Questions Flashcards
In an anemic dog, a reticulocyte count of 5% is
a) high
b) low
c) normal
d) a sign of bone marrow depression
A) Low
In testing for Equine infectious Anemia, the sample should be put in a:
a) green top
b) purple top
c) red top
d) gray top
C) Red Top
EIA = Coggins
Serum separator
Horse blood is red = red top
A disease found primarily in sheep and goats, also known as ORF is:
a) hoof and mouth
b) blue tongue
c) scrapie
d) contagious ecthyma
D) Contagious ecthyma
ORF = Zoonotic Virus
An animal with Haemonchus would exhibit
a) profuse diarrhea
b) pale mucous membranes
c) respiratory difficulty
d) hunched posture
A) Profuse diarrhea
Haem = Blood
Onchus = Stomach worm
Ascaris suum found in the pig, is a
a) hookworm
b) whipworm
c) tapeworm
d) roundworm
D) Roundworm
As(s) for round
Strongylus vulgaris causes
a) inflammatory arteritis leading possibly to abdominal crisis
b) blocked pancreatic duct
c) diarrhea
d) anemia
C) Diarrhea
Common horse nematode (roundworm) parasite
ne-ma-t”O”de
The way to determine if lead aprons and gloves are still functioning correctly is
a) manual examination
b) radiographic imaging
c) visual examination
d) water test
B) Radiographic imaging
The best way to maintain a lead apron is to
a) wipe it with a damp cloth
b) store in a dark closet
c) fold neatly in a drawer
d) hang it up straight on a hanger
D) Hang it up straight on hanger
Radiographic screens should be cleaned with
a) a lint-free cloth
b) paper towels
c) tissues
d) Betadine
A) Lint free cloth
In order to maintain the same radiographic density, if you halve the time on an exposure, you must
a) increase kVp by 10%
b) double the mA
c) halve the mA
d) reduce kVp by half
B) double the mA
Density = degree of blackness (kVp)
mA = greyness
If you wish to take an AP view of a dog’s left shoulder, you position the dog
a) sternally, with left front leg extending
b) left laterally
c) dorsally, with left front leg retracted
d) right lateral recumbancy
A) sternally, with left front leg extending
If the technician positions herself twice as far from the x-ray machine as usual, she has reduced her exposure to _____ of usual.
a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 1/8
d) 1/16
B) 1/4
Inverse sq law
Blood is left sitting in a red top tube for one hour before RBCs are separated. What value might be artificially low?
a) SGPT
b) glucose
c) SGOT
d) ammonia
B) Glucose
RBC will eat up glucose
All the following can be reversed by naloxone except
a) meperidine
b) oxymorphone
c) xylazine
d) morphine
C) Xylazine
Naloxone = morphine reversal
Yohimbine = Xylazine reversal
Meperidine is Demoral = morphine
Metronidazole (Flagl®) is used to treat
a) roundworms
b) tapeworms
c) coccidia
d) giardia
D) Giardia
A drug used to treat coccidiosis is
a) penicillin
b) methicillin
c) tetracycline
d) sulfadiazine
D) Sulfadiazine
The best way to restrain a 4.5kg (10 lb.) pig is
a) put a bucket over its head and grab it by the tail
b) hold it upside down by its two hind legs
c) pig snare
d) nose twitch
B) hold it upside down by its two hind legs
An owner says that his horse is chewing on its stall while sucking air. This is called
a) cribbing
b) wind-sucking
c) crooning
d) cantering
A) Cribbing
A mare has a foal at her right side. The best way to approach is
a) directly in front
b) from the front and slightly to the near side
c) from the front and slightly to the far side
d) from behind
B) from the front and slightly to the near side
Near side = Left
Far side = Right
A possible side effect of xylazine is
a) hyperventilation
b) bradycardia
c) hypoventilation
d) muscle rigidity
B) Bradycardia
Sedative
Muscle relaxation
Analgesia
Alpha2 - agonist
The fastest way to refill a shrinking rebreather bag is
a) close the pop-off valve
b) increase the fresh gas flow
c) press the O2 flush button
d) shut off the vaporizer
C) Press the O2 flush button
But not when attached to the patient
The purpose of filling the rebreather bag with O2 and providing one positive pressure ventilation in the middle of surgery (the “sigh”) is to
a) reduce excess pressure in the system
b) encourage O2 perfusion of the tissues
c) reinflate collapsed alveoli
d) encourage hypostatic pulmonary congestion
B) encourage O2 perfusion of the tissues
An endotracheal tube placed in a main bronchus
a) produces easier respiration
b) allows more fresh gas to circulate
c) reduces damage to the trachea
d) can reduce patient vitality by at least 50%
d) can reduce patient vitality by at least 50%
Increased difficulty in inhalation or exhalation by an anesthetized patient may be caused by
a) using an uncuffed endotracheal tube
b) using a Murphy endotracheal tube
c) using a cuffed endotracheal tube
d) using an endotracheal tube of too small an internal diameter
D) using an endotracheal tube of too small an internal diameter
Hypoventilation under anesthesia can cause
a) metabolic acidosis
b) metabolic alkalosis
c) respiratory acidosis
d) respiratory alkalosis
C) respiratory acidosis
A major risk of surgery on rodents and rabbits is
a) ineffectiveness of antibiotics for infection
b) hyperthermia and acidosis
c) hypothermia
d) alkalosis
C) Hypothermia
What drug would not be found in the crash cart?
a) epinephrine
b) furosemide
c) gentamycin
d) dexamethasone
C) Gentamycin
Dexamethasone is a steriod which helps dilates vessels. It’s an anti-inflammatory
In explaining the effect of entropion to a client, it is useful to know the anatomy of the
a) mouth and lips
b) eyelids
c) ear pinna
d) nose
B) Eyelids
Under anesthesia, an animal with darkly pigmented gums can be monitored at the
a) ear pinna
b) conjunctiva
c) webbing between the toes
d) sclera
B) Conjunctiva
Excessive watering of the eyes might be a result of
a) glaucoma
b) retinosis
c) ectropion
d) retinal detachment
C) Ectropion
Tearing or perforation of the rectum in a mare could be caused by
a) passage of the foal through the uterus and vagina
b) diabetes insipidus
c) Cushing’s disease
d) hypoglycemia
A) passage of the foal through the uterus and vagina
A client presents a cat for euthanasia. You should
a) have them sign the euthanasia form
b) ask if they are certain they want anesthesia
c) put a toe-tag identification on
d) give them a appointment for the next day
A) have them sign the euthanasia form
Involuntary regurgitation is a major risk in anesthetized
a) horses
b) cows
c) dogs
d) cats
A) Horses
A statement that is true about autoclaving:
a) it will dull scalpel blades
b) it is safe for scalpel blades
c) it is safe for suture material
d) it works by using dry heat
A) it will dull scalpel blades
The gas used in gas sterilization is
a) ethylene oxide
b) nitrogen
c) carbon dioxide
d) oxygen
A) Ethylene oxide
Which is an appropriate surgical scrub?
a) phenol
b) chlorine
c) povodine iodine
d) ethyl alcohol
C) povodine iodine
The total elimination if viable life forms is called
a) antisepsis
b) disinfection
c) sterilization
d) germicide
C) Sterilization
The minimum requirements for sterilization of surgical equipment
a) 15 psi/100˚F/30 min.
b) 20 psi/150˚F/20 min.
c) 10 psi/100˚F/30 min.
d) 15 psi/121˚C/15-20 min.
D) 15 psi/121˚C/15-20 min.
Types of dissolvable sutures include
a) nylon
b) silk
c) stainless steel
d) catgut and polyglycolic acid
D) catgut and polyglycolic acid
The position for radiographing a dog for possible hip dysplasia
a) in the frog position
b) on the sternum with hind legs rotated laterally
c) on back with hind legs rotated laterally
d) on back with hind legs rotated medially
D) on back with hind legs rotated medially
Liver cells store energy in the form of
a) protein
b) glycogen
c) fat
d) glucose
B) Glycogen
Glycogen = carbohydrate = energy
Hepatitis is caused by a
a) fungus
b) virus
c) bacteria
d) protozoan
B) Virus
Anthrax, brucellosis, and tuberculosis are communicated to humans by
a) horses
b) cattle
c) pigs
d) dogs
B) Cattle
This can pass from animal to human:
a) Pasteurella multocida
b) streptococcus agalactia
c) streptococcus equi
d) Campylobacter jejeuni
D) Campylobacter jejeuni
Food poisioning
Salmonella is found in
a) birds
b) farm animals
c) reptiles
d) all of the above
D) All of the above
A sign to toxemia is
a) anisocytosis
b) Howell-Jolly bodies
c) fragments of reticulocytes
d) cytoplasmic basophilic of neutrophils
D) cytoplasmic basophilic of neutrophils
Howell-Jolly bodies occur in RBC. Remnants of nucleus within the RBC occuring during maturation.
After the death of a pet
a) the body should be tagged and bagged
b) the client should be allowed time to accept the reality of the death
c) the client should immediately adopt another pet
d) a bill should be prepared
B) the client should be allowed time to accept the reality of the death
A true statement about organophosphates
a) they are non-toxic to humans and animals
b) they are used for deworming
c) they are reversed by yohimbine
d) they should be used regularly in the cleaning of kennels
B) they are used for deworming
used as pesticides, insecticide
An inexpensive way to monitor vital signs during surgery
a) EOG
b) pulse oximeter
c) esophageal stethoscope
d) palpation
C) Esophageal stethoscope
As an anesthetist, the technician’s most important tools are
a) EOG
b) pulse oximeter
c) Doppler
d) Her/his own senses of sight, hearing, and touch
D) Her/his own senses of sight, hearing, and touch
Organs of the small intestine in order:
a) cecum, duodenum, jejunum
b) duodenum, ileum, cecum
c) duodenum, jejunum, ileum
d) duodenum, ileum, jejunum
c) duodenum, jejunum, ileum
The best site to take a bone marrow sample
a) crest of ileum
b) humerus
c) tibia
d) distal radius
A) Crest of ileum
You give 825 mL of a 10% (dextrose) solution. How many g of (dextrose) are in that dose?
a) .825g
b) 8.25g
c) 82.5g
d) 825g
C) 82.5g
one zero to the left
You must give 150mL of fluids over 8 hours. The drip chamber size is 60 drops/mL. Your drip rate is:
a) 13 drops/min
b) 19 drops/min
c) 48 drops/min
d) 240 drops/min
B) 19 gtt/min
A drug to treat respiratory acidosis is:
a) epinephrine
b) atropine
c) sodium bicarbonate
d) naloxone
C) Sodium bicarbonate
it is an antacid
A drug given sublingually to stimulate respiration in newborns is:
a) naloxone
b) yohimbine
c) doxapram
d) oxymorphone
B) Doxapram
An orchiectomy is:
a) removal of one or both testes
b) removal of ovaries
c) removal of dewclaw
d) removal of uterus
a) removal of one or both testes
Mannitol salt agar and eosin-methylene blue agar are example of.
a) nutritive media
b) enriched media
c) selective media
d) simple media
c) selective media
Bacterial cultures should be incubated at:
a) 68˚ F
b) 72˚ F
c) 98.6˚ F
d) 105˚ F
C) 98.6 F
The area without growth surrounding the antibiotic disc in a sensitivity test is called:
a) the blank
b) negative
c) zone inhibition
d) area of sensitivity
c) zone inhibition
An anesthetic that can cause irregular heartbeat by (interacting) with the myocardium is:
a) methoxyflurane
b) halothane
c) Isoflurane
d) nitrous oxide
B) Halothane
Which is not a preanesthetic?
a) atropine
b) Acepromazine
c) butorphanol
d) thiopental
C) Butorphanol
synthetic opiod
induction
sedative
analgesia
aka. torbugesic
Which dog would have prolonged recovery from anesthesia with pentobarbital?
a) Golden Retriever
b) German Shepherd
c) Bulldog
d) Greyhound
D) Greyhounds
Which drug has an action similar to atropine?
a) butorphanol
b) acepromazine
c) ketamine
d) glycopyrrolate
D) glycopyrrolate
The best way to keep a horse from chewing at leg bandages is a
a) hobble
b) neck cradle
c) Elizabethan collar
d) cribbing strap
B) Neck cradle
The main source of nutrients in carnivores and many omnivores
a) proteins and fats
b) water and vitamins
c) carbohydrates and vitamins
d) minerals and water
A) Protein and fat
How many grams of dextrose are used to make 1L of 5% dextrose?
a) 0.05g
b) 0.5g
c) 50g
d) 500g
C) 50
5/100 x 1000ml
Which parasite sheds packets of eggs in host feces?
a) Trichuris
b) Dipylidium
c) Ancylostoma
d) Taenia
B) Diplidium
tapeworm = progloddis
Ancylostoma = “ankle” hooks to the ankle (feet)
Taenia = in rodents and rabbits
What is the intermediate host of Taenia pisiformis?
a) flea
b) tick
c) rabbit
d) snail
C) Rabbit
The instrument used to break up a gingival plaque bridge is a
a) sound
b) elevator
c) dental forceps
d) sickle
C) Dental forcep
The tooth most often removed from a horse at the owner’s request is
a) canine
b) P1
c) incisors
d) M4
B) P1
aka wolf tooth
You should inform the client that a possible side effect of prednisone is
a) polyuria
b) anorexia
c) pruritis
d) alopecia
A) Polyuria
The instruction S.I.G. means
a) once a day
b) every 4 hours
c) the directions to be printed on the label for the client
d) as needed
c) the directions to be printed on the label for the client
A good analgesic for cats is
a) butorphanol
b) acetaminophen
c) fentanyl/droperidol
d) oxymorphone
A) butorphanol
Which is the smallest suture size?
a) 2 - 0
b) 3 - 0
c) 5 – 0
d) 10 – 0
d) 10 – 0
What is the most (humane? effective?) way to euthanize a mouse?
a) ether
b) chloroform
c) carbon monoxide
d) carbon dioxide
d) carbon dioxide
Which is the surgical forceps with small, fine teeth that cause the least tissue trauma?
a) Carmalt
b) Kelly
c) Crile
d) Allis
D) Allis
A cat is showing signs of post surgical pain. Which drug should be administered?
a) Butorphanol
b) Phenylbutazone
c) acetaminophen
d) ibuprofen
a) Butorphanol
Which species does not get Sarcoptes sp. of mange?
a) dog
b) cat
c) sheep
d) pig
B) Cats
The CAMP test is used to differentiate between.
a) Staph. sp
b) Strept. sp
c) Mycosporum
d) Actinobacter
B) Strept. sp
Where does bloat occur in the cow?
a) lung
b) intestine
c) reticulum
d) rumen
D) Rumen
aka left paralumbar fossa
To prepare a 10% solution of epinephrine, you would dilute:
a) 1 part solute to 9 parts diluent
b) 9 part solute to 1 part diluent
c) 1 part solute to 10 parts diluent
d) 10 parts solute to 1 part diluent
a) 1 part solute to 9 parts diluent
Methylene blue is:
a) a supravital stain
b) used for differentials, reticulocyte counts
c) red blood cell counts
d) platelets and differentials
a) a supravital stain
A dog presents toxic red blood cells from lead poisoning. The red blood cells shows:
a) Howell-Jolly bodies
b) basophilic stippling
c) Dohle bodies
d) none of the above
B) basophilic stippling
Too much EDTA added to a blood sample causes:
a) hemolysis
b) crenation
c) no change
d) rouleaux formation
B) Crenation
The calcaneous is located in the:
a) stifle
b) hock
c) spinal column
d) pelvis
B) Hock
A sheep presents with pustules on the skin. The sheep has?
a) contagious ecthymia
b) tuberculosis
c) mange
d) acne
a) contagious ecthymia
A 16-week-old horse presents with swollen joints, weakness and fever. The horse most likely has:
a) Potomac Horse Fever
b) lack of colostrum
c) Equine encephalitis
d) rabies
b) lack of colostrum
You were previously on a farm call with a veterinarian where a cow was treated for parturient paresis. The doctor has taken himself off call for the evening. The farmer calls you to say that the cow is down again. You would:
a) go to the farm and evaluate the cow
b) go to the farm and treat the cow
c) refer the farmer to the doctor on call
d) tell the farmer that the doctor will be there in the morning
c) refer the farmer to the doctor on call
Aminoglycocides can cause damage to the:
a) heart
b) lungs
c) liver
d) kidneys
D) Kidney
Administration of IV fluids has what effect:
a) expands venal pressure and increases blood flow
b) increases platelet count
c) replaces red blood cells
d) increases white blood cells
A) expands venal pressure and increases blood flow
A dog has started to vomit while under anesthesia. You would:
a) place the dog in lateral recumbency
b) raise the head above the shoulder
c) lower the head below the shoulder
d) place the dog in dorsal recumbency
c) lower the head below the shoulder
- What views would you use to radiograph the shoulder of a horse?
a) PA & AP
b) DV & VD
c) PA & oblique
d) LM & ML
C) PA & oblique
- Using air to expand the bladder (pneumocystogram) is a type of _____medium.
a) negative contrast
b) positive contrast
c) non-ionic contrast
d) ionic contrast
A) Negative
The largest section of a ruminants stomach is:
a) reticulum
b) rumen
c) abomasum
d) omassum
B) Rumen
reticulum = hardware
abomasum = true stomach
omassum = grinds food
What instrument you use to stop the bleeding from small veins during surgery?
a) mosquito forceps
b) Kelly forceps
c) Allis forceps
d) Blackhaus forceps
a) mosquito forceps
What dog type must have special care taken when removing an endotracheal tube?
a) brachycephalics
b) dolichocephalics
c) mesocephalics
d) none of the above
a) brachycephalics
What causes systemic mycoses?
a) Blastomycosis
b) Mycoplasma
c) Candida albicans
d) Dermatophytosis
A) Blastomycosis
Mycoses = fungal infection
Candida = Yeast infection
Mycolasma = bacteria
Blood from the posterior vena cava empties into the:
a) R A
b) L A
c) R V
d) L V
A) R A
When dehorning a calf, what nerve should be given a local?
a) facial
b) corneum
c) ocular
d) mandibular
b) corneum
What effect does lincomycin have on a horse?
a) vomiting
b) increased salvation
c) diarrhea
d) all of the above
C) Diarrhea
Which of the following is an “acid fast” bacteria?
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Strept. sp.
c) Staph. sp
d) Actinomyces sp.
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
The CMT is used to detect:
a) acidosis
b) lead poisoning
c) subclinical signs of mastitis
d) naval ill
c) subclinical signs of mastitis
The PVC is used to indicate hydration and
a) total solids
b) specific gravity
c) liver function
d) pH
A) Total solids
Which is the reversible anesthetic used on sight hounds?
a) nalaxone
b) telazol
c) rompum
d) oxymorphone
c) rompum
aka xylazine
Atropine causes:
a) decreased salivation, decreased gastric motility
b) increased salivation, increased gastric motility
c) decreased salivation, increased gastric motility
d) increased salivation, decreased gastric motility
a) decreased salivation, decreased gastric motility
To detect Dermatophytes, which device is used?
a) Schiotz tonometer
b) Wood’s lamp
c) fluorescein dye
d) none of the above
b) Wood’s lamp
What is the unit of measurement used to detect the amount of radiation to which a technician is exposed?
a) RAD
b) AMP
c) REM
d) KVP
C) REM
An example of an absorbable suture material is:
a) prolene
b) ethicon
c) vetafil
d) chromic gut
d) chromic gut
Yellow discharge from the nose is described as:
a) purulent
b) serous
c) fibrinous
d) catarrhal
a) purulent
A cow in a stanchion and blood needs to be taken. Besides the jugular, where is the next favorable site?
a) facial vein
b) lateral saphenous
c) lateral cephalic
d) coccygeal
d) coccygeal
If 1 ml = 60 drops and 500ml needs to be administered per hour, what should the drip rate be?
a) 8 drops/second
b) 80 drops/minute
c) 4 drops/second
d) 40 drops/minute
A) 8gtt/sec
When administering CPR to a 34 lb. dog, how many compressions per minute?
a) 20 - 40
b) 40 - 60
c) 60 - 80
d) 80 - 120
D) 80-120
A test used to determine kidney function is:
a) bile acids
b) creatnine
c) LDH
d) ALT
B) Creatnine
Bile acid = liver (gallbladder)
LDH (Lactate dehydrogenase) = tissue damage
ALT (alanine aminotransferas) = liver damage
Why should a Guinea pig be moved and rotated every 20 to 30 minutes after surgery?
a) to prevent hyperthermia
b) to prevent pressure sores
c) to prevent kidney failure
d) to prevent hypostatic pulmonary congestion
d) to prevent hypostatic pulmonary congestion
A castrated sheep is called.
a) barrow
b) wether
c) ram
d) stallion
b) wether
barrow = castrated pig
Ram = intact male sheep
A barrow is a:
a) castrated pig
b) castrated sheep
c) surgical instrument
d) castrated horse
a) castrated pig
Starch is broken down by which enzyme?
a) lipase
b) renin
c) amylase
d) pepsin
c) amylase
What is the expected exhalation time on an animal in surgery when the inhalation time is 4 seconds?
a) 2 seconds
b) 3 seconds
c) 4 seconds
d) 6 seconds
d) 6 seconds
Exhalation is slightly longer than inhalation
Leptospirosis is a:
a) bacteria
b) virus
c) fungus
d) protozoa
A) bacteria
Leptospirosis is transmitted by:
a) saliva
b) urine
c) feces
d) blood
B) Urine
Which laboratory animal needs Vitamin C in their diet?
a) rat
b) rabbit
c) Guinea pig
d) gerbil
C) Guinea pig
hypocalcemia = scurvys
Radiographic density is adjusted by changing the setting of:
a) mAs
b) kvp
c) time
d) all of the above
D) All of the above
A comminuted fracture is:
a) a greenstick fracture
b) bone shattered into many pieces
c) a compound fracture
d) a linear fracture
b) bone shattered into many pieces
Compound fracture = open fracture
Greenstick fracture = incomplete fracture
A dog has ingested rat poison. What antidote should be administered?
a) Vitamin E
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin A
d) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin K
What is usually the primary cause of mastitis?
a) antibiotics
b) viruses
c) poor nutrition
d) unsanitary milking equipment
d) unsanitary milking equipment
Which feline leukocyte is not normally present in a blood sample?
a) band neutrophil
b) eosinophil
c) metamyelocyte
d) lymphocyte
c) metamyelocyte
While intubating an animal, the technician must keep in mind that the trachea lies ______ to the esophagus.
a) ventral
b) dorsal
c) medial
d) lateral
a) ventral
The internal thoracic cavity is completely covered by:
a) peritoneum
b) pericardium
c) pleura
d) mucosa
C) Pleura
A dog goes into cardiac arrest during an examination. The first rule of CPR is:
a) establish a patent airway
b) start cardiac compression
c) start IV fluids
d) take an ECG
a) establish a patent airway
The specific gravity on a urine sample tests very high. This may indicate:
a) diabetes insipidus
b) dehydration
c) kidney failure
d) kidney disease
B) dehydration
Intussusception is:
a) a result of heartworm disease
b) pancreatitis
c) telescoping of the intestine
d) heart failure
c) telescoping of the intestine
Acute septic inflammation would be indicated in a differential showing an increase in:
a) neutrophils
b) macrophages
c) basophils
d) eosinophils
B) Macrophages
The most important component found in interstitial tissue fluid is:
a) potassium
b) iron
c) calcium
d) sodium
C) Sodium
Which animal would be in the most danger if regurgitation took place while under anesthesia?
a) equine
b) ovine
c) bovine
d) canine
A) Equine
Which of the following should be applied after reconstruction surgery for coxofemoral luxation?
a) Robert-Jordan bandage
b) Ehmer-sling
c) Valpeau sling
d) Schroeder-Thomas splint
B) Ehmer sling
The amount of 10% Formalin used when sending a tissue sample is _____ the sample size.
a) 4 times
b) 10 times
c) 20 times
d) 100 times
B) 10 times
The largest diameter of suture material listed below is:
a) 0
b) 1.0
c) 2.0
d) 3.0
A) 0
Which is the smallest gauge needle?
a) 25
b) 20
c) 18
d) 14
A) 25
dog is showing signs of aggression as you walk into the examination room to assist the doctor. Petting the dog on the shoulders would be interpreted as:
a) a friendly gesture
b) a sign of attack
c) a sign of submission
d) none of the above
B) Sign of attack
What condition in the horse causes lameness due to the degeneration of the frog with a secondary bacterial infection resulting from the horse standing for long periods of time in a wet environment without regular foot care?
a) laminitis
b) navicular disease
c) thrush
d) quittor
C) Thrush
A cat that is “blocked” usually has a diet that is too high in:
a) taurine
b) sodium
c) potassium
d) magnesium
D) Magnesium
The amino acid taurine must be present in the _____ diet?
a) canine
b) feline
c) equine
d) avian
B) Feline
A drug that has good analgesic properties is:
a) atropine
b) ketamine
c) butorphanol
d) phenbarbital
C) Butorphanol
Where do you find the scent glands in a male goat?
a) in the inguinal region
b) in the axillary region
c) around the horns, especially rostrally
d) around the anus
c) around the horns, especially rostrally
Where do you find the cruciate ligaments?
a) under the scapula
b) in the patella
c) between the femur and the tibia
d) around the tarsus
c) between the femur and the tibia
What class of drugs is used to synchronize estrus in cattle?
a) prostaglandins
b) estrogens
c) androgens
d) adrenocorticosteroids
a) prostaglandins
What temperature should the developer be at in manual processing?
a) 68 degrees F for 5 minutes
b) 70 degrees F for 4 minutes
c) 72 degrees F for 5 minutes
d) 74 degrees F for 4 minutes
a) 68 degrees F for 5 minutes
What is the intermediate host for Yersina pestis (bubonic plague)?
a) lice of cats
b) tapeworms of fox
c) hookworms of dogs
d) fleas of rodents
d) fleas of rodents
What “refractile” elements might you see in urine?
a) hyaline casts
b) granular casts
c) red blood cells
d) white blood cells
a) hyaline casts
How long can you keep Methohexital once it is open?
a) 2 weeks
b) 1 day
c) 1 month
d) indefinitely
C) 1 month
How do you intubate a horse?
a) blindly
b) palpate the larynx
c) visualization
d) use a laryngoscope
a) blindly
What anesthetic would you use on a full-grown Holstein for a field delivery?
a) general anesthesia-ketamine/valium
b) general anesthesia-xylazine
c) 2% lidocaine nerve block in para lumbar fossa
d) 2% lidocaine nerve block in the caudal epidural space
d) 2% lidocaine nerve block in the caudal epidural space
When you have a horse in lateral recumbency, what do you do with the underneath leg?
a) pull it forward
b) pull it backward
c) fold it
d) tie it to the other front leg
a) pull it forward
What should you tell an owner to expect if a dog is taking furosemide?
a) polyuria/polydipsia
b) polyphagia
c) hypocalcemia
d) anuria
a) polyuria/polydipsia
Under what conditions might furosemide be prescribed?
a) cardiac disease
b) seizure disorder
c) arthritis
d) atelectasis
a) cardiac disease
What is the appropriate peak airway pressure for assisted ventilation of a small animal?
a) 5-10 cm. H2O
b) 15-20 cm. H2O
c) 20-25 cm. H2O
d) 25-305 cm. H2O
b) 15-20 cm. H2O
The veterinarian asks you to reverse an opioid. What do you give?
a) Naloxone
b) Yohimbine
c) Atropine
d) Diazepam
a) Naloxone
Which drug must be recorded as a scheduled drug?
a) Xylazine
b) Phenobarbital
c) Isoflurane
d) Diprivan
b) Phenobarbital
Diprivan = propofol
Which tranquilizer will make a dog vomit?
a) acepromazine
b) atropine
c) valium
d) apomorphine
d) apomorphine
What species is affected by Oestrus ovis?
a) horse
b) cattle
c) sheep
d) pig
C) Sheep
Which species gets “bumblefoot”?
a) horse
b) cow
c) sheep
d) avian
D) Avian
What is the clinical manifestation of Rhabdomyelitis?
a) facial paresis
b) radical paresis
c) azoturia
d) myoglobinuria
d) myoglobinuria
Why would you give an older animal water before surgery?
a) they may have cardiac problems
b) to avoid respiratory problems
c) to avoid liver problems
d) they may have chronic nephritis
d) they may have chronic nephritis
Which is a list of absorbable sutures?
a) PDS, vicryl, chromic gut
b) nylon, chromic gut, dexon
c) silk, PDS, vicryl
d) nylon, silk, cotton
a) PDS, vicryl, chromic gut
What do you call the metacarpal/metatarsal-phalangeal joint or a horse?
a) pastern
b) fetlock
c) hock
d) stifle
B) Fetlock
Which is the safest inhalant to be administered by a pregnant tech?
a) methoxyflurane
b) halothane
c) isoflurane
d) nitrous
C) Isoflurane
- Which breed is most likely to experience dystocia?
a) Boston terrier
b) Greyhound
c) Brittany spaniel
d) Golden retriever
a) Boston terrier
Which breed is at anesthetic risk because of an over long soft palate?
a) Chihuahua
b) Greyhound
c) Bulldog
d) Bouvier des Flandres
C) Bulldog
Which will interact with live tissue?
a) gamma particles
b) alpha rays
c) beta rays
d) X-rays
D) X ray
What is most seriously affected by X-rays?
a) bone marrow
b) cortical bone
c) cancellous bone
d) periosteum
A) Bone marrow
Which part of the DNA carries the genetic material?
a) sugars
b) phosphates
c) purine and pyrimidine bases
d) deoxyriboses
d) deoxyriboses
What is the cause of eclampsia in the bitch?
a) increased calcium
b) decreased calcium
c) increased sodium
d) decreased sodium
b) decreased calcium
What causes “milk fever” in the cow?
a) increased calcium
b) decreased calcium
c) increased sodium
d) decreased sodium
b) decreased calcium
What organism would you be most likely to culture from an infected surgical wound?
a) S. aureus
b) S. epidermidis
c) S. faecalis
d) S. pyogenes
b) S. epidermidis
Normal flora
In beta hemolysis, what color will the ”zone” be?
a) red
b) green
c) clear
d) yellow
C) Clear
Which is MacConkey’s medium NOT used for?
a) primary growth of Gram-enterics
b) selective for E. coli
c) to isolate Salmonella
d) to distinguish aerobic from anaerobic bacteria
d) to distinguish aerobic from anaerobic bacteria
If a dermatologic assay from a cat turns red with white fungus on it within four (4) days, what does this indicate?
a) the test is expired and must be redone
b) there is probably a dermatophytosis
c) it next needs to be incubated at 39˚C for 4 more days
d) the sample is probably contaminated
b) there is probably a dermatophytosis
Which list includes the names of the three primary systemic mycoses?
a) Blastomycosis, Cryptococcus, Histoplasma
b) Trichophyton, Histoplasma, Isospora
c) Cryptosporidium, Coccidiosis, Microsporum
d) Sporotrichosis, Blastomycosis, Microsporum
e) none of the above
a) Blastomycosis, Cryptococcus, Histoplasma
Which of the following will give you an MAS of 10?
a) mA50, KVP 28, 1/5 of a second
b) mA50, KVP 30, 1/10 of a second
c) mA100, KVP 1/40 of a second
d) mA75, KVP 40, 1/5 of a second
a) mA50, KVP 28, 1/5 of a second
In the cat, FIA causes what?
a) hemolytic anemia
b) parasitic anemia
c) hemorrhagic anemia
d) viral anemia
a) hemolytic anemia
An anemia from large, acute blood loss would look like what 1 week later:
a) macrocytic, polychromatic
b) macrocytic, hypochromic
c) macrocytic, hypochromic
d) macrocytic, hypochromic
a) macrocytic, polychromatic
What structures are normally included in an IVP?
a) kidney, urinary bladder, ureters
b) urinary bladder, urethra, prostate
c) urethra, ureters, vagina
d) kidneys, urinary bladder, testes
a) kidney, urinary bladder, ureters
What part of the machine is not used in a non-rebreathing system?
a) oxygen supply
b) CO2 canister
c) vaporizer
d) Ayer’s T-piece
b) CO2 canister
What removes excess gas from the system?
a) one-way inhalation valve
b) Y-piece
c) pressure relief valve
d) pressure reducing valve
c) pressure relief valve
What vaccination has recently been approved for cats?
a) Lyme’s
b) FIA
c) FIP
d) FeLV
D) FeLV
When doing a declaw, the surgeon removes the nail and:
a) first phalanx (P1)
b) second phalanx (P2)
c) third phalanx (P3)
d) fourth phalanx (P4)
c) third phalanx (P3)
Capillaria plica in a dog is a:
a) lungworm
b) bladderworm
c) bloodworm
d) hookworm
b) bladderworm
Which animal is a common reservoir for rabies?
a) rat
b) squirrel
c) skunk
d) snake
e) bats
E) Bats
How far down should an endotracheal tube go?
a) esophagus
b) to the middle of the larynx
c) no further than the thoracic inlet
d) to the bifurcation of trachea
c) no further than the thoracic inlet
If the endotracheal tube goes into one lung, what happens under anesthesia?
a) increase respiration
b) increase the uptake of anesthesia
c) only one lung is ventilated
d) respiratory arrest
c) only one lung is ventilated
If a synthesized antigen stimulates an animals own antibodies to be produced, what kind of immunity does it confer?
a) active
b) passive
c) maternal
d) colostral
A) active
What do you have when you spin down anticoagulated blood and collect the supernatant?
a) serum
b) plasma
c) platelets
d) clotting factors
B) Plasma
Serum is coagulated
What breaks up starch?
a) pepsin
b) renin
c) amylase
d) lipase
C) amylase
25 micrograms is equivalent to how many milligrams?
a) 0.0025
b) 0.025
c) 0.25
d) 2.5
b) 0.025
You wish to give an 80-gram bird some ketamine at a dose rate of 88mg/kg. If the concentration of ketamine is 100 mg/ml. how many ml’s will you give?
a) 0.07
b) 0.7
c) 7.0
d) 70.0
a) 0.07
1g = 0.001kg
What method of mechanical ventilation would best fill a large area in the lungs?
a) high pressure and low volume
b) low pressure and high volume
c) high pressure and high volume
d) equal setting for pressure and volume
b) low pressure and high volume
If you changed from regular film to rare earth, what would you change?
a) KVP
b) mAs
c) time
d) FFD
A) KvP
Why do you put an animal in frog position for an X-ray?
a) OFA radiographs for hip dysplasia
b) oblique view of femoral crest
c) non-OFA radiographs of pelvis
d) navicular shot
c) non-OFA radiographs of pelvis
When taking an X-ray of the radius ulna, what views do you do?
a) lateral and A/P
b) lateral and V/D
c) lateral, V/D and oblique
d) lateral and D/V
a) lateral and A/P
What grows fungi?
a) blood agar
b) selenite broth
c) Sabaraud’s agar
d) Wright-Giemsa gel
c) Sabaraud’s agar
Blood agar = grows bacteria
Selenite broth = grows salmonella
Strongyloides westeri in a horse is:
a) cecal worm
b) bloodworm
c) threadworm
d) whipworm
c) threadworm
How do you detect occult blood in stool?
a) hematest
b) fecalizer
c) urinalysis
d) Elisa test
A) Hematest
Occult = hidden
How do you determine how deep under a horse on _______ is?
a) arterial blood pressure
b) ocular pupil reflex
c) respiratory rate
d) heart rate
a) arterial blood pressure
Which retractors remain open by themselves?
a) army-navy
b) Gelpi
c) Senn
d) Gemma
B) Gelpi
What is the cause of white muscle disease in lambs?
a) Vitamin C/ Iron deficiency
b) Vitamin E/ Selenium deficiency
c) Vitamin K/ Iron deficiency
d) Vitamin K/ Selenium deficiency
b) Vitamin E/ Selenium deficiency
What is the bony-like substance that underlies the enamel?
a) dentin
b) cementum
c) pulp
d) root
a) dentin
What causes azoturia in a horse?
a) drinking water when they are hot
b) not responding to antibiotics
c) drinking too much water when exercising
d) decrease of AST
d) decrease of AST
A 4 month old puppy comes in with a genetic defect. The owner wants to repair the defect and use the animal for breeding purposes. Ethically, what should be done?
a) always repair a genetic defect
b) never repair a genetic defect
c) repair whatever possible and hope the defeat may not be passed on
d) repair and try to convince owner to neuter
d) repair and try to convince owner to neuter
Which is a hypertonic solution?
a) Lactated Ringers
b) 0.9% NaCl
c) 2 and ½ % dextrose in half strength saline
d) 50% dextrose
b) 0.9% NaCl
LRS = isotonic
Hypertonic = draws water out
Interstitial tissues are bathed with fluid. Which is the most important component of this fluid?
a) sodium
b) potassium
c) calcium
d) iron
A) Sodium
Mannitol salt agar is:
a) transport medium
b) simple medium
c) selective medium
d) specific medium
c) selective medium
For what procedure would you empty out the colon?
a) gastrotomy
b) perianal hernia
c) cystotomy
d) umbilical hernia
b) perianal hernia
A puppy come in with abdominal pain. He has an intussusception. What is that?
a) telescoping of intestine into itself
b) foreign body in jejunum
c) infection with roundworms
d) acute pancreatitis
a) telescoping of intestine into itself
If you do an abdominal centesis on a horse and the fluid that comes out is brown and has ingested particles. What is wrong with this horse?
a) peritonitis
b) colic due to bowel rupture
c) aneurysm of the cranial mesenteric artery
d) infection with Strongylus vulgaris
b) colic due to bowel rupture
MacConkey grows everything except:
a) E. coli
b) Enterobacters
c) anaerobic bacteria
d) aerobic bacteria
c) anaerobic bacteria
What do you empty in a bird prior to surgery?
a) crop
b) air sac
c) cloaca
d) gizzard
d) gizzard
Which conversion is the closet?
a) 30 ml – 1 ounce
b) 6 ml = 1 teaspoon
c) 30 ml = 1 tablespoon
d) 1 kg = 1 pound
a) 30 ml – 1 ounce
What is a guttural pouch in a horse?
a) outpouching of the eustachian tube
b) part of the larynx
c) part of the esophagus
d) outpouching of the trachea
a) outpouching of the eustachian tube
What substance is affected by iodine deficiency?
a) adrenalin
b) oxytocin
c) progesterone
d) thyroxin
d) thyroxin
What is osmosis?
a) movement of water from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low solute concentration across a selectively permeable membrane
b) movement of water from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration across a selectively permeable membrane
c) movement of solute down its gradient
d) movement of solute and solvent across a selectively permeable membrane
b) movement of water from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration across a selectively permeable membrane
What does atropine do?
a) decrease heart rate
b) increase respiratory rate
c) decrease respiratory rate
d) decrease salivation
d) decrease salivation
What may happen when you give a horse excessive rich feed?
a) laminitis (foundering)
b) myositis
c) panosteitis
d) periodontal disease
a) laminitis (foundering)
- What do you not clean the intensifying screens with?
a) diluted dial soap
b) alcohol
c) betadine
d) water
C) Betadine
What is cause of Feline Infectious Anemia, FIA?
a) FeLV
b) FIP
c) FIV
d) Hemobartonella felis
d) Hemobartonella felis
What is dental planning?
a) move the tooth
b) smoothing out the root
c) save the tooth
d) root canal
b) smoothing out the root
What is the first thing you do to a first-degree burn?
a) pour peroxide on it
b) apply pressure bandage
c) apply gauze with Vaseline
d) clean it gently
c) apply gauze with Vaseline
What class drug is Meperidine?
a) Schedule II
b) Schedule III
c) Schedule IV
d) Schedule I
a) Schedule II
Which drug is a non-narcotic?
a) morphine
b) oxymorphone
c) meperidine
d) Xylazine
d) Xylazine
When doing a vaginal smear, you find cornified epithelial cells and some red blood cells. What stage is the bitch in?
a) anestrus
b) estrus
c) proestrus
d) diestrus
C) Proestrus
What does Atropine do to a horse?
a) decrease heart rate
b) decrease respiration rate
c) paralysis of ileum
d) hypermotility of ileum
c) paralysis of ileum
What does rompum do to a dog?
a) decrease blood pressure
b) increase respiration
c) increase heart rate
d) increase blood pressure
a) decrease blood pressure
romum = xylazine
What part of the brain controls breathing?
a) cerebral cortex
b) cerebellum
c) medulla oblongata
d) thalamus
c) medulla oblongata
1g = ? mg
1mg = 0.001g
Ileus means
bowel obstruction
1 quart equals oz?
1 quart = 32 oz
1 oz equals ? ml
1 oz = 29.57ml
1 dram (dr) equals ? oz
i dr = 1/8 oz
Enrofloxacin (baytril), Marbofloxacin (zeniquin), Orbifloxacin (orbax) belongs to what type of antibiotics?
A) Penicillin
B) Cephalosporins
C) Fluroquinolones
D) Animoglycosides
C) Fluroquinolones
Which is not a factor influencing formation of exuberant granulation tissue?
A) Presence of infection
B) amount of missing tissue
C) depth of wound
D) Location of wound
C) Depth of wound
Which is not true of an aural hematoma?
A) Must be drained
B) is repaired by trimming the pinna
C) is painful and bothersome
D) maybe drained and bandaged with ears folded back across top of head
B) repaired by trimming ear pinna
Delayed hemolytic reaction is indicated by drop in PCV how many days postransfusion?
A) 2-20 days
B) immediately
C) 2-3 weeks
D) Years later
A) 2-20 days
Radiographing distal extremity is ___ scale of contrast?
A) Long
B) Short
C) medium
D) Doesn’t matter
B) Short
Soluble carbohydrate’
A) Lignin
B) Glucose
C) Cellulose
D) Pectin
B) Glucose
Central venous pressure is high in which type of shock
A) Traumatic
B) Septic
C) Hypovolemic
D) Cardiogenic
D) Cardiogenic
Which contrast study listed is for draining tract
A) Arthrography
B) Celiography
C) Fistulography
D) Myelography
C) Fistulography
Ictotest is used to detect ___ in urine
A) Blood
B) Fat
C) Urobilinogen
D) Bilirubin
D) Bilirubin
Jugular vein with normal distention time but protracted relaxation time indicates all except
A) Hypoolemia
B) Chronic right heart failure
C) Chronic liver disease
D) Acute heart failure
A) Hypovolemia
Breed born with no tail
A) Old english sheepdog
B) Schipperke
C) Minature poodle
D) Minature schnauzer
B) Schipperke
Noncuffed ET tube is used in
A) Newborn kittens
B) Calf
C) Lamb
D) newborn foal
A) Kittens
Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin and amikacin) do not work well in deep puncture wounds or lumen of the colon because
A) they are anaerobic sites and bacteria needs oxygen to take up aminoglycosides
B) Sites often have gram positive bacterias and aminoglycosides are ineffective in gram postives
C) sites often have enzymes that inactives the drug
D) DNA of bacteria is resistentant
A) they are anaerobic sites and bacteria needs oxygen to take up aminoglycosides
Cats should not be fed dog food because
A) Its unpalatable
B) Give them diarrhea
C) Fat content is too low
D) Amino acid content is too low
D) Aminoacide content is too low (Taurine)
All crosses placental barrier in significant amounts except
A) Ace
B) Diazepam
C) Iso
D) Neuromusclar blocking agent
D) Neuromusclar blocking agent
What causes vulval swelling in ferrets (Spayed)
A) Insulinoma
B) Hyperpituitarism
C) Hyperadrenocortism
D) Hyper thyroidism
C) Hyperadrenocorticism cuz it produces estrogen
Villi are which lining structure
A) Esophagus
B) Large intestine
C) Small intestine
D) Stomach
C) Small intestine
Tension pneumothorax occurs when
A) Pressure in the throacic cavity is less than atmospheric pressure
B) Pressure in the thoracic cