
Q

The tip of most aerials are?

A

20-24 inches wide

293
Q

defined as the amount of surface are that may be physically contacted by an aerial device?

A

Scrub area

294
Q

When positioning an aerial ladder for rescue stop with?

A

the turntable in line w/ victim

295
Q

More telescoping sections of boom for a given length means?

A

Each section is shorter

296
Q

a 4 section 75 ft boom has greater scrub area than?

A

a 3 section 75ft boom
a 3 section 85 ft boom on lower floors

297
Q

Pulling in nose first would be the worst approach if you intend to reach the lower floors with?

A

midship-mounted device
*especially with enclosed cabs
will block the ladder or boom from descending to those levels

298
Q

What is the best scrub area for positioning a midship-mounted device?

A

place apparatus just off parallel to objective, angled cab 15 - 20 degree away from fire building

299
Q

Rear mounted devices best scrub are is obtained by?

A

backing into position

300
Q

In the absence of any specific requirements with aerial devices?

A

Spot turntable just 15 ft past the edge of the building

301
Q

2 main rules of safety with aerial devices?

A
  • 10 ft away from overhead powerlines
  • never extend or retract while person is climbing on the ladder
302
Q

Overhaul may be performed in 2 phases?

A

precontrol and postcontol

303
Q

After vertical voids the most important areas to examine in overhaul is?

A

Horizontal voids
* cocklofts

304
Q

5 senses

A

1-Sight
2-Hearing
3-Touch
4-Smell (least used)
5-common sense

305
Q

15 seconds 2 minute rule

A

if a ff can leave a bare hand for 15 - 20 seconds on a surface w/o discomfort no need to open up. (same ff should do same evaluation 2 min later)

306
Q

If the knocked down fire was a localized one (caught before flashover) like a mattress or couch opening up can be?

A

immediate vicinity of the object

307
Q

Where should mattress and couches be overhauled?

A

outdoors

308
Q

When seeking out hidden fire just after a room is knocked down by the hose stream, the first opening should be made?

A

Near previously existing openings

309
Q

3 rules when transporting items outdoor?

A
  • Item should be wet thoroughly and all visible flame extinguished
  • Never allow removal of partially extinguished item via elevator
  • avoid throwing smoldering debris out windows into inaccessible or out of sight of members
310
Q

If you suspect extreme damage to the ceiling construction?

A

first opening from doorway

311
Q

Hydraulic overhauling is advantageous at ?

A

Vacant Buildings

312
Q

Salvage begins at?

A

moment of arrival

313
Q

When confronted w/ situation requiring forcible entry among the deciding factors?

A

Need for speed
type of door
lock assemblies
tools and personnel
degree of damage the entry will create

314
Q

with regards to forcible entry whether to save a life or cut off fire, the overriding concern is?

A

need for speed

315
Q

Rule #1 of forcible entry

A

Try before you pry

316
Q

Rules 2-4 of forcible entry?

A

2 - Don’t ignore the obvious
3 - use door occupants normally use
4. Maintain integrity of the door

317
Q

A good place to check for heat is?

A

the doorknob
* if it is hot time to begin attack

318
Q

Pattern of bolt heads coming through a door indicate?

A

presence of a drop-in bar

319
Q

Conventional forcible entry often called?

A

Brute force method

320
Q

to breach Inward opening door?

A

Place the fork end of forcible-entry tool about 6 inches above or below the lock, d

321
Q

When forcing an outward opening door use?

A

Adze end of halligan
* if issue force hinge side

322
Q

What is the simplest type of lock to force?

A

Rim Lock
*mounted on edge of the door

323
Q

Most efficient way to remove most locks cylinders is?

A

K-tool

324
Q

If you find a square shaft instead of a flat shaft when you pull the cylinder during forcible entry, you have encountered?

A

a Police Lock

325
Q

Which is the most difficult lock to force?

A

Mortise
*recessed inside the door

326
Q

The mortise lock the only way it is going to open is by working it at?

A

5 and 7 o’clock position. That is in reference to the keyway being at 6 o’clock

327
Q

A stile is?

A

a frame of a door

328
Q

What is the most common commercial door in the nation?

A

Narrow-stile aluminum and glass door with push bar and pivoting deadbolt

329
Q

If you are faced with a Mul-T-Lock, the 1st step is?

A

Check to see if it is in fact locked

330
Q

if of the 3 options (find a key, Find another way, force the door) with mul-t-lock doors the only option is to force it then?

A

use a circular saw w/ metal cutting blade
*triangular cut lower half of door on the side between mul-t-lock and doorknob

331
Q

Hydraulic forcible entry tool (HFT) work best on?

A

Solid Doors
*works best on doors that open inward

332
Q

Rolling store gates may be classified as ?

A

Manual, Mechanical, or electrical

333
Q

Most common gates are?

A

Mechanical and manuel

334
Q

Padlocks fall into 2 categories

A

Low and High Security

335
Q

Fastest way to force multiple locks is ?

A

Power tools

336
Q

Generally any lock above shoulder height are best cut with?

A

Torch

337
Q

Whenever you encounter a recessed door the preferred method of cutting all doors you intend to enter?

A

three-cut method

338
Q

drawback to the inverted V or teepee cut is ?

A

presence of small tabs (wind tabs)

339
Q

What are narrow stile doors almost always equipped with?

A

Deadbolt
*Type of mortise lock has a Bolt throw of 1¼ in or more engage the jamb

340
Q

In a narrow stile door look for ?

A

the light bulb

341
Q

Narrow stile aluminum and glass door can be forced by another method which is?

A

forcing the hinge
using adze end

342
Q

Fox lock can be forced by?

A
  1. Attacking the lock (remove the rectangular shield)
  2. Using tapered square shaft turn shaft to open(can take 2 turns)
  3. turn towards the lower set of bolts
343
Q

With HUD windows there are 2 prerequisites to be safe and successful?

A
  1. Steady Platform to work on
  2. prevent covering from falling uncontrollably
    *none should be done from a portable ladder
    - ground level
    - sturdy porch roof or setback
    - elevating platform
344
Q

What tool is required when forcing HUD windows installed by Vacant Property Security, LLC?

A

Metal Cutting saw

345
Q

Vacant property security weighs about

A

40 lbs

346
Q

What is the simplest HUD window covering?

A

Plywood

347
Q

What makes the VPS system HUD window coverings difficult to bring inside when forcing them from the interior?

A

original windows still intact

348
Q

Which is NOT an acceptable location to remove HUD windows from the outside?

A

Portable ladders

349
Q

What is the minimum depth that must be cut when removing the VPS system HUD window?

A

3 inches

350
Q

What must be done to force an entry door with the VPS system in place that uses a skeleton key from the exterior? p. 225

A

Metal Cutting saw
cut the hinges

351
Q

VPS single-Entry doors will have 1 of 2 locking mechanisms?

A

Color coded push button (Triangle cut)
skeleton key (cut at the hinges)

352
Q

What is an excellent tool for cutting window bars for forcible entry?

A

rebar cutter
*alternative angle grinder
*exothermic torch (etreme challenges)

353
Q

The best way into a locked building is?

A

The Key

354
Q

For a preview of what you will face in the future visit?

A

Local Locksmith

355
Q

What is the more efficient distance to stand back from the window when using a fog stream to perform mechanical ventilation?

A

6-8 feet from the window or door, adjust pattern to cover opening

356
Q

which fog pattern is most effective during mechanical ventilation operations?

A

30°

357
Q

What must be controlled to win the battle between fire and firefighter?
p. 229
A.) Fuel
B.) Chemical reaction
C.) Oxygen
D.) Time

A

C.) Oxygen

358
Q

The universal use of the following has led some people to think that ventilation is less important today? p. 230
A.) SCBA
B.) LDH
C.) RIC teams
D.) ICS

A

A.) SCBA

359
Q

2 main reasons for performing ventilation?

