Questions Flashcards
In an anemic dog, a reticulocyte count of 5% is
a) high
b) low
c) normal
d) a sign of bone marrow depression
A) Low
In testing for Equine infectious Anemia, the sample should be put in a:
a) green top
b) purple top
c) red top
d) gray top
C) Red Top
EIA = Coggins
Serum separator
Horse blood is red = red top
A disease found primarily in sheep and goats, also known as ORF is:
a) hoof and mouth
b) blue tongue
c) scrapie
d) contagious ecthyma
D) Contagious ecthyma
ORF = Zoonotic Virus
An animal with Haemonchus would exhibit
a) profuse diarrhea
b) pale mucous membranes
c) respiratory difficulty
d) hunched posture
A) Profuse diarrhea
Haem = Blood
Onchus = Stomach worm
Ascaris suum found in the pig, is a
a) hookworm
b) whipworm
c) tapeworm
d) roundworm
D) Roundworm
As(s) for round
Strongylus vulgaris causes
a) inflammatory arteritis leading possibly to abdominal crisis
b) blocked pancreatic duct
c) diarrhea
d) anemia
C) Diarrhea
Common horse nematode (roundworm) parasite
ne-ma-t”O”de
The way to determine if lead aprons and gloves are still functioning correctly is
a) manual examination
b) radiographic imaging
c) visual examination
d) water test
B) Radiographic imaging
The best way to maintain a lead apron is to
a) wipe it with a damp cloth
b) store in a dark closet
c) fold neatly in a drawer
d) hang it up straight on a hanger
D) Hang it up straight on hanger
Radiographic screens should be cleaned with
a) a lint-free cloth
b) paper towels
c) tissues
d) Betadine
A) Lint free cloth
In order to maintain the same radiographic density, if you halve the time on an exposure, you must
a) increase kVp by 10%
b) double the mA
c) halve the mA
d) reduce kVp by half
B) double the mA
Density = degree of blackness (kVp)
mA = greyness
If you wish to take an AP view of a dog’s left shoulder, you position the dog
a) sternally, with left front leg extending
b) left laterally
c) dorsally, with left front leg retracted
d) right lateral recumbancy
A) sternally, with left front leg extending
If the technician positions herself twice as far from the x-ray machine as usual, she has reduced her exposure to _____ of usual.
a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 1/8
d) 1/16
B) 1/4
Inverse sq law
Blood is left sitting in a red top tube for one hour before RBCs are separated. What value might be artificially low?
a) SGPT
b) glucose
c) SGOT
d) ammonia
B) Glucose
RBC will eat up glucose
All the following can be reversed by naloxone except
a) meperidine
b) oxymorphone
c) xylazine
d) morphine
C) Xylazine
Naloxone = morphine reversal
Yohimbine = Xylazine reversal
Meperidine is Demoral = morphine
Metronidazole (Flagl®) is used to treat
a) roundworms
b) tapeworms
c) coccidia
d) giardia
D) Giardia
A drug used to treat coccidiosis is
a) penicillin
b) methicillin
c) tetracycline
d) sulfadiazine
D) Sulfadiazine
The best way to restrain a 4.5kg (10 lb.) pig is
a) put a bucket over its head and grab it by the tail
b) hold it upside down by its two hind legs
c) pig snare
d) nose twitch
B) hold it upside down by its two hind legs
An owner says that his horse is chewing on its stall while sucking air. This is called
a) cribbing
b) wind-sucking
c) crooning
d) cantering
A) Cribbing
A mare has a foal at her right side. The best way to approach is
a) directly in front
b) from the front and slightly to the near side
c) from the front and slightly to the far side
d) from behind
B) from the front and slightly to the near side
Near side = Left
Far side = Right
A possible side effect of xylazine is
a) hyperventilation
b) bradycardia
