Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Principle that allows workers to report to more than one supervisor? pg. 30

A

Functional Supervision

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2
Q

Co. Officer
Span of control ratio of? Optimum of? pg. 30

A

1 supervisor to 3-7 subordinates
Optimum 1 to 5

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3
Q

Anticipating, embracing and meeting change is an example of which leadership quality? pg. 48

A

Proactiveness

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4
Q

Group establishes and adheres to its own set of norms or value. Members become closer and more cohesive?

A

Norming

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5
Q

What is the E in the Step 5 of planning process?

A

Evaluate

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6
Q

A reason people break the rules is created when there is a lack of knowledge of the job requirements and or the rules of conduct known as ?

A

Ignorance

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7
Q

Requiring the reciever to repeat the message back to the sender reducing change of understanding is which if the 5 c’s of communication?

A

Control

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8
Q

Example of unsafe conditions include:

A

Hostile Crowd

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9
Q

The process of identifying and analyzing the exposure to hazards, selecting appropriate techniques to handle exposures, implementing chosen techniques, and monitoring the results?

A

Risk Management

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10
Q

Top cord of bowstring truss bears what kind of load?

A

Compresive load

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11
Q

What provides the company officer with the opportunity to become familiar with the structures and potential hazards within their response district?

A

Inspection

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12
Q

Where is it a good place to train for high angle rescue and standpipe operations?

A

Parking Garage

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13
Q

Inspection of protective clothing of all members assigned to the platoon in their district shall be inspected by ________ and on ?

A

District Chief; January and July

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14
Q

Which NFPA standard prohibits a beard or facial hair that interferes with face-piece seal?

A

NFPA 1500

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15
Q

When members are involved in operations that require the use of SCBA, at least ____ member shall be assigned to remain outside the area where respiratory protection is required?

A

One Member

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16
Q

When responding to an emergency under favorable conditions, fire department vehicles are authorized to exceed posted speed limit by a maximum of?

A

10 MPH

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17
Q

When more than one unit is dispatched on any fire related response and the first unit arriving on scene reports that there is “nothing showing” or “investigating” units shall continue to respond w/lights and audible warning device shall proceed with with caution, not exceeding posted speed limit. This response shall be referred to ?

A

Responding with caution

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18
Q

Based on the information received from the unit at the scene a response at a reduced speed is warranted for units not yet on scene. Discontinue use of audible warning devices and warning lights is known as :

A

Code C

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19
Q

Operators unfamiliar with the operation of engine transmission and driveline retarders shall?

A

Not operate apparatus equipped with such devices

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20
Q

When roads are wet and/or slippery, with the exception of Telma retarders shall?

A

Not be used, Telma can be used under any conditions

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21
Q

Provided that the CGI remain Below what percentage?

A

10% LEL

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22
Q

Members operating in boats shall wear?

A

United States Coast Guard Type III Personal Flotation Device (PFD), unless wearing survival suit

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23
Q

Members operating on the deck of Marine 1 when actively involved in firefighting shall wear?

A

Structural firefighting PPE

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24
Q

Companies dispatched for incidents involving Marine 1 will operate on the channel assigned by?

A

Fire Alarm

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25
When a small boat is deployed to an emergency incident, who shall be dispatched?
Division 1 and Safety Operations Battalion
26
Companies dispatched for incidents on any inland pond or inland body of water will operate on?
assigned fire ground channel
27
Marine 2 and Marine 3 is what type of boat?
14' Achilles SG 140
28
What is the most important infection control procedure?
Hand washing
29
Hand washing shall be performed for a minimum of?
10 to 15 seconds
30
Cleaning and disinfection of emergency medical equipment shall take place at a ?
Medical Facility
31
Person in imminent danger of death or severe injury due to fire exposure. The person on the fire floor or floor above is known as?
Severely Exposed
32
If possible, secondary search should be conducted by ?
members other than those who conducted the primary search.
33
Only if it will not contribute to fire spread members shall?
vent as they go
34
Perform search and rescue operations on?
the fire floor or location of the most severely exposed victims.
35
Level I accountability is?
the lowest level of accountability and automatically and not announced
36
If any FD unit shall discover a bomb during the course of other activities that unit shall?
Immediately withdraw from the area and evacuate civilians in the process
37
Complaint slips shall be utilized for any private fire alarms with?
repeated defective devices
38
Upon notification that an actual recall to duty has been ordered, who shall be responsible for effectuating this notification?
On duty chiefs, utilizing company officers and other available resources.
39
The overarching goal of rail response is?
Life safety
40
The incident commanders 1st priority when dealing with a rail incident is?
Controlling the hazard
41
When dealing with an Acela train, do not approach within?
20 Feet
42
Pantographs contain how much volts of electricity?
25,000
43
Who is the most valuable source of information regarding train operations?
Conductor
44
How many engine companies at elevated roadway fires?
3 Engine Companies
45
The Optimum location for companies to stage at Highway Operations is?
One that Provides immediate access to the highway, as well as access to alternative route
46
Ladder co. primary function will be to act as and position apparatus approximately?
Blocking Vehicle; 100 feet upstream
47
On highway operations safety vest are not required when?
FF are actively engaged in fire suppression
48
One recommendation to help eliminate feedback is?
Utilize volume control on the microphone.
49
Communication unit will consist of at a minimum?
Communications unit leader Incident Dispatcher Mobile command post
50
There is a slight momentary delay from powering up the VRS until it is operational. This is done by?
All units equipped with VRS unit and assigned to an incident
51
On our portables channel 8 is designated as?
Providence Police channel 3
52
On our portables channel 9,10,11 are designated as?
Mutual Aid channels
53
Intercity fire ground operations channel is?
Channel 10
54
The 1st due engine company will not be used as RTF company, they will?
Establish Casualty Collection Point (CCP)
55
Initial RTF will be deployed into______, with the purpose of locating and stabilizing patients according to the guidelines of tactical Emergency Casualty Care?
Warm Zone
56
All members shall be sent to rehabilitation following the use of?
2 - 30 min bottle 1 - 45 or 60 min bottle or 40 min of intense work w/o scba * rest should be 10 - 20 min
57
At an elevator emergency what is the engine co. primary task?
Locate elevator car in question
58
After locating the elevator what should be done next?
make contact with the passengers
59
Engine co. at elevator emergencies shall be responsible for?
any EMS needs of civilians in stalled elevators upon their extrication.
60
At an elevator emergency the primary function of the Special Hazards is?
Enter Hoist-way and extricate the passengers.
61
Who will be responsible for sizing up the elevator and recommending an appropriate incident action plan?
Officer and members of special hazards 1
62
Elevator not level with the extrication floor and with the car opening for extrication less than 36 in. must have the elevator car?
secured by struts or rail blocks before performing extrications.
63
When there is not at least one EMT-C staffed on the fire company than?
Officer shall notify BOC District Chief Safety Operations Battalion
64
At an Emergency scene who is responsible for scene management, safety, proper lighting, removal of obstructions, extrication tactics, request for additional assets, and communications with the BOC and overall command of the incident?
FIRE COMPANY
65
Life safety rope used for rescue at fires or other emergency incidents shall be permitted, to be re-used if?
inspected before and after each use in accordance with the manufacturer's instruction and -not visually damaged -not subject to impact load -not exposed to chemical liquids, solids, gases, mists or vapors of any material known to deteriorate rope.
66
Life safety rope that fails the visual inspection it shall?
be removed from service and destroyed
67
Life safety rope shall be removed from service that is?
10 years old
68
It it becomes necessary to transmit on police frequency use PFD channel?
Channel 8 which is PPD channel 3
69
What shall be maintained between the operating saw and members not involved with the cut?
20 foot danger circle
70
Before putting saw in operation you should have a plan of action, which should include?
Wind Direction 2 means of egress location and sequence of cuts
71
Power saw operations are safest when cutting?
On horizontal surfaces near the ground level or on vertical surfaces near the waist level
72
What distance shall be maintained between the work area and refueling area?
10 foot
73
All members of the PFD shall be trained for hazmat to the?
first responder operations level
74
Level II hazmat incident requires what type of evacuation?
Limited evacuation of nearby residents or facilities -Level II-Hazmat -Expanded geographic scope -potential threat to life, health, environment and property
75
What are the 2 phases a hazmat incident can be broken down into?
Emergency phase Post-Emergency Phase
76
What 2 stages at a hazmat can an emergency phase be broken into?
Critical Stage Containment Stage
77
What is the final stage at a hazmat incident?
Recovery and Cleanup
78
Generally there are 4 choices in handling spills or leak which are?
C.A.N.S containment absorption neutralization segregation
79
At a Hazmat hot zone denotes (indicates)?
Exclusion Zone
80
At a Hazmat warm zone denotes (indicates)?
Contamination Reduction
81
At a Hazmat cold zone denotes (indicates)?
Support Zone
82
What is the 1st step of decontamination ?
minimize contact with chemicals and the potential for contamination
83
Chemicals move from areas of ?
High Concentration to areas of low concentration. - concentration of chemicals increase, the potential for permeation( penetrating something) of PPE increases.
84
An increase in temperature generally?
increase permeation (penetrating something) rate of contaminants
85
Gases, vapors, and low viscosity liquids tend to ?
permeate more readily than high viscosity liquids and vapors
86
IC must maintain or cause to be maintain?
A written record of all activities related to the incident
87
What is another requirement of OSHA/EPA at hazmat incident?
Keeping a Master Log
88
Chemicals that have the potential for spreading contamination can be made less hazardous by ?
Simply diluting them with copious amounts of water.
89
If decontamination cannot be done on victim you should?
wrap the victim in blankets plastic or rubber to reduce contamination of other personnel.
90
At a hazmat incident a primary consideration in doffing is to?
Avoid transfer of chemical that may be on the outside of the PPE to clean areas, skin or underclothing
91
Isolate scene and deny entry. Establish control zones and perimeter?
Hot Zone - Exclusion zone Warm Zone - Contamination Reduction Cold Zone - Support Zone
92
At carbon monoxide incidents SCBA shall be worn whenever CO levels are determined to be in excess of?
35 ppm *50 ppm produce symptoms *1500 considered IDLH *50,000 ppm or 5% LETHAL
93
What are the problems associated with new high-rise buildings?
- Lack compartmentation and massive building construction practices that were used in years past - Extensive use of plastic materials - Interior walls and ceiling finish materials have long been recognized as providing potential for fire spread.
94
At a high-rise fire the first arriving company shall respond with IAT to?
Lowest floor that is in alarm on the annunciator panel.
95
If IAT is notified by BOC or by a person in the building that the fire is located in a kitchen or in an electrical equipment room, what type of extinguisher should be brought into building?
Dry Chemical or CO/2
96
At a high-rise fire the 2nd arriving Chief officer when so assigned by the incident commander will establish?
Forward command post, one floor below the fire. This fire floor sector will have control of the fire floor and floor above
97
In regards to mayday incident, members in distress shall?
activate Personal Alert Safety System (PASS) and attempt to get to one (1) of the outside walls of the building.
98
Providing additional access by creating or clearing means of egress, removing window bars and opening boarded doors and windows is know as?
softening the building
99
At what point in the incident is it no longer in the initial stage?
Once a second company arrives
100
What are the 3 main areas of concerns in regards to size-up?
What do we have? Where is it going? How do we control it?
101
The first attack line shall be placed?
between the fire and the most severe exposure.
102
Second dispatched company at a fire is responsible for?
Immediately providing an adequate water supply to the first arriving engine company
103
Used for a narrow, dead-end or limited access streets?
Split-lay
104
IC shall use one of the following when reporting status of incident?
Doubtful - will be under control in next 10 min Will hold - with current assignment Under Control
105
Primary cause of injuries to firefighters during overhaul is?
Fatigue
106
Heavy timber 4 to 7 story brick-walled buildings. To qualify as heavy timber construction ?
A wood column cannot be less than 8" thick in any dimension and wood girder cannot be less than 6" thick
107
All suspicious packages should?
Be treated as a bomb threat and evaluated by bomb squad
108
What will be the acceptable threshold for field operations on high-wind conditions?
Sustained winds of 65 MPH *only ACOD and DAC can allow operations with sustained winds greater than 65 mph
109
Aerial ladders are capable of operating at sustained winds of?
35 mph or lower
110
Conditions found that pose an immediate threat to the safety of members shall be reported to?
Fire Alarm
111
Captain of each company shall prepare a list of the buildings to be surveyed by each shift of his company by?
First of each month
112
How many building survey will each company complete and with what frequency?
2 surveys per week
113
Alpha particles can be stopped by ?
Piece of paper
114
What is the effective shielding for gamma radiation?
Lead
115
What is the preferred Method of public protection at Radiological response?
Evacuation
116
What are effects of WMD's?
TRACEM
117
Safe place to wait for decon and where evacuated persons await?
Warm zone - Area of refuge
118
When setting up an engine corridor for decon how should they be setup?
Engine side by side in opposite direction so pump panels are on the outside. Trucks are placed 25 feet apart fog nozzle attached to 2 1/2 in. Discharge port nozzle are open wide fog
119
For paid details portable radios shall be signed out from B.O.C. Members shall not?
Use portables from fire companies
120
With the safe station ask the person if they have drugs or paraphernalia inb their possession. If yes?
Please ask them to dispose of them in the proper place that has been installed in the station
121
The Captain of each company shall not permit use of bed other than?
2100 - 0700
122
Captain of each company shall cause an inspection of each hydrant within the companys district when?
Annually; starting in April
123
Captain of the house shall make a monthly requisition of supplies or equipment as necessary no later than?
20 of the month for the following month
124
Captainn of the house will prepare a new housework schedule on ? And forwarded to for approval?
1st of January; ACOD administration
125
Whwnever off-duty members of any unit report for duty at the beginning of a shift and finds that unit has responded to a fire or other emergency then?
Officer in command after arrival of ALL Members shall promptly notify B.O.C of their availability
126
When using east side tunnel?
Officer in command notify B.O.C when unit enters and exits the tunnel
127
The first company (or the companies designated) can handle the situation
Code yellow
128
Malicious false alarm?
Code Blue
129
At fires or other emergencies, members are expected to be?
Courageous w/o being reckless
130
When ever an eating establishment or place where food is sold or stored the IC must make sure notification to?
RI Department of Health
131
All hose ahall be service tested?
Annually
132
Officers in command of engine companies shall supervise?
Monthly replacement of hose on all apparatus under their command
133
Aerial ladders shall be extended and lubricated?
Semi-annually by Automotive Maintenance Division
134
According to Maintenence schedule thursday is designated for?
Floors
135
When placing hydrant signs on private property, permission shall be obtained from?
Property Owner
136
Wet sprinker system tgat has been deactivated shall?
Be odered reactived by officer in command
137
When apparatus has to be placed out of service for repairs, officer in command of unit shall?
Notify B.O.C and ensure District Chief and Safety Ops Battalion are notified
138
When unusual or dangerous conditions are found company officers shall?
Forward a complaint report to Fire Prevention
139
Training shall be provided for at least?
1 hour during day tour and 30 minutes during night tour
140
At least 1 hour of training each cycle shall be devoted to?
Structural Firefighting and and additional hour for Emergency Medical services
141
2 general classes of message?
Urgent and routine
142
Members unable to report for duty shall promptly notify officer in command of their unit by?
0630 for the day tour and 1500 for the night tour
143
Officers may permit sleeping while on duty from?
2200 - 0700
144
Summer dress and summer uniform shall be worn during?
May 15 to Oct 15
145
Lieutenants Shield color?
Red shield with white letters
146
Highest order of prestige medal?
Medal of Honor
147
Any member reporting for dutybecause of sickness shall notify immediate officer on duty and notification shall be made?
At least 1.5 hours prior to day tour and 3 hours before night tour
148
The national flag shall be properly displayed from?
0800 till sunset
149
National flag on Memorial day and Firemans Memorial day Flag shall be displayes at?
Half staff from 0800 till noon And at the peak from noon till sunset
150
National Flag shall be displayed upon death of an active member from?
The day of the death until the day of the burial. Flow at half staff from day of death til noon of day of burial and then flown at the peak until sunset.
151
An action undertaken for the purpose of saving or attempting to save life of a human being who is in imminent danger of death?
Heroic Action 1st Class
152
The Incident command also has the capability of growing the needs of an incident by?
Modular expansion
153
The regulation from OSHA dealing with hazardous materials emergency response mandates the useof an incident command system. This regualtion is found in?
Title 29 of the code of federal regulation, part 1910.120
154
The most effective use of incident command system is?
Its day to day use
155
If one individual can simultaneously manage all major functional areas, no furthur organization is required as long as ?
Span of control does not exceed 7
156
Defined as the number of subordinates 1 supervisor can manage effectively is?
Span of contol 1 supervisor to 3 to 7 subordinates 5 is optimum
157
Are the broad objectives necessary to handle a given situation?
Strategic Objectives
158
Specfic and measurable and are given a specific time frame?
Tactical Objective
159
Provides line of authority, responsibility and communication, and increase the control necessary to provide the the safety of personnel from all involved agencies?
Liaison Management
160
Fires that have consumed most of available oxygen within a structure?
Ventilation Limited
161
Unburned fuel gas is?
Smoke
162
Differences between the fire environment of yesterday vs today?
- Well insulated - Nature of fuel load ( Very High Plastic fire load) - make of building (lightweight construction) - size of structure - staffing
163
Ventilation must be?
Coordinated with hoseline advance
164
Always attack with?
Wind at your back
165
The job of the officer is to?
Understand the options available tontheir team and choose the most appropriate one for their situation
166
Removing an adult victim via portable ladder requires?
2 ppl (1 on ladder and 1 inside room)
167
If a building contains 8-10 ppl or victim location not immediately known, requiring an involved search and not enough personnel to put fire out?
Place line between fire and victim, try to put fire out but if not possible protect means of egress
168
Remove those in the greatest danger first?
Most to least - in vicinity of fire - floor above fire - top floor (smoke/heat/gases accumulate) -anyone in panic ( threatening to jump may have to be removed immediately) -people below the fire typically last priority
169
When you dont have sufficient personnel to perform all the needed task, first perform?
Those that protect the greatest # of human life
170
ff must be constantly aware that fire spread has how many possible directions?
6 (up, down, left, right, ahead and back)
171
Sequence of action to be taken?
Size up Locate Confine Extinguish
172
A critical factor that will begin as soon as the alarm is recieved by the responding ff?
Size-up
173
Actions to be taken at a structural fire (SLICE-RS)
Size up Locate the fire Identify and control flow path Cool the fire from safe location Extinguish fire Rescue Salvage
174
COAL WAS WEALTH
Construction Occupancy Apparatus + personnel Life Hazard Water supply Auxilary appliances Street conditions Weather Exposures Area + height Location and extent of fire Time Height or hazmat
175
An evaluation of problems and conditions that affect the outcome of a fire?
Size-up
176
Proper size up begins from?
Moments the alarm is recieved and continues until emergency is under control
177
Best method to reduce life hazard is?
Installing a complete wet-pipe automatic sprinkler system Other ways - imposing occ. Load restrictions - improve exit facilities - by specifying fire doors + partition
178
Life hazards comes in 2 form?
Them and us
179
Most effective tool for recalling preplan information?
CADS
180
The longer the _____ time, the greater the danger?
Elapsed
181
20 minute rule applies to only 2 types of construction which are?
Type V - wood frame Type III - ordinary
182
The 20 minute rule starts from what time frame?
Once the fire reaches flashover
183
Fire that is venting out windows on 2 floors typically indicate?
Prolonged burning - more than 10 min Use of an accelerant Large holes connecting the floors
184
Responsible for the destruction by fire of more buildings than any other construction related factor?
Hidden voids * third concern related to building construction implications
185
Fourth concern in regards to building implications is ?
Ability to resist collapse
186
Type 1: fire resistive the walls and partition, column, floors, and roof ofv these building are noncombustible. The various construction elements are designed to with stand the effects of fire for ?
A limited time and prevent its spread (Fireproofing)
187
2 constructions that have 2-hour fire-resistive rating?
Class 3 - Ordinary Construction Class 4 - Heavy timber
188
If you encounter a floor that is full of hot smoke and find no visible fire is a classic indicator of?
A Cellar Fire
189
What does black smoke often indicate?
Presence of petroleum-based products
190
Large volume of black smock at the roof level can indicate?
Involvement of roofing materials
191
Lighter to moderate quantities of black smoke found in basement often indicates?
Oil burner malfunction *bring class B fire extinguisher q
192
Produce gray to light brown smoke when sufficient oxygen is present?
Class A material ( ordinary combustible wood/paper)
193
Reduced amount of oxygen produce large amounts of?
Dark gray or yellow gray smoke. (Indication of potential backdraft )
194
Wispy smoke, usually light in color indicates a fire in?
Incipient stage
195
After life hazard, ff next priorty is ?
Protection of exposure
196
How many gpm for each 100 sq ft is needed to control fires in area of light fire load of ordinary combustible?
10 gpm
197
An out of service auxiliary appliance is often Justification for?
An extra alarm
198
Fires progress through what stages?
The incipient stage Free Burning stage Smoldering stage
199
The presence of trapped occupants narrows mode of operation to?
Offensive Mode
200
The risk of pushing fire, gases and steam back into building is greatest when?
Fog stream is used
201
A 75 ft platform can cover a frontage of ?
100 feet
202
3 topics that directly affect putting water on a fire?
Selecting the proper size and length of hose Quickly + efficiently stretching the line stretched to the proper position
203
Two main type of fog nozzles currently in use?
Constant gallonage and constant pressure
204
Which type of truss roof offer no visual hints?
Flat Timber Truss
205
On a dry-pipe sprinkler system the air pressure on top of clapper valve is?
30 to 40 psi *known as differential dry-pipe valve
206
Most common and simplest type of sprinkler?
Automatic wet system
207
Each normal sprinkler head flowing 50 psi will deliver about?
40 gpm
208
According to NFPA 35% of victims died while? A. Victim was sleeping B. Trying to escape C. Trying to hide from fire D. Other unknown activities
B. Trying to escape
209
Each normal sprinkler head flowing 50 psi will deliver about?
40 gpm
210
Fires in sprinklered buildings are more smoky than those unsprinklered for these 3 reasons?
Carbon monoxide sinking fire gases smoke being pushed down
211
What type of ventilation will be required for cold smoke?
Mechanical
212
What is the 2nd most common type of sprinkler system?
Automatic dry (Dry-pip) system
213
Water above the clapper is so high that its weight will hold the clapper closed, know as?
Water Columning
214
Deluge system has ?
Open sprinkler heads, which allow water to flow all at once. * used at aircraft hangars and flammable liquids loading dock
215
What is installed over very expensive electronic equipment that could be damaged by water leak?
Preaction Systems * consist of an automatic detection system coupled w/ automatic dry-pipe system.
216
Exterior signs that a building is protected by a sprinkler system are?
- presence of siamese connection - sight or sound of the water motor alarm gong - running water discharge from pipes coming through the wall of the building
217
Best way to determine whether or not a sprinkler system is present?
is by prefire inspection and preplanning
218
If the building is built with an automatic wet sprinkler system, many codes allow the exit travel distance to be?
doubled to 200 ft
219
at a sprinkler system, no fluctuation in pressure or if sprinklers are not operating chances are that?
the valve is closed
220
If you respond to a sprinkler system where water is dripping you have 3 options?
- force entry/locate cause - hold some or all units wait for owner - return all units to quarters
221
What is a better alternative where freezing weather makes the installation of wet standpipes impractical?
semiautomatic dry system
222
Sprinkler system which has a deluge-type valve connected to a set of manual pull boxes at each hose station
semiautomatic dry system
223
Which sprinkler system should be discouraged in favor of automatic wet systems?
Manual wet Systems
224
What are the sources of water supply?
- Gravity tank - direct connection to city main - pressure tanks
225
If a gravity tank is located 20 ft above 100ft tall building what will be the pressure at the first floor outlet?
50 psi * 4.34 or 5 psi per floor or 10 ft
226
Where 1½ in occupant hose is supplied what is the maximum pressure at the top floor outlet?
no more than 65 psi (100 psi after 1993)
227
Whenever a serious fire demands the use of a standpipe system, a good practice is to?
have supply lines stretched to pump into the first floor hose outlets of each riser
228
Class I standpipe systems are ?
those designed primarily for use by fired department personnel. * have 2½ in threads * no hose is provided
229
What is required for every 150 ft of height in many codes?
Riser control valve
230
Class II standpipe systems are designed for?
control of minor fires until FD arrives. *Usual design flow is only 100gpm
231
According to NFPA recommendations on class III standpipe system hose be placed?
Outside of the stairwell on the fire floor * so it doesn't hold door open
232
Systems that have more than ____psi at any hose outlet could be dangerous to the untrained user?
100 psi *some type of device required that will restrict pressure to 80 psi or 100psi after 1993 on 1½ in outlet
233
For structures built after 1993, NFPA 14 permits standpipe up to ?
175 psi at 2½ in outlet but still a minimum of 100psi. *expect 100psi
234
Has 2 sets of overlapping holes on a movable plate. Has an adjusting stem when turned the holes can be nonaligned (closed) to aligned (open)?
vane-type PRV (pressure reducing valve)
235
As a precaution, before connecting any fire department hose to a standpipe outlet you must?
probe inside the threads with a spanner wrench or other small tool, make sure no obstructions.
236
Operations in buildings with standpipes require?
1 - plan 2. Location of fire
237
High heat or fire entering the stair way at the fire floor could prevent a member from standing up to operate the outlet valve which is ?
At head height *for this reason hoseline should be connected on floor below the fire
238
Firefightera should never hook up to a standpipe that is?
On fire floor outside the stairwell in public hallway
239
According to NFPA 14 what is the required hose length in sprinklered buildings?
5 hose lengths
240
FDNY mandate the 1st hoseline off a standpipe be?
2 1/2 in with a solid tip
241
All nozzles used in standpipe operations should be of?
Breakapart designn with 1 1/2 in hose thread
242
What size pipe wrench should be brought to stand pipe operations?
14 or 18 in
243
If the fire is on the 7th floor or below?
Members should climb the stairs instead of taking the elevator
244
Fires in standpipe building are usually in Class I (fireproof) the threat of interior fire spread and danger to life is greatest in?
Immediate fire area
245
Good starting discharge pressure for standpipe syatem operations is?
100psi plus 5 psi per floor If fog nozzle 150 psi plus 5 psi per each floor above grade
246
Lovers U is ladder company operations, the acronym means?
Laddering Overhaul Ventilation Entry (forcible entry) Rescue and search Salvage Utilities
247
Consider several factors when planning that a member may be operating alone for even part of the time ?
1 - Experience level of member 2. availability of portable radio
248
Basic sequence of actions?
Size Up locate confine extinguish
249
In the actual plan in ladder company functions the 1st item to be decided is?
Number of people that will be part of the plan
250
Ladder company operations guide, now officially know as firefighting procedures is ?
Ladders 4 * in this plan ladder co. have 5 ff and 1 officer w/ apparatus
251
The single ff assigned to the roof assignment, should work?
at the front of building where he is observable and VEIS (Vent, Enter, Isolate, Search) the front 2nd floor
252
The highest hazard area regardless of time of day is
Bedroom
253
Rather than assigning duties to people assign them to?
Riding position
254
An interior team of a ladder company should always be assigned and equipped at a minimum with?
Halligan flathead pike pole light portable
255
Factors that affect the selection and placement of portable ladders?
- Reach - weight - nested or stored length - material of construction - # of personnel needed to place in operation
256
Off all the factors affecting ladder selection, whether for purchase or for use, the most important is its?
Length
257
NFPA requirement for ground ladders is?
168 ft
258
When selecting ladders for length, the first consideration should go to?
Extension Ladders *35 ft will replace a 28 & 24 35 ft nested is 20 ft
259
From floor to floor residential is ? commercial is?
residential = 9 ft Commercial = 12 ft
260
Average window sill is ?
3 ft from above the floor
261
Window Height is ?
4 ft
262
Proper Climbing angle is ?
70 degrees
263
At a 70 degree climbing angle, what percent of ladders total length is lost?
6% 94% is working length
264
To ensure the proper climbing angle check the climbing angle by?
standing on the last rung and reaching out for the rungs at chest height
265
the approximate location to place the butt of the ladder is a quick estimate using?
working height of ladder divided by 4
266
What will determine the proper location of the ladders tip?
the task which the ladder is being used for
267
What is the best position for the tip of the ladder to be placed to ventilate?
Even with the top of the window. Just off to the upwind side of the objective
268
By placing the tip just at or below the windowsill, this allows?
the entire width of the window is kept clear for firefighter
269
What is the average residential window size?
30 Inches * ff w/scba is 20 inches wide * Ladder 16 in wide
270
Most ladders in the fire service are made of?
Aluminum
271
What is the drawback of aluminum?
Electrical conductivity
272
Have beams of nonconducting fiberglass and rungs of aluminum?
Composite ladders
273
Fiberglass and aluminum drawback is?
lack of resistance to heat
274
According to NFPA 1932 Aluminum and fiberglass have a heat indicating label that?
changes color when exposed to dangerous temperatures (300℉) similar to bluing
275
What is the design load selected for most ladders?
750 lb
276
A large proportion of ladder failures occur during ?
Training *keep the best for frontline
277
Guidelines for safe use of ladders?
1. Proper length and type of ladder 2. proper angle 3. objective in mind 4. away from electrical lines 5. do not position ladders directly in front of egress/ingress or where likely to vent 6. Do not overload 7. Always 1 hand on ladder 8. ladder locks or ladder belt 9. don't overextend yourself (reposition if necessary) 10. Tie off at the base - *unattended secure at the tip 11. Check stability of the area your entering
278
Aerial devices shouldn't be viewed as?
be viewed as replacement for portable ladders
279
Consist of a basket attached to an aerial ladder?
Ladder Tower
280
A Platform attached to a boom with a built in waterway and sideless escape ladder?
Tower Ladder
281
At large structure fires a better situation is to have?
2 aerial devices
282
The most versatile master-stream on the fireground?
Tower Ladder *Unrestricted master stream use at any angle or extension
283
Aerial ladders being raised to the roof should be extended so that at least?
5 rungs project above the level of the roof. -an inch or two away from the building
284
When position an aerial make sure that the ladder is placed?
as square to the building as possible
285
When placing a platform to the roof, who can place it in the best location?
the member in the basket
286
if no parapet wall it is best to place the basket so it is?
just resting on the roof
287
With telescoping boom you must make certain that the basket?
is raised above the roof or parapet before retracing the boom
288
a primary function of all aerial devices is?
allow ff access to upper floors via exterior (Vent Enter Isolate Search VEIS)
289
For entry into upper floors which aerial device is the clearer choice?
Elevating Platform
290
When positing an elevating platform for rescue?
Spot the basket in line with the objective
291
For maximum scrub area the best position for aerial device is?
as close to the building as possible. *apparatus should not be positioned closer than the shortest nested length of the aerial device if it is to be used to the lower floors
292
The tip of most aerials are?
20-24 inches wide
293
defined as the amount of surface are that may be physically contacted by an aerial device?
Scrub area
294
When positioning an aerial ladder for rescue stop with?
the turntable in line w/ victim
295
More telescoping sections of boom for a given length means?
Each section is shorter
296
a 4 section 75 ft boom has greater scrub area than?
a 3 section 75ft boom a 3 section 85 ft boom on lower floors
297
Pulling in nose first would be the worst approach if you intend to reach the lower floors with?
midship-mounted device *especially with enclosed cabs will block the ladder or boom from descending to those levels
298
What is the best scrub area for positioning a midship-mounted device?
place apparatus just off parallel to objective, angled cab 15 - 20 degree away from fire building
299
Rear mounted devices best scrub are is obtained by?
backing into position
300
In the absence of any specific requirements with aerial devices?
Spot turntable just 15 ft past the edge of the building
301
2 main rules of safety with aerial devices?
- 10 ft away from overhead powerlines - never extend or retract while person is climbing on the ladder
302
Overhaul may be performed in 2 phases?
precontrol and postcontol
303
After vertical voids the most important areas to examine in overhaul is?
Horizontal voids * cocklofts
304
5 senses
1-Sight 2-Hearing 3-Touch 4-Smell (least used) 5-common sense
305
15 seconds 2 minute rule
if a ff can leave a bare hand for 15 - 20 seconds on a surface w/o discomfort no need to open up. (same ff should do same evaluation 2 min later)
306
If the knocked down fire was a localized one (caught before flashover) like a mattress or couch opening up can be?
immediate vicinity of the object
307
Where should mattress and couches be overhauled?
outdoors
308
When seeking out hidden fire just after a room is knocked down by the hose stream, the first opening should be made?
Near previously existing openings
309
3 rules when transporting items outdoor?
- Item should be wet thoroughly and all visible flame extinguished - Never allow removal of partially extinguished item via elevator - avoid throwing smoldering debris out windows into inaccessible or out of sight of members
310
If you suspect extreme damage to the ceiling construction?
first opening from doorway
311
Hydraulic overhauling is advantageous at ?
Vacant Buildings
312
Salvage begins at?
moment of arrival
313
When confronted w/ situation requiring forcible entry among the deciding factors?
Need for speed type of door lock assemblies tools and personnel degree of damage the entry will create
314
with regards to forcible entry whether to save a life or cut off fire, the overriding concern is?
need for speed
315
Rule #1 of forcible entry
Try before you pry
316
Rules 2-4 of forcible entry?
2 - Don't ignore the obvious 3 - use door occupants normally use 4. Maintain integrity of the door
317
A good place to check for heat is?
the doorknob * if it is hot time to begin attack
318
Pattern of bolt heads coming through a door indicate?
presence of a drop-in bar
319
Conventional forcible entry often called?
Brute force method
320
to breach Inward opening door?
Place the fork end of forcible-entry tool about 6 inches above or below the lock, d
321
When forcing an outward opening door use?
Adze end of halligan * if issue force hinge side
322
What is the simplest type of lock to force?
Rim Lock *mounted on edge of the door
323
Most efficient way to remove most locks cylinders is?
K-tool
324
If you find a square shaft instead of a flat shaft when you pull the cylinder during forcible entry, you have encountered?
a Police Lock
325
Which is the most difficult lock to force?
Mortise *recessed inside the door
326
The mortise lock the only way it is going to open is by working it at?
5 and 7 o'clock position. That is in reference to the keyway being at 6 o'clock
327
A stile is?
a frame of a door
328
What is the most common commercial door in the nation?
Narrow-stile aluminum and glass door with push bar and pivoting deadbolt
329
If you are faced with a Mul-T-Lock, the 1st step is?
Check to see if it is in fact locked
330
if of the 3 options (find a key, Find another way, force the door) with mul-t-lock doors the only option is to force it then?
use a circular saw w/ metal cutting blade *triangular cut lower half of door on the side between mul-t-lock and doorknob
331
Hydraulic forcible entry tool (HFT) work best on?
Solid Doors *works best on doors that open inward
332
Rolling store gates may be classified as ?
Manual, Mechanical, or electrical
333
Most common gates are?
Mechanical and manuel
334
Padlocks fall into 2 categories
Low and High Security
335
Fastest way to force multiple locks is ?
Power tools
336
Generally any lock above shoulder height are best cut with?
Torch
337
Whenever you encounter a recessed door the preferred method of cutting all doors you intend to enter?
three-cut method
338
drawback to the inverted V or teepee cut is ?
presence of small tabs (wind tabs)
339
What are narrow stile doors almost always equipped with?
Deadbolt *Type of mortise lock has a Bolt throw of 1¼ in or more engage the jamb
340
In a narrow stile door look for ?
the light bulb
341
Narrow stile aluminum and glass door can be forced by another method which is?
forcing the hinge using adze end
342
Fox lock can be forced by?
1. Attacking the lock (remove the rectangular shield) 2. Using tapered square shaft turn shaft to open(can take 2 turns) 3. turn towards the lower set of bolts
343
With HUD windows there are 2 prerequisites to be safe and successful?
1. Steady Platform to work on 2. prevent covering from falling uncontrollably *none should be done from a portable ladder - ground level - sturdy porch roof or setback - elevating platform
344
What tool is required when forcing HUD windows installed by Vacant Property Security, LLC?
Metal Cutting saw
345
Vacant property security weighs about
40 lbs
346
What is the simplest HUD window covering?
Plywood
347
What makes the VPS system HUD window coverings difficult to bring inside when forcing them from the interior?
original windows still intact
348
Which is NOT an acceptable location to remove HUD windows from the outside?
Portable ladders
349
What is the minimum depth that must be cut when removing the VPS system HUD window?
3 inches
350
What must be done to force an entry door with the VPS system in place that uses a skeleton key from the exterior? p. 225
Metal Cutting saw cut the hinges
351
VPS single-Entry doors will have 1 of 2 locking mechanisms?
Color coded push button (Triangle cut) skeleton key (cut at the hinges)
352
What is an excellent tool for cutting window bars for forcible entry?
rebar cutter *alternative angle grinder *exothermic torch (etreme challenges)
353
The best way into a locked building is?
The Key
354
For a preview of what you will face in the future visit?
Local Locksmith
355
What is the more efficient distance to stand back from the window when using a fog stream to perform mechanical ventilation?
6-8 feet from the window or door, adjust pattern to cover opening
356
which fog pattern is most effective during mechanical ventilation operations?
30°
357
What must be controlled to win the battle between fire and firefighter? p. 229 A.) Fuel B.) Chemical reaction C.) Oxygen D.) Time
C.) Oxygen
358
The universal use of the following has led some people to think that ventilation is less important today? p. 230 A.) SCBA B.) LDH C.) RIC teams D.) ICS
A.) SCBA
359
2 main reasons for performing ventilation?
Vent for fire (allow attack teams to enter) Vent for life (provide fresh air to occupants to breath and improve visibility while searching)
360
Where should ventilation take place when heat is blowing back on the hoseline crew during operations? p. 231 A.) Above the nozzle B.) Behind the nozzle C.) Opposite the nozzle D.) In line with the nozzle
C.) Opposite the nozzle as ling as windows are not facing into the wind
361
Heat build up results in?
Flashover
362
How much of the window opening does "textbook ventilation" of double hung windows create during ventilation? p. 231 A.) One-fourth B.) One-half C.) One-third D.) Two-thirds
B.) One-half
363
When venting for fire is normally delayed until?
Resources are in place to attack
364
What is the key factor when distinguishing between venting for life and venting for fire? p. 231 A.) Location of the ventilation B.) Intensity of the ventilation C.) Timing of the ventilation D.) Degree of the ventilation
C.) Timing of the ventilation
365
Gases flow from areas of high pressure towards areas of low pressure, therefore ff should avoid areas of?
Low pressure *avoid being caught in exhaust path
366
When forcing doors to other apartments as an area of refuge the most important part of this concept is?
area of refuge must be on the same side of the hall as the fire apartment to be on the high-pressure side
367
What should be your guide when deciding to break or open a window for ventilation from the inside? p. 234 A.) Heat B.) Flames C.) Smoke D.) Timing
A.) Heat
368
Generally, horizontal ventilation for life hazard should be ?
coupled w/ immediate rescue effort
369
Venting for fire should take place ?
after hoseline begins attack
370
What is always better than flame?
Heat and Steam
371
Where in the order of initial assignments should ventilation be? p. 237 A.) Third B.) First C.) Second D.) Fourth
A.) Third 1. placemtn of initial attack line 2. designation of interior search team
372
Which weather condition is particularly important to consider when deciding between horizontal and vertical ventilation? p. 238 A.) Humidity B.) Wind C.) Rain D.) Barometric pressure
B.) Wind
373
Best way to breach a glazing window is?
Circular saw w/ standard carbide tip *avoid striking the glazing at 90° *otherwise create opening through the wall
374
Factors that influence choice between vertical or horizontal ventilation?
size and location of fire construction of building available staffing effects of weather (esp. wind)
375
Peaked roof are usually much more easily vented by?
Smashing windows in the gable end, or dormers than cutting the roof
376
Serious fire in the Top floor or cockloft require?
Roof ventilation, if the fire is to be extinguished from the interior
377
Some air from outside being drawn into the building around the side of a fan is know as
Churning
378
How far outside of the structure should the PPV fan be set up during operations? p. 242 A.) 10-14 feet B.) 8-12 feet C.) 14-18 feet D.) 4-8 feet
B.) 8-12 feet
379
How many more times air can PPV fans move than NPV fans? p. 242 A.) Four times the volume B.) Three times the volume C.) Same volume D.) Twice the volume
D.) Twice the volume
380
Advantages of positive pressure ventilation (PPV) over negative pressure ventilation?
1st is efficiency
381
Best results with positive pressure ventilation is?
isolate the room * closing window or doors except in the room to be cleared
382
Prime candidates for PPV?
Mattress couches stuffed chairs extra smokey fires like those partially extinguished by sprinkler systems
383
With PPV fanning is a drawback, to prevent a smoldering fire from turning into a serious conflagration the best way is to?
have a charged hosline in place ready to operate
384
PPV should not be used at the same time?
VEIS is happening on the opposite side
385
What is the most common vertical artery in the multiple story building for vertical ventilation operations? p. 244 A.) Elevator shaft B.) Pipe chases C.) Staircase D.) Chimney
C.) Staircase
386
What can be used to determine the location of pipe chases in a structure? p. 246 A.) Dumbwaiter doors B.) Bulkhead doors on the roof C.) Turbines on the roof D.) Soil pipes on the roof
D.) Soil pipes on the roof
387
The 2nd most common vertical avenue is?
Pipe Chase
388
What must be done to make operating in a building with fire in the void spaces more doable? p. 247 A.) Master stream application B.) Opening the walls C.) Total ventilation D.) Vertical ventilation
C.) Total ventilation
389
Where are flat roofs normally found?
Large Buildings (stores, factories, schools, apartment buildings
390
2 types of old-style roofs?
Standard flat roof inverted flat roof
391
What was used to seal the old-style flat roof? p. 248 A.) Tar paper B.) Gravel C.) Tar D.) Cement
C.) Tar
392
A working fire on the top floor of any large flat roof requires?
at least 4 ff w/ 2 6-8 ft hook with 2 power saws
393
simplest, fastest type of examination hole with a power saw is?
Kerf cut *the other is Triangular opening 8-10 inches
394
What maximum size should each area be cut when making an 8X8 foot hole in the roof for ventilation? p. 251 A.) 2X2 foot B.) 8X8 foot C.) 4X4 foot D.) 6X6 foot
C.) 4X4 foot
395
Knockout holes should be placed?
on the corners
396
How are the rows of uprights typically spaced on the inverted roof? p. 254 A.) 4 ft on center B.) 8 ft on center C.) 2 ft on center D.) 6 ft on center
A.) 4 ft on center
397
Inverted vs truss indication?
- gusset plates or other truss connectors are visible - 2x4s join top plate at anything other than RIGHT ANGLE
398
What material is sandwiched in the center of the Insulpan panels? p. 256 A.) Styrofoam B.) Wood fibers C.) Gypsum board D.) Fiberglass
A.) Styrofoam
399
How must the fire be reached if it has entered the second cockloft when a rain roof is present? p. 256 A.) From sides B.) From above C.) From below D.) Cannot be reached
B.) From above *virtually impossible from below
400
Styrofoam Insulation problems are?
Highly flammable and thick have to be cut with chainsaw
401
A specialized cut used to create a firebreak along surface of the roof
Trench Cut * aka strip ventilation
402
More logical place to cut off an extending fire is in the ?
Throat
403
Trench cut key points:
-close enough to the fire to limit unnecessary extensions -far enough away to have time to make the cut, pull and pushing ceiling down (20-25ft) -make cut at narrowest point - inspection holes - 2 parallel cuts about 3 ft apart - 1 3/4 in hoseline a
404
Ventilation consideration:
- Never vent where you will create an exposure problem
405
Saw operators must perform the most important act whwn on the roof?
Stop saw from spinning whenever it is raised from a cut
406
The greatest danger from live saw is?
When visibilty is poor
407
When visibility is completely obscured saw operator should?
Completely stop all movement
408
Which is a quick search for live victims before the fire has been brought under control? p. 268 A.) Delayed B.) Primary C.) Concurrent D.) Secondary
B.) Primary
409
What is the first thing that is needed to search a premises to maximize the likelihood of finding victims? p. 268 A.) Have enough personnel B.) Have the right equipment C.) Have a plan D.) Have a flashlight
C.) Have a plan
410
What piece of equipment must every member performing a primary search possess? p. 269 A.) Good light B.) PASS C.) Pike pole D.) Radio
A.) Good light *good to carry 2 incase one dies
411
Which is often the first action taken upon entry into a fire building? p. 269 A.) Ventilation B.) Extinguishment C.) Primary search D.) Salvage
C.) Primary search
412
What color are warmer objects on the TIC's display? p. 270 A.) White B.) Orange C.) Gray D.) Red
A.) White *surrounding area is gray
413
Considering a purchase of a tic ?
1. Durability 2. Ease of use 3. Size & weight 4. Battery life
414
Which part of the SCBA assembly must you maintain a firm hold on with your left hand when performing the emergency escape maneuver? p. 274 A.) Waist strap B.) Left shoulder strap C.) SCBA cylinder D.) Mask assembly
B.) Left shoulder strap
415
What are the 2 emergency maneuver that sound be taught to all members performing interior operations?
Reduce profile Emergency escape
416
Where is it best to begin the primary search whenever possible? p. 275 A.) Open areas B.) Common rooms C.) Remote from the fire area D.) Close to the fire area
D.) Close to the fire area
417
In which location were a larger percentage of fire victims located per NFPA data? p. 276 A.) Bathroom B.) Bedroom C.) Living room D.) Kitchen
B.) Bedroom 36% 35% teying to escape
418
Fires above the fire search should begin?
Search as soon as you enter the floor and when toward fire
419
What are occupants above the fire floor threatened by? p. 276 A.) Collapse B.) Gases C.) Flashover D.) Flames
B.) Gases
420
At what type of incident do firefighters most frequently get the chance to preplan a location? p. 278 A.) Cooking related calls B.) Trapped animal calls C.) Water/gas leaks D.) Medical assistance
D.) Medical assistance
421
Secondary search must include?
- Perimeter of the building Any rooftops or setbacks ppl may have jumped too - areas beneath windows - shrubbery
422
What size team is generally needed to perform an adequate secondary search for each floor in a residence? p. 280 A.) Four B.) Eight C.) Six D.) Two
D.) Two
423
Beginning with which floor below the fire floor will forcible entry not be needed during the secondary search if no other signs are seen? p. 280
Generally 2 or more floors below the fire
424
In areas of large open space or extremely heavy smoke that can not be readily dispelled, you should use in order to search?
Guide rope (tag line)
425
Where should the guide rope be secured during the primary search? p. 281 A.) Movable object within the room B.) Substantial object on the outside C.) Belt loop of the anchor member D.) Doorknob of the search room
B.) Substantial object on the outside
426
What can be placed in the entranceway during a primary search to help members find their way back? p. 281 A.) Floodlight B.) Sound speaker C.) Metronome D.) Strobe light
A.) Floodlight
427
What minimum size rope can be used as a tagline? p. 281 A.) 5/8-inch B.) 3/8-inch C.) 1/4-inch D.) 1/2-inch
C.) 1/4-inch
428
Who is responsible for making sure that the rope remains secured?
Anchor
429
Norman's 3 rules of survival?
- Never put yourself in a position where you are dependent of some one to come save you - know your escape route - know your second escape route
430
What should be done first when the firefighter needs to perform the emergency escape maneuver? p. 288 A.) Unbuckle a waist strap B.) Secure the mask C.) Remove the left strap D.) Transmit a Mayday
D.) Transmit a Mayday
431
What is the first thing you should do if you are cut off by extending fire? p. 289 A.) Seek another escape route B.) Make a Mayday radio transmission C.) Find an area of refuge D.) Activate your PASS
C.) Find an area of refuge
432
When conducting a headfirst bailout onto a ladder where should one arm be inserted? p. 289 A.) Between second and third rung B.) Between second and fourth rung C.) Between first and second rung D.) Between first and third rung
D.) Between first and third rung
433
What is the maximum width you should allow your hands to spread when using an escape rope with an emergency body wrap? p. 295 A.) Nipple B.) Eye C.) Naval D.) Shoulder
D.) Shoulder
434
What is the simplest method of recording the locations where units are operating? p. 297 A.) Tagging system B.) Electronic tracker C.) Command chart D.) Check-in board
C.) Command chart
435
What is the most important piece of the puzzle when identifying a missing firefighter? p. 298 A.) Entry log B.) Tags C.) Portable radio D.) PASS device
C.) Portable radio
436
A Mayday should be sounded when a member is unaccounted for more than what amount of time? p. 301 A.) 90 seconds B.) 60 seconds C.) 45 seconds D.) 30 seconds
B.) 60 seconds *disorientation or entrapment 30 seconds
437
What is a key task of the FAST truck in the FDNY? p. 304-305 A.) Set up and assign the staging area B.) Delegate personnel for the firefight C.) Assist with forcible entry D.) Monitor radio communications
D.) Monitor radio communications
438
For what purpose do some departments use the RIT if the incident escalates? p. 305 A.) Staged team B.) Attack team C.) Backup team D.) RIT
B.) Attack team
439
How far apart must the radios be placed when using feedback-assisted rescue to locate a trapped firefighter? p. 308 A.) 4-5 inches B.) 3-4 inches C.) 2-3 inches D.) 1-2 inches
D.) 1-2 inches *produce feedback upto a half mile
440
What is the maximum number of searchers that should be used during the team search? p. 310 A.) Five B.) Seven C.) Four D.) Six
C.) Four * 1 anchor and 1 leader(carries TIC) a min of 2 searchers 4 max *always even numbers *anchor carries main search rope
441
What should be the maximum submergence time allowed during a team search when a 30-minute SCBA is being used? p. 310 A.) 10 minutes B.) 20 minutes C.) 15 minutes D.) 25 minutes
B.) 20 minutes * 10 min to get in and 10 min to get out
442
How many people from the RIT should remain where the search rope has been tied to a substantial object when conducting a team search? p. 310 A.) One B.) Four C.) Two D.) Three
A.) One * the control person
443
At what distance are knots typically tied in the search rope? p. 311 A.) 100 feet B.) 50 feet C.) 75 feet D.) 25 feet
D.) 25 feet w/ a knot 6-8 giving the direction *at 50ft 2 knots 3in apart *after 100 ft or 4 knots start over (1 knot at 125ft)
444
2 types of system or patterns of search?
Fan search T search
445
How far behind the anchor should the searchers clip their tag lines when performing a fan search? p. 312 A.) 35 feet B.) 55 feet C.) 45 feet D.) 25 feet
D.) 25 feet
446
Of the two team search patterns which is fastest?
T search
447
What is the minimum length the tag line should be during a T-pattern search? p. 313 A.) Half the narrowest dimension of the space to be searched B.) The narrowest dimension of the space to be searched C.) Twice the narrowest dimension of the space to be searched D.) Three times the narrowest dimension of the space to be searched
A.) Half the narrowest dimension of the space to be searched
448
Whwn deploying the search rope either for team search or as a guide you should?
Secure the end outside structure or Inside the stairwell for upper floors
449
Where should the search rope for team search be secured when deployed on an upper floor? p. 314 A.) Outside the structure B.) On the searched floor C.) Inside the stairwell D.) At the apparatus
C.) Inside the stairwell
450
What must be done at each change in direction when using a search rope? p. 315 A.) Tie it off to a substantial object B.) Post a firefighter C.) Begin a new section D.) Tie a knot in the rope
A.) Tie it off to a substantial object
451
What is the first thing that should be done when a report is received that a firefighter down on the incident scene? p. 315 A.) Collect an RIT-pak and bag-valve mask resuscitator B.) Call for and ALS ambulance C.) Bring a protective hoseline D.) Call for additional firefighters
B.) Call for and ALS ambulance *2nd - call add. personnel 3rd - a hoseline, spare mask or rit-pak, bag valve mask
452
At what minimum distance should the staging area be established when a Mayday has been sounded and rescue operations are underway? p. 317 A.) Two blocks B.) Three blocks C.) One block D.) Four blocks
C.) One block
453
Which should NOT be brought during a trapped firefighter rescue operation? p. 318 A.) SCBA cylinders B.) RIT-paks C.) SCBA assemblies D.) SCBA masks
A.) SCBA cylinders
454
What is the first step taken when converting a SCBA into a harness? p. 319 A.) Unbuckle the waist belt of the SCBA B.) Tighten the looped waist belt C.) Loosen the shoulder straps D.) Bring the waist belt between the legs
A.) Unbuckle the waist belt of the SCBA
455
Generally what should be the first action taken once rescuing firefighters arrive at an unconscious firefighter? p. 319 A.) Assess injuries B.) Assess level of consciousness C.) Assess SCBA air supply D.) Assess breathing status
D.) Assess breathing status
456
If in a narrow space one of the fastest simplest, and least injurious is to to remove a ff?
tie handcuff knot at the arms or legs as conditions require
457
In most firefighter removals, moving an unconscious firefighter up a stairway the first step is ?
convert scba into a harness
458
What orientation will the victim be pulled up the staircase when a backboard is used in the process? p. 323 A.) Feet first B.) Left side C.) Right side D.) Head first
A.) Feet first
459
What part of the rope will be passed to rescuers inside when using a handcuff knot to secure the unconscious firefighter during a rescue using a ladder and rope as a high-point anchor? p. 326 A.) Middle B.) Terminating end C.) Feed D.) Working end
A.) Middle
460
What is often the fastest way to reach a firefighter who has fallen through a roof or floor? p. 327 A.) Lower floor stairway B.) Through the opening C.) Window on the floor D.) Front entrance
B.) Through the opening
461
What is the minimum number of rescuers that should be use to hoist a firefighter out of a hole in the floor or roof? p. 328 A.) Seven B.) Six C.) Five D.) Four
D.) Four
462
Where should the rope be attached to the victim when removing a firefighter who has fallen through a roof or floor? p. 328-329 A.) Chest or waist B.) Wrists or ankles C.) Knees or hips D.) Shoulders or neck
B.) Wrists or ankles
463
For safety reasons, which must be included in every firefighter's pre-entry size-up of the building? p. 287 A.) Exposures B.) Windows C.) Landscaping D.) Doorways
B.) Windows
464
When conducting a headfirst bailout onto a ladder where should one arm be inserted? p. 289 A.) Between second and third rung B.) Between second and fourth rung C.) Between first and second rung D.) Between first and third rung
D.) Between first and third rung
465
What is the most common use for the reduced-profile maneuver? p. 288 A.) Breeching an interior wall to escape flames B.) Crawling below an elevated building C.) Move through the small spaces of a bathroom D.) Get through space between a building and the fire escape
D.) Get through space between a building and the fire escape
466
What is the most common form of forcible exit? p. 290 A.) Forcing a door B.) Opening the roof C.) Breaking a window D.) Breeching a wall
C.) Breaking a window
467
At what height is it best to force your tool when breaching a wood lath and plaster wall if possible? p. 290 A.) 5 feet B.) 2 feet C.) 3 feet D.) 4 feet
C.) 3 feet
468
If you will be sliding down the ladder headfirst during an emergency exit, what part of the ladder should be grasped? p. 290 A.) Halyard in the center B.) Pawls on both sides C.) Rungs in the center D.) Beams on both sides
D.) Beams on both sides
469
What is the easiest way to know who is operating on the scene in a career department? p. 296 A.) Roll call B.) Tagging system C.) Riding list D.) Check-ins
C.) Riding list
470
In which situation would a PAR not be needed? p. 300 A.) Flashover B.) Attack mode change C.) Search conclusion D.) PASS activation
C.) Search conclusion
471
Which is the most important element of the RIT? p. 303 A.) Technique B.) People C.) Policies D.) Tools
B.) People
472
What activates the PASS on the SCBA integrated system? p. 308 A.) Cylinder is turned on B.) Facemask is donned C.) Regulator is activated D.) Manual activation
A.) Cylinder is turned on
473
What is the minimum size team that should be assembled when performing a team search? p. 310 A.) Four B.) Six C.) Three D.) Five
B.) Six
474
Who should carry the RIT mask for the victim during a team search? p. 311 A.) Control person B.) Team leader C.) Rope manager D.) Anchor
B.) Team leader
475
Which is of utmost importance when a Mayday is received to assist in the rescue? p. 317 A.) Operating units must continue to fight the fire B.) All other operations must stop to allow for a search C.) Pull as many units to assist as possible D.) Minimum resources should be used to search
A.) Operating units must continue to fight the fire
476
How should the identity of units assigned to a the task of victim removal be announced? p. 317 A.) During the PAR B.) Over walkie-talkie C.) Via word of mouth D.) At a briefing meeting
B.) Over walkie-talkie
477
When should basic life support be started when rescuing a trapped firefighter? p. 318 A.) As soon as they are located B.) Once out of immediate danger C.) After on the ambulance D.) Once outside of the building
B.) Once out of immediate danger
478
What should extra care be taken to protect when one person is moving a victim down the stairway? p. 322 A.) Victim's head and neck B.) Rescuer's knees C.) Victim's chest and head D.) Rescuer's back
A.) Victim's head and neck
479
What can the victim's SCBA (except the mask) be attached to if it must be removed while hauling the firefighter through a hole in the floor or roof for extrication? p. 328 A.) Turnout pants B.) Bunker coat C.) Boots D.) Chest harness
B.) Bunker coat
480
What can be used to create a 2:1 mechanical advantage system when hoisting a firefighter through a hole in the floor or roof? p. 329 A.) Extra-large Carabiner B.) Two long lengths of rope C.) Attic ladder and rope D.) Roof ladder
A.) Extra-large Carabiner
481
Of the various types of construction method which is the most dangerous?
Lightweight
482
The danger of truss exits only?
under fire conditions
483
At ice rescue in order to enter water if victim is unable to assist and rescue members want to avoid break victims support mantel or being pushed or pulled down members must?
Make a wide circular side or rear approach whwn entering water.
484
1st tactical objectives at ice rescue?
Provide for responder safety
485
At a Radiological incident members operating in hot or warm zone must be equipped with?
Dosimeter *Level B or PPE w/SCBA @ a minimum
486
During a fire a braced-framed building will often collapse?
Inward/outward
487
Attache is defined as?
Any non-uniformed employee of the department
488
A major disadvantage of the newer style of high rise include?
lightweight building material curtain wall construction larger and more wide open floor spaces, hung ceilings throughout, and core construction techniques
489
One of the greatest dangers in many garden appartments complexes is?
Common crawl space
490
Probably the worst possible type of stairway to use to reach a below-grade fire?
spiral staircase
491
A focus statement that communicate respect flexibility, collaboration, and areas of agreement? pg 134
Validate, not invalidating