A

Vent for fire (allow attack teams to enter)
Vent for life (provide fresh air to occupants to breath and improve visibility while searching)

360
Q

Where should ventilation take place when heat is blowing back on the hoseline crew during operations? p. 231
A.) Above the nozzle
B.) Behind the nozzle
C.) Opposite the nozzle
D.) In line with the nozzle

A

C.) Opposite the nozzle
as ling as windows are not facing into the wind

361
Q

Heat build up results in?

A

Flashover

362
Q

How much of the window opening does “textbook ventilation” of double hung windows create during ventilation? p. 231
A.) One-fourth
B.) One-half
C.) One-third
D.) Two-thirds

A

B.) One-half

363
Q

When venting for fire is normally delayed until?

A

Resources are in place to attack

364
Q

What is the key factor when distinguishing between venting for life and venting for fire? p. 231
A.) Location of the ventilation
B.) Intensity of the ventilation
C.) Timing of the ventilation
D.) Degree of the ventilation

A

C.) Timing of the ventilation

365
Q

Gases flow from areas of high pressure towards areas of low pressure, therefore ff should avoid areas of?

A

Low pressure
*avoid being caught in exhaust path

366
Q

When forcing doors to other apartments as an area of refuge the most important part of this concept is?

A

area of refuge must be on the same side of the hall as the fire apartment to be on the high-pressure side

367
Q

What should be your guide when deciding to break or open a window for ventilation from the inside? p. 234
A.) Heat
B.) Flames
C.) Smoke
D.) Timing

A

A.) Heat

368
Q

Generally, horizontal ventilation for life hazard should be ?

A

coupled w/ immediate rescue effort

369
Q

Venting for fire should take place ?

A

after hoseline begins attack

370
Q

What is always better than flame?

A

Heat and Steam

371
Q

Where in the order of initial assignments should ventilation be? p. 237
A.) Third
B.) First
C.) Second
D.) Fourth

A

A.) Third
1. placemtn of initial attack line
2. designation of interior search team

372
Q

Which weather condition is particularly important to consider when deciding between horizontal and vertical ventilation? p. 238
A.) Humidity
B.) Wind
C.) Rain
D.) Barometric pressure

A

B.) Wind

373
Q

Best way to breach a glazing window is?

A

Circular saw w/ standard carbide tip
*avoid striking the glazing at 90°
*otherwise create opening through the wall

374
Q

Factors that influence choice between vertical or horizontal ventilation?

A

size and location of fire
construction of building
available staffing
effects of weather (esp. wind)

375
Q

Peaked roof are usually much more easily vented by?

A

Smashing windows in the gable end, or dormers than cutting the roof

376
Q

Serious fire in the Top floor or cockloft require?

A

Roof ventilation, if the fire is to be extinguished from the interior

377
Q

Some air from outside being drawn into the building around the side of a fan is know as

A

Churning

378
Q

How far outside of the structure should the PPV fan be set up during operations? p. 242
A.) 10-14 feet
B.) 8-12 feet
C.) 14-18 feet
D.) 4-8 feet

A

B.) 8-12 feet

379
Q

How many more times air can PPV fans move than NPV fans? p. 242
A.) Four times the volume
B.) Three times the volume
C.) Same volume
D.) Twice the volume

A

D.) Twice the volume

380
Q

Advantages of positive pressure ventilation (PPV) over negative pressure ventilation?

A

1st is efficiency

381
Q

Best results with positive pressure ventilation is?

A

isolate the room
* closing window or doors except in the room to be cleared

382
Q

Prime candidates for PPV?

A

Mattress
couches
stuffed chairs
extra smokey fires like those partially extinguished by sprinkler systems

383
Q

With PPV fanning is a drawback, to prevent a smoldering fire from turning into a serious conflagration the best way is to?

A

have a charged hosline in place ready to operate

384
Q

PPV should not be used at the same time?

A

VEIS is happening on the opposite side

385
Q

What is the most common vertical artery in the multiple story building for vertical ventilation operations? p. 244
A.) Elevator shaft
B.) Pipe chases
C.) Staircase
D.) Chimney

A

C.) Staircase

386
Q

What can be used to determine the location of pipe chases in a structure? p. 246
A.) Dumbwaiter doors
B.) Bulkhead doors on the roof
C.) Turbines on the roof
D.) Soil pipes on the roof

A

D.) Soil pipes on the roof

387
Q

The 2nd most common vertical avenue is?

