questions Flashcards

1
Q

pathophysiology of short sightedness

A

increased axial length of the eye meaning the focal point is anterior to the retina

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2
Q

pathophysiology of astigmatism

A

refractive error which hinders refraction

abnormal curvature of the cornea > resulting in 2 or more focal points which can be anterior or posterior to the retina

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3
Q

retinoblastoma

A

malignant tumour of the retina

caused by mutation on Rb-1 (tumour suppressor gene)

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4
Q

presentation of retinoblastoma

A

leukocoria (white pupil)
deteriorating vision
strabismus (squint)
absent red reflex

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5
Q

episcleritis presentation

A
typically not painful but can be mildly painful 
segmental redness
foreign body sensation
dilated episcleral vessels 
watering of eye 
no discharge
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6
Q

management of episcleritis

A

lubricating of the eye can help with symptoms

simple analgesia, cold compresses

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7
Q

scleritis presentation

A
severe pain 
pain with eye movement 
photophobia 
eye watering 
reduced visual acuity 
abnormal pupil reaction to light 
tenderness to palpation
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8
Q

iritis presentation

A

acute onset pain in eye
photophobia
worsened visual acuity
redness typically circumcorneal

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9
Q

keratitis presentation

A

acute onset pain
redness circumcorneal
worsened visual acuity
with fluorescein staining see uptake of fluorescein under cobalt blue light

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10
Q

blepharitis presentation

A
crusting of both eyelids 
worse first thing in the morning 
redness 
swelling 
itch
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11
Q

lesions on the optic tract cause

A

homonymous hemianopia on the contralateral visual field

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12
Q

squamous papilloma

A

most common benign tumour of the eyelid

typically papillary shape with keratinised surface

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13
Q

seborrhoeic keratosis

A

well demarcated warty plaques

can be removed using cryotherapy, curettage or laser ablation

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14
Q

naevus

A

well demarcated, pigmented lesion may be raised

does not require treatment

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15
Q

molloscum contagiosum

A

small, waxy nodules caused by infection with molloscum virus
no treatment

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16
Q

dacryocystitis

A

cystic lesion caused by blockage of the nasolacrimal gland

topical or oral antibiotics

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17
Q

most common cause of central retinal artery occlusion

A

atherosclerosis

also GCA

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18
Q

presentation of CRAO

A

sudden painless vision loss
relative afferent pupillary defect
pale retina with a cherry red spot

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19
Q

management of CRAO

A

refer to ophthalmologist
ocular massage
lower the intraocular pressure

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20
Q

transient CRAO also known as

A

amaurosis fugax

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21
Q

presentation of transient CRAO

A

transient painless visual loss
like a curtain coming down
lasts 5 mins with full recovery

22
Q

management of transient CRAO

A

refer to stroke clinic

patient may have AFib

23
Q

CRVO associated with

A

virchow’s triad

24
Q

pathophysiology of CRVO

A

blood clot forms in the retinal veins and blocks the drainage of blood from the retina

25
Q

presentation of CRVO

A
sudden vision loss 
retinal haemorrhages
disc swelling and macular swelling 
flame and blot hamorrhage 
dilated tortuous veins
26
Q

ischaemic optic neuropathy pathophysiology

A

posterior ciliary arteries become occluded, resulting in infarction of the optic nerve head

27
Q

conditions which may cause optic neuropathy

A

GCA

28
Q

presentations of ischaemic optic neuropathy

A

sudden vision loss
usually painless
swollen optic nerve
often have headaches, scalp tenderness, enlarged temporal arteries

29
Q

vitreous haemorrhage

A

bleeding occurs from abnormal vessels (retinal ischaemia in diabetes) or retinal vein occlusion causes abnormal, fragile vessels to form

30
Q

presentation of vitreous haemorrhage

A

loss of vision
floaters
loss of red reflex
may see haemorrhage on fundoscopy

31
Q

retinal detachment

A

retina separates from the choroid underneath

usually due to retinal tear that allows vitreous fluid to get under the retina and fill the space between

32
Q

risk factors for retinal detachement

A
posterior vitreous detachment
diabetic retinopathy
trauma to the eye 
retinal malignancy 
older age
family history
33
Q

presentation of retinal detachement

A

painless
peripheral vision loss- often sudden
blurred or distorted vision
flashers and floaters

34
Q

management of retinal detachement

A

any suspicion of retinal detachment immediate referral to ophthamologist
laser therapy
cryotherapy

35
Q

wet ARMD

A

new blood vessels grow under retina- leakage causes build up of fluid/blood and then scarring
- key chemical VEGF

36
Q

presentation of wet ARMD

A
rapid central visual loss 
distortion 
straight lines appear wavy
haemorrhage/exudate
neovascularisation
37
Q

management of wet ARMD

A

VEGF inhibitor- ranibizumab

laser coagulation- second line

38
Q

closed angle glaucoma

A

occurs when iris bulges forward and seals off the trabecular meshwork
> aqueous humour cant drain
> continual build up of pressure
> particularly in posterior chamber

39
Q

presentation of closed angle glaucoma

A
appear generally well
severely painful red eye 
blurred vision 
halos around light 
associated headache, nausea and vomiting
40
Q

examination of closed angle glaucoma

A
red eye 
teary 
hazy cornea 
decreased visual acuity 
dilation of affected pupil 
fixed pupil size 
firm eyeball
41
Q

cataract

A

lens becomes cloudy and opaque

reduces visual acuitu by reducing the light that enters the eye

42
Q

types of cataract

A

nuclear

posterior subcapsular

43
Q

presentation of cataract

A
asymmetrical symptoms
progressive blurring of vision 
change of colour of vision- yellow/brown 
starbursts 
loss of red reflex
44
Q

reduced visual acuity with starbursts around lights

A

cataract

45
Q

peripheral vision loss with halos around lights

A

glaucoma

46
Q

central vision loss with crooked or wavy appearance of straight lines

A

wet ARMD

47
Q

management of cataract

A

surgery

48
Q

dry ARMD presentation

A

gradual decline in vision
central vision missing
drusen- build up of waste products
atrophic patch of retina

49
Q

open angle glaucoma presentation

A

often none
cupped disc
visual field defects
may or may not have high IOP

50
Q

cranial nerve 2 exam includes?

A

visual acuit
pupil exam
visual field assessment
colour vision

51
Q

acanthamoeba ulcer

A

central infective ulcer

52
Q

diagnostic test of vestibular schwannoma

A

MRI