c) hypoventilation
d) muscle rigidity
B) Bradycardia
Sedative
Muscle relaxation
Analgesia
Alpha2 - agonist
The fastest way to refill a shrinking rebreather bag is
a) close the pop-off valve
b) increase the fresh gas flow
c) press the O2 flush button
d) shut off the vaporizer
C) Press the O2 flush button
But not when attached to the patient
The purpose of filling the rebreather bag with O2 and providing one positive pressure ventilation in the middle of surgery (the “sigh”) is to
a) reduce excess pressure in the system
b) encourage O2 perfusion of the tissues
c) reinflate collapsed alveoli
d) encourage hypostatic pulmonary congestion
B) encourage O2 perfusion of the tissues
An endotracheal tube placed in a main bronchus
a) produces easier respiration
b) allows more fresh gas to circulate
c) reduces damage to the trachea
d) can reduce patient vitality by at least 50%
d) can reduce patient vitality by at least 50%
Increased difficulty in inhalation or exhalation by an anesthetized patient may be caused by
a) using an uncuffed endotracheal tube
b) using a Murphy endotracheal tube
c) using a cuffed endotracheal tube
d) using an endotracheal tube of too small an internal diameter
D) using an endotracheal tube of too small an internal diameter
Hypoventilation under anesthesia can cause
a) metabolic acidosis
b) metabolic alkalosis
c) respiratory acidosis
d) respiratory alkalosis
C) respiratory acidosis
A major risk of surgery on rodents and rabbits is
a) ineffectiveness of antibiotics for infection
b) hyperthermia and acidosis
c) hypothermia
d) alkalosis
C) Hypothermia
What drug would not be found in the crash cart?
a) epinephrine
b) furosemide
c) gentamycin
d) dexamethasone
C) Gentamycin
Dexamethasone is a steriod which helps dilates vessels. It’s an anti-inflammatory
In explaining the effect of entropion to a client, it is useful to know the anatomy of the
a) mouth and lips
b) eyelids
c) ear pinna
d) nose
B) Eyelids
Under anesthesia, an animal with darkly pigmented gums can be monitored at the
a) ear pinna
b) conjunctiva
c) webbing between the toes
d) sclera
B) Conjunctiva
Excessive watering of the eyes might be a result of
a) glaucoma
b) retinosis
c) ectropion
d) retinal detachment
C) Ectropion
Tearing or perforation of the rectum in a mare could be caused by
a) passage of the foal through the uterus and vagina
b) diabetes insipidus
c) Cushing’s disease
d) hypoglycemia
A) passage of the foal through the uterus and vagina
A client presents a cat for euthanasia. You should
a) have them sign the euthanasia form
b) ask if they are certain they want anesthesia
c) put a toe-tag identification on
d) give them a appointment for the next day
A) have them sign the euthanasia form
Involuntary regurgitation is a major risk in anesthetized
a) horses
b) cows
c) dogs
d) cats
A) Horses
A statement that is true about autoclaving:
a) it will dull scalpel blades
b) it is safe for scalpel blades
c) it is safe for suture material
d) it works by using dry heat
A) it will dull scalpel blades
The gas used in gas sterilization is
a) ethylene oxide
b) nitrogen
c) carbon dioxide
d) oxygen
A) Ethylene oxide
Which is an appropriate surgical scrub?
a) phenol
b) chlorine
c) povodine iodine
d) ethyl alcohol
C) povodine iodine
The total elimination if viable life forms is called
a) antisepsis
b) disinfection
c) sterilization
d) germicide
C) Sterilization
The minimum requirements for sterilization of surgical equipment
a) 15 psi/100˚F/30 min.
b) 20 psi/150˚F/20 min.
c) 10 psi/100˚F/30 min.
d) 15 psi/121˚C/15-20 min.
D) 15 psi/121˚C/15-20 min.
Types of dissolvable sutures include
a) nylon
b) silk
c) stainless steel
d) catgut and polyglycolic acid
D) catgut and polyglycolic acid
The position for radiographing a dog for possible hip dysplasia
a) in the frog position
b) on the sternum with hind legs rotated laterally
c) on back with hind legs rotated laterally
d) on back with hind legs rotated medially
D) on back with hind legs rotated medially
Liver cells store energy in the form of
a) protein
b) glycogen
c) fat
d) glucose
B) Glycogen
Glycogen = carbohydrate = energy
Hepatitis is caused by a
a) fungus
b) virus
c) bacteria
d) protozoan
B) Virus
Anthrax, brucellosis, and tuberculosis are communicated to humans by
a) horses
b) cattle
c) pigs
d) dogs
B) Cattle
This can pass from animal to human:
a) Pasteurella multocida
b) streptococcus agalactia
c) streptococcus equi
d) Campylobacter jejeuni
D) Campylobacter jejeuni
Food poisioning
Salmonella is found in
a) birds
b) farm animals
c) reptiles
d) all of the above
D) All of the above
A sign to toxemia is
a) anisocytosis
b) Howell-Jolly bodies
c) fragments of reticulocytes
d) cytoplasmic basophilic of neutrophils
D) cytoplasmic basophilic of neutrophils
Howell-Jolly bodies occur in RBC. Remnants of nucleus within the RBC occuring during maturation.
After the death of a pet
a) the body should be tagged and bagged
b) the client should be allowed time to accept the reality of the death
c) the client should immediately adopt another pet
d) a bill should be prepared
B) the client should be allowed time to accept the reality of the death
A true statement about organophosphates
a) they are non-toxic to humans and animals
b) they are used for deworming
c) they are reversed by yohimbine
d) they should be used regularly in the cleaning of kennels
B) they are used for deworming
used as pesticides, insecticide
An inexpensive way to monitor vital signs during surgery
a) EOG
b) pulse oximeter
c) esophageal stethoscope
d) palpation
C) Esophageal stethoscope
As an anesthetist, the technician’s most important tools are
a) EOG
b) pulse oximeter
c) Doppler
d) Her/his own senses of sight, hearing, and touch
D) Her/his own senses of sight, hearing, and touch
Organs of the small intestine in order:
a) cecum, duodenum, jejunum
b) duodenum, ileum, cecum
c) duodenum, jejunum, ileum
d) duodenum, ileum, jejunum
c) duodenum, jejunum, ileum
The best site to take a bone marrow sample
a) crest of ileum
b) humerus
c) tibia
d) distal radius
A) Crest of ileum
You give 825 mL of a 10% (dextrose) solution. How many g of (dextrose) are in that dose?
a) .825g
b) 8.25g
c) 82.5g
d) 825g
C) 82.5g
one zero to the left
You must give 150mL of fluids over 8 hours. The drip chamber size is 60 drops/mL. Your drip rate is:
a) 13 drops/min
b) 19 drops/min
c) 48 drops/min
d) 240 drops/min
B) 19 gtt/min
A drug to treat respiratory acidosis is:
a) epinephrine
b) atropine
c) sodium bicarbonate
d) naloxone
C) Sodium bicarbonate
it is an antacid
A drug given sublingually to stimulate respiration in newborns is:
a) naloxone
b) yohimbine
c) doxapram
d) oxymorphone
B) Doxapram
An orchiectomy is:
a) removal of one or both testes
b) removal of ovaries
c) removal of dewclaw
d) removal of uterus
a) removal of one or both testes
Mannitol salt agar and eosin-methylene blue agar are example of.
a) nutritive media
b) enriched media
c) selective media
d) simple media
c) selective media
Bacterial cultures should be incubated at:
a) 68˚ F
b) 72˚ F
c) 98.6˚ F
d) 105˚ F
C) 98.6 F
The area without growth surrounding the antibiotic disc in a sensitivity test is called:
a) the blank
b) negative
c) zone inhibition
d) area of sensitivity
c) zone inhibition
An anesthetic that can cause irregular heartbeat by (interacting) with the myocardium is:
a) methoxyflurane
b) halothane
c) Isoflurane
d) nitrous oxide
B) Halothane
Which is not a preanesthetic?
a) atropine
b) Acepromazine
c) butorphanol
d) thiopental
C) Butorphanol
synthetic opiod
induction
sedative
analgesia
aka. torbugesic
Which dog would have prolonged recovery from anesthesia with pentobarbital?
a) Golden Retriever
b) German Shepherd
c) Bulldog
d) Greyhound
D) Greyhounds
Which drug has an action similar to atropine?
a) butorphanol
b) acepromazine
c) ketamine
d) glycopyrrolate
D) glycopyrrolate
The best way to keep a horse from chewing at leg bandages is a
a) hobble
b) neck cradle
c) Elizabethan collar
d) cribbing strap
B) Neck cradle
The main source of nutrients in carnivores and many omnivores
a) proteins and fats
b) water and vitamins
c) carbohydrates and vitamins
d) minerals and water
A) Protein and fat
How many grams of dextrose are used to make 1L of 5% dextrose?
a) 0.05g
b) 0.5g
c) 50g
d) 500g
C) 50
5/100 x 1000ml
Which parasite sheds packets of eggs in host feces?
a) Trichuris
b) Dipylidium
c) Ancylostoma
d) Taenia
B) Diplidium
tapeworm = progloddis
Ancylostoma = “ankle” hooks to the ankle (feet)
Taenia = in rodents and rabbits
What is the intermediate host of Taenia pisiformis?
a) flea
b) tick
c) rabbit
d) snail
C) Rabbit
The instrument used to break up a gingival plaque bridge is a
a) sound
b) elevator
c) dental forceps
d) sickle
C) Dental forcep
The tooth most often removed from a horse at the owner’s request is
a) canine
b) P1
c) incisors
d) M4
B) P1
aka wolf tooth
You should inform the client that a possible side effect of prednisone is
a) polyuria
b) anorexia
c) pruritis
d) alopecia
A) Polyuria
The instruction S.I.G. means
a) once a day
b) every 4 hours
c) the directions to be printed on the label for the client
d) as needed
c) the directions to be printed on the label for the client
A good analgesic for cats is
a) butorphanol
b) acetaminophen
c) fentanyl/droperidol
d) oxymorphone
A) butorphanol
Which is the smallest suture size?
a) 2 - 0
b) 3 - 0
c) 5 – 0
d) 10 – 0
d) 10 – 0
What is the most (humane? effective?) way to euthanize a mouse?
a) ether
b) chloroform
c) carbon monoxide
d) carbon dioxide
d) carbon dioxide
Which is the surgical forceps with small, fine teeth that cause the least tissue trauma?
a) Carmalt
b) Kelly
c) Crile
d) Allis
D) Allis
A cat is showing signs of post surgical pain. Which drug should be administered?
a) Butorphanol
b) Phenylbutazone
c) acetaminophen
d) ibuprofen
a) Butorphanol
Which species does not get Sarcoptes sp. of mange?
a) dog
b) cat
c) sheep
d) pig
B) Cats
The CAMP test is used to differentiate between.
a) Staph. sp
b) Strept. sp
c) Mycosporum
d) Actinobacter
B) Strept. sp
Where does bloat occur in the cow?
a) lung
b) intestine
c) reticulum
d) rumen
D) Rumen
aka left paralumbar fossa
To prepare a 10% solution of epinephrine, you would dilute:
a) 1 part solute to 9 parts diluent
b) 9 part solute to 1 part diluent
c) 1 part solute to 10 parts diluent
d) 10 parts solute to 1 part diluent
a) 1 part solute to 9 parts diluent
Methylene blue is:
a) a supravital stain
b) used for differentials, reticulocyte counts
c) red blood cell counts
d) platelets and differentials
a) a supravital stain
A dog presents toxic red blood cells from lead poisoning. The red blood cells shows:
a) Howell-Jolly bodies
b) basophilic stippling
c) Dohle bodies
d) none of the above
B) basophilic stippling
Too much EDTA added to a blood sample causes:
a) hemolysis
b) crenation
c) no change
d) rouleaux formation
B) Crenation
The calcaneous is located in the:
a) stifle
b) hock
c) spinal column
d) pelvis
B) Hock
A sheep presents with pustules on the skin. The sheep has?
a) contagious ecthymia
b) tuberculosis
c) mange
d) acne
a) contagious ecthymia
A 16-week-old horse presents with swollen joints, weakness and fever. The horse most likely has:
a) Potomac Horse Fever
b) lack of colostrum
c) Equine encephalitis
d) rabies
b) lack of colostrum
You were previously on a farm call with a veterinarian where a cow was treated for parturient paresis. The doctor has taken himself off call for the evening. The farmer calls you to say that the cow is down again. You would:
a) go to the farm and evaluate the cow
b) go to the farm and treat the cow
c) refer the farmer to the doctor on call
d) tell the farmer that the doctor will be there in the morning
c) refer the farmer to the doctor on call
Aminoglycocides can cause damage to the:
a) heart
b) lungs
c) liver
d) kidneys
D) Kidney
Administration of IV fluids has what effect:
a) expands venal pressure and increases blood flow
b) increases platelet count
c) replaces red blood cells
d) increases white blood cells
A) expands venal pressure and increases blood flow
A dog has started to vomit while under anesthesia. You would:
a) place the dog in lateral recumbency
b) raise the head above the shoulder
c) lower the head below the shoulder
d) place the dog in dorsal recumbency
c) lower the head below the shoulder
- What views would you use to radiograph the shoulder of a horse?
a) PA & AP
b) DV & VD
c) PA & oblique
d) LM & ML
C) PA & oblique
- Using air to expand the bladder (pneumocystogram) is a type of _____medium.
a) negative contrast
b) positive contrast
c) non-ionic contrast
d) ionic contrast
A) Negative
The largest section of a ruminants stomach is:
a) reticulum
b) rumen
c) abomasum
d) omassum
B) Rumen
reticulum = hardware
abomasum = true stomach
omassum = grinds food
What instrument you use to stop the bleeding from small veins during surgery?
a) mosquito forceps
b) Kelly forceps
c) Allis forceps
d) Blackhaus forceps
a) mosquito forceps
What dog type must have special care taken when removing an endotracheal tube?
a) brachycephalics
b) dolichocephalics
c) mesocephalics
d) none of the above
a) brachycephalics
What causes systemic mycoses?
a) Blastomycosis
b) Mycoplasma
c) Candida albicans
d) Dermatophytosis
A) Blastomycosis
Mycoses = fungal infection
Candida = Yeast infection
Mycolasma = bacteria
Blood from the posterior vena cava empties into the:
a) R A
b) L A
c) R V
d) L V
A) R A
When dehorning a calf, what nerve should be given a local?
a) facial
b) corneum
c) ocular
d) mandibular
b) corneum
What effect does lincomycin have on a horse?
a) vomiting
b) increased salvation
c) diarrhea
d) all of the above
C) Diarrhea
Which of the following is an “acid fast” bacteria?
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Strept. sp.
c) Staph. sp
d) Actinomyces sp.
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
The CMT is used to detect:
a) acidosis
b) lead poisoning
c) subclinical signs of mastitis
d) naval ill
c) subclinical signs of mastitis
The PVC is used to indicate hydration and
a) total solids
b) specific gravity
c) liver function
d) pH
A) Total solids
Which is the reversible anesthetic used on sight hounds?
a) nalaxone
b) telazol
c) rompum
d) oxymorphone
c) rompum
aka xylazine
Atropine causes:
a) decreased salivation, decreased gastric motility
b) increased salivation, increased gastric motility
c) decreased salivation, increased gastric motility
d) increased salivation, decreased gastric motility
a) decreased salivation, decreased gastric motility
To detect Dermatophytes, which device is used?
a) Schiotz tonometer
b) Wood’s lamp
c) fluorescein dye
d) none of the above
b) Wood’s lamp