A

Pipe Chase

388
Q

What must be done to make operating in a building with fire in the void spaces more doable? p. 247
A.) Master stream application
B.) Opening the walls
C.) Total ventilation
D.) Vertical ventilation

A

C.) Total ventilation

389
Q

Where are flat roofs normally found?

A

Large Buildings (stores, factories, schools, apartment buildings

390
Q

2 types of old-style roofs?

A

Standard flat roof
inverted flat roof

391
Q

What was used to seal the old-style flat roof? p. 248
A.) Tar paper
B.) Gravel
C.) Tar
D.) Cement

A

C.) Tar

392
Q

A working fire on the top floor of any large flat roof requires?

A

at least 4 ff w/ 2 6-8 ft hook with 2 power saws

393
Q

simplest, fastest type of examination hole with a power saw is?

A

Kerf cut
*the other is Triangular opening 8-10 inches

394
Q

What maximum size should each area be cut when making an 8X8 foot hole in the roof for ventilation? p. 251
A.) 2X2 foot
B.) 8X8 foot
C.) 4X4 foot
D.) 6X6 foot

A

C.) 4X4 foot

395
Q

Knockout holes should be placed?

A

on the corners

396
Q

How are the rows of uprights typically spaced on the inverted roof? p. 254
A.) 4 ft on center
B.) 8 ft on center
C.) 2 ft on center
D.) 6 ft on center

A

A.) 4 ft on center

397
Q

Inverted vs truss indication?

A
  • gusset plates or other truss connectors are visible
  • 2x4s join top plate at anything other than RIGHT ANGLE
398
Q

What material is sandwiched in the center of the Insulpan panels? p. 256
A.) Styrofoam
B.) Wood fibers
C.) Gypsum board
D.) Fiberglass

A

A.) Styrofoam

399
Q

How must the fire be reached if it has entered the second cockloft when a rain roof is present? p. 256
A.) From sides
B.) From above
C.) From below
D.) Cannot be reached

A

B.) From above
*virtually impossible from below

400
Q

Styrofoam Insulation problems are?

A

Highly flammable and thick have to be cut with chainsaw

401
Q

A specialized cut used to create a firebreak along surface of the roof

A

Trench Cut
* aka strip ventilation

402
Q

More logical place to cut off an extending fire is in the ?

A

Throat

403
Q

Trench cut key points:

A

-close enough to the fire to limit unnecessary extensions
-far enough away to have time to make the cut, pull and pushing ceiling down (20-25ft)
-make cut at narrowest point
- inspection holes
- 2 parallel cuts about 3 ft apart
- 1 3/4 in hoseline a

404
Q

Ventilation consideration:

A
  • Never vent where you will create an exposure problem
405
Q

Saw operators must perform the most important act whwn on the roof?

A

Stop saw from spinning whenever it is raised from a cut

406
Q

The greatest danger from live saw is?

A

When visibilty is poor

407
Q

When visibility is completely obscured saw operator should?

A

Completely stop all movement

408
Q

Which is a quick search for live victims before the fire has been brought under control? p. 268

A.)Delayed
B.)Primary
C.)Concurrent
D.)Secondary

A

B.)Primary

409
Q

What is the first thing that is needed to search a premises to maximize the likelihood of finding victims? p. 268

A.)Have enough personnel
B.)Have the right equipment
C.)Have a plan
D.)Have a flashlight

A

C.)Have a plan

410
Q

What piece of equipment must every member performing a primary search possess? p. 269
A.) Good light
B.) PASS
C.) Pike pole
D.) Radio

A

A.) Good light
*good to carry 2 incase one dies

411
Q

Which is often the first action taken upon entry into a fire building? p. 269

A.)Ventilation
B.)Extinguishment
C.)Primary search
D.)Salvage

A

C.)Primary search

412
Q

What color are warmer objects on the TIC’s display? p. 270

A.)White
B.)Orange
C.)Gray
D.)Red

A

A.)White
*surrounding area is gray

413
Q

Considering a purchase of a tic ?

A
  1. Durability
  2. Ease of use
  3. Size & weight
  4. Battery life
414
Q

Which part of the SCBA assembly must you maintain a firm hold on with your left hand when performing the emergency escape maneuver? p. 274

A.)Waist strap
B.)Left shoulder strap
C.)SCBA cylinder
D.)Mask assembly

A

B.)Left shoulder strap

415
Q

What are the 2 emergency maneuver that sound be taught to all members performing interior operations?

A

Reduce profile
Emergency escape

416
Q

Where is it best to begin the primary search whenever possible? p. 275

A.)Open areas
B.)Common rooms
C.)Remote from the fire area
D.)Close to the fire area

A

D.)Close to the fire area

417
Q

In which location were a larger percentage of fire victims
located per NFPA data?
p. 276

A.)Bathroom
B.)Bedroom
C.)Living room
D.)Kitchen

A

B.)Bedroom 36%
35% teying to escape

418
Q

Fires above the fire search should begin?

A

Search as soon as you enter the floor and when toward fire

419
Q

What are occupants above the fire floor threatened by? p. 276

A.)Collapse
B.)Gases
C.)Flashover
D.)Flames

A

B.)Gases

420
Q

At what type of incident do firefighters most frequently
get the chance to preplan a location?
p. 278

A.)Cooking related calls
B.)Trapped animal calls
C.)Water/gas leaks
D.)Medical assistance

A

D.)Medical assistance

421
Q

Secondary search must include?

A
  • Perimeter of the building
    Any rooftops or setbacks ppl may have jumped too
  • areas beneath windows
  • shrubbery
422
Q

What size team is generally needed to perform an adequate secondary search for each floor in a residence? p. 280

A.)Four
B.)Eight
C.)Six
D.)Two

A

D.)Two

423
Q

Beginning with which floor below the fire floor will forcible entry not be needed during the secondary search
if no other signs are seen?
p. 280

A

Generally 2 or more floors below the fire

424
Q

In areas of large open space or extremely heavy smoke that can not be readily dispelled, you should use in order to search?

A

Guide rope (tag line)

425
Q

Where should the guide rope be secured during the primary search? p. 281

A.)Movable object within the room
B.)Substantial object on the outside
C.)Belt loop of the anchor member
D.)Doorknob of the search room

A

B.)Substantial object on the outside

426
Q

What can be placed in the entranceway during a primary search to help members find their way back? p. 281

A.)Floodlight
B.)Sound speaker
C.)Metronome
D.)Strobe light

A

A.)Floodlight

427
Q

What minimum size rope can be used as a tagline?
p. 281

A.)5/8-inch
B.)3/8-inch
C.)1/4-inch
D.)1/2-inch

A

C.)1/4-inch

428
Q

Who is responsible for making sure that the rope remains secured?

A

Anchor

429
Q

Norman’s 3 rules of survival?

A
  • Never put yourself in a position where you are dependent of some one to come save you
  • know your escape route
  • know your second escape route
430
Q

What should be done first when the firefighter needs to perform the emergency escape maneuver? p. 288

A.)Unbuckle a waist strap
B.)Secure the mask
C.)Remove the left strap
D.)Transmit a Mayday

A

D.)Transmit a Mayday

431
Q

What is the first thing you should do if you are cut off by extending fire? p. 289

A.)Seek another escape route
B.)Make a Mayday radio transmission
C.)Find an area of refuge
D.)Activate your PASS

A

C.)Find an area of refuge

432
Q

When conducting a headfirst bailout onto a ladder where should one arm be inserted? p. 289

A.)Between second and third rung
B.)Between second and fourth rung
C.)Between first and second rung
D.)Between first and third rung

A

D.)Between first and third rung

433
Q

What is the maximum width you should allow your hands to spread when using an escape rope with an emergency body wrap?
p. 295

A.)Nipple
B.)Eye
C.)Naval
D.)Shoulder

A

D.)Shoulder

434
Q

What is the simplest method of recording the locations where units are operating? p. 297
A.) Tagging system
B.) Electronic tracker
C.) Command chart
D.) Check-in board

A

C.) Command chart

435
Q

What is the most important piece of the puzzle when identifying a missing firefighter?
p. 298

A.)Entry log
B.)Tags
C.)Portable radio
D.)PASS device

A

C.)Portable radio

436
Q

A Mayday should be sounded when a member is unaccounted for more than what amount of time? p. 301

A.)90 seconds
B.)60 seconds
C.)45 seconds
D.)30 seconds

A

B.)60 seconds
*disorientation or entrapment 30 seconds

437
Q

What is a key task of the FAST truck in the FDNY? p. 304-305

A.)Set up and assign the staging area
B.)Delegate personnel for the firefight
C.)Assist with forcible entry
D.)Monitor radio communications

A

D.)Monitor radio communications

438
Q

For what purpose do some departments use the RIT if the incident escalates? p. 305
A.) Staged team
B.) Attack team
C.) Backup team
D.) RIT

A

B.) Attack team

439
Q

How far apart must the radios be placed when using
feedback-assisted rescue to locate a trapped firefighter?
p. 308
A.) 4-5 inches
B.) 3-4 inches
C.) 2-3 inches
D.) 1-2 inches

A

D.) 1-2 inches
*produce feedback upto a half mile

440
Q

What is the maximum number of searchers that should be used during the team search? p. 310

A.)Five
B.)Seven
C.)Four
D.)Six

A

C.)Four
* 1 anchor and 1 leader(carries TIC) a min of 2 searchers 4 max
*always even numbers
*anchor carries main search rope

441
Q

What should be the maximum submergence time allowed during a team search when a 30-minute SCBA is being used? p. 310

A.)10 minutes
B.)20 minutes
C.)15 minutes
D.)25 minutes

A

B.)20 minutes
* 10 min to get in and 10 min to get out

442
Q

How many people from the RIT should remain where the search rope has been tied to a substantial object when conducting a team search? p. 310
A.) One
B.) Four
C.) Two
D.) Three

A

A.) One
* the control person

443
Q

At what distance are knots typically tied in the search rope? p. 311
A.) 100 feet
B.) 50 feet
C.) 75 feet
D.) 25 feet

A

D.) 25 feet w/ a knot 6-8 giving the direction
*at 50ft 2 knots 3in apart
*after 100 ft or 4 knots start over (1 knot at 125ft)

444
Q

2 types of system or patterns of search?

A

Fan search
T search

445
Q

How far behind the anchor should the searchers clip their tag lines when performing a fan search? p. 312

A.)35 feet
B.)55 feet
C.)45 feet
D.)25 feet

A

D.)25 feet

446
Q

Of the two team search patterns which is fastest?

A

T search

447
Q

What is the minimum length the tag line should be during a T-pattern search? p. 313
A.) Half the narrowest dimension of the space to be searched
B.) The narrowest dimension of the space to be searched
C.) Twice the narrowest dimension of the space to be searched
D.) Three times the narrowest dimension of the space to be searched

A

A.) Half the narrowest dimension of the space to be searched

448
Q

Whwn deploying the search rope either for team search or as a guide you should?

A

Secure the end outside structure or
Inside the stairwell for upper floors

449
Q

Where should the search rope for team search be secured when deployed on an upper floor? p. 314

A.)Outside the structure
B.)On the searched floor
C.)Inside the stairwell
D.)At the apparatus

A

C.)Inside the stairwell

450
Q

What must be done at each change in direction when using a search rope? p. 315
A.) Tie it off to a substantial object
B.) Post a firefighter
C.) Begin a new section
D.) Tie a knot in the rope

A

A.) Tie it off to a substantial object

451
Q

What is the first thing that should be done when a report is received that a firefighter down on the incident scene? p. 315
A.) Collect an RIT-pak and bag-valve mask resuscitator
B.) Call for and ALS ambulance
C.) Bring a protective hoseline
D.) Call for additional firefighters

A

B.) Call for and ALS ambulance
*2nd - call add. personnel
3rd - a hoseline, spare mask or rit-pak, bag valve mask

452
Q

At what minimum distance should the staging area be
established when a Mayday has been sounded and rescue operations are underway? p. 317
A.) Two blocks
B.) Three blocks
C.) One block
D.) Four blocks

A

C.) One block

453
Q

Which should NOT be brought during a trapped firefighter rescue operation? p. 318
A.) SCBA cylinders
B.) RIT-paks
C.) SCBA assemblies
D.) SCBA masks

A

A.) SCBA cylinders

454
Q

What is the first step taken when converting a SCBA into a harness? p. 319
A.) Unbuckle the waist belt of the SCBA
B.) Tighten the looped waist belt
C.) Loosen the shoulder straps
D.) Bring the waist belt between the legs

A

A.) Unbuckle the waist belt of the SCBA

455
Q

Generally what should be the first action taken once
rescuing firefighters arrive at an unconscious firefighter? p. 319
A.) Assess injuries
B.) Assess level of consciousness
C.) Assess SCBA air supply
D.) Assess breathing status

A

D.) Assess breathing status

456
Q

If in a narrow space one of the fastest simplest, and least injurious is to to remove a ff?

A

tie handcuff knot at the arms or legs as conditions require

457
Q

In most firefighter removals, moving an unconscious firefighter up a stairway the first step is ?

A

convert scba into a harness

458
Q

What orientation will the victim be pulled up the staircase when a backboard is used in the process? p. 323
A.) Feet first
B.) Left side
C.) Right side
D.) Head first

A

A.) Feet first

459
Q

What part of the rope will be passed to rescuers inside when using a handcuff knot to secure the unconscious firefighter during a rescue using a ladder and rope as a high-point anchor? p. 326
A.) Middle
B.) Terminating end
C.) Feed
D.) Working end

A

A.) Middle

460
Q

What is often the fastest way to reach a firefighter who
has fallen through a roof or floor? p. 327
A.) Lower floor stairway
B.) Through the opening
C.) Window on the floor
D.) Front entrance

A

B.) Through the opening

461
Q

What is the minimum number of rescuers that should be use to hoist a firefighter out of a hole in the floor or roof? p. 328
A.) Seven
B.) Six
C.) Five
D.) Four

A

D.) Four

462
Q

Where should the rope be attached to the victim when removing a firefighter who has fallen through a roof or floor? p. 328-329
A.) Chest or waist
B.) Wrists or ankles
C.) Knees or hips
D.) Shoulders or neck

A

B.) Wrists or ankles

463
Q

For safety reasons, which must be included in every firefighter’s pre-entry size-up of the building? p. 287

A.)Exposures
B.)Windows
C.)Landscaping
D.)Doorways

A

B.)Windows

464
Q

When conducting a headfirst bailout onto a ladder where should one arm be inserted?
p. 289

A.)Between second and third rung
B.)Between second and fourth rung
C.)Between first and second rung
D.)Between first and third rung

A

D.)Between first and third rung

465
Q

What is the most common use for the reduced-profile maneuver? p. 288
A.) Breeching an interior wall to escape flames
B.) Crawling below an elevated building
C.) Move through the small spaces of a bathroom
D.) Get through space between a building and the fire escape

A

D.) Get through space between a building and the fire escape

466
Q

What is the most common form of forcible exit? p. 290
A.) Forcing a door
B.) Opening the roof
C.) Breaking a window
D.) Breeching a wall

A

C.) Breaking a window

467
Q

At what height is it best to force your tool when breaching a wood lath and plaster wall if possible? p. 290
A.) 5 feet
B.) 2 feet
C.) 3 feet
D.) 4 feet

A

C.) 3 feet

468
Q

If you will be sliding down the ladder headfirst during an emergency exit, what part of the ladder should be grasped? p. 290
A.) Halyard in the center
B.) Pawls on both sides
C.) Rungs in the center
D.) Beams on both sides

A

D.) Beams on both sides

469
Q

What is the easiest way to know who is operating on the scene in a career department? p. 296
A.) Roll call
B.) Tagging system
C.) Riding list
D.) Check-ins

A

C.) Riding list

470
Q

In which situation would a PAR not be needed? p. 300
A.) Flashover
B.) Attack mode change
C.) Search conclusion
D.) PASS activation

A

C.) Search conclusion

471
Q

Which is the most important element of the RIT? p. 303
A.) Technique
B.) People
C.) Policies
D.) Tools

A

B.) People

472
Q

What activates the PASS on the SCBA integrated system? p. 308
A.) Cylinder is turned on
B.) Facemask is donned
C.) Regulator is activated
D.) Manual activation

A

A.) Cylinder is turned on

473
Q

What is the minimum size team that should be assembled when performing a team search? p. 310
A.) Four
B.) Six
C.) Three
D.) Five

A

B.) Six

474
Q

Who should carry the RIT mask for the victim during a team search? p. 311
A.) Control person
B.) Team leader
C.) Rope manager
D.) Anchor

A

B.) Team leader

475
Q

Which is of utmost importance when a Mayday is received to assist in the rescue? p. 317
A.) Operating units must continue to fight the fire
B.) All other operations must stop to allow for a search
C.) Pull as many units to assist as possible
D.) Minimum resources should be used to search

A

A.) Operating units must continue to fight the fire

476
Q

How should the identity of units assigned to a the task of victim removal be announced? p. 317
A.) During the PAR
B.) Over walkie-talkie
C.) Via word of mouth
D.) At a briefing meeting

A

B.) Over walkie-talkie

477
Q

When should basic life support be started when rescuing a trapped firefighter? p. 318
A.) As soon as they are located
B.) Once out of immediate danger
C.) After on the ambulance
D.) Once outside of the building

A

B.) Once out of immediate danger

478
Q

What should extra care be taken to protect when one person is moving a victim down the stairway? p. 322
A.) Victim’s head and neck
B.) Rescuer’s knees
C.) Victim’s chest and head
D.) Rescuer’s back

A

A.) Victim’s head and neck

479
Q

What can the victim’s SCBA (except the mask) be attached to if it must be removed while hauling the firefighter through a hole in the floor or roof for extrication? p. 328
A.) Turnout pants
B.) Bunker coat
C.) Boots
D.) Chest harness

A

B.) Bunker coat

480
Q

What can be used to create a 2:1 mechanical advantage system when hoisting a firefighter through a hole in the floor or roof? p. 329
A.) Extra-large Carabiner
B.) Two long lengths of rope
C.) Attic ladder and rope
D.) Roof ladder

A

A.) Extra-large Carabiner

481
Q

Of the various types of construction method which is the most dangerous?

A

Lightweight

482
Q

The danger of truss exits only?

A

under fire conditions

483
Q

At ice rescue in order to enter water if victim is unable to assist and rescue members want to avoid break victims support mantel or being pushed or pulled down members must?

A

Make a wide circular side or rear approach whwn entering water.

484
Q

1st tactical objectives at ice rescue?

A

Provide for responder safety

485
Q

At a Radiological incident members operating in hot or warm zone must be equipped with?

A

Dosimeter
*Level B or PPE w/SCBA @ a minimum

486
Q

During a fire a braced-framed building will often collapse?

A

Inward/outward

487
Q

Attache is defined as?

A

Any non-uniformed employee of the department

488
Q

A major disadvantage of the newer style of high rise include?

A

lightweight building material
curtain wall construction
larger and more wide open floor spaces, hung ceilings throughout, and core construction techniques

489
Q

One of the greatest dangers in many garden appartments complexes is?

A

Common crawl space

490
Q

Probably the worst possible type of stairway to use to reach a below-grade fire?

A

spiral staircase

491
Q

A focus statement that communicate respect flexibility, collaboration, and areas of agreement? pg 134

A

Validate, not invalidating

TQ's (1 decks)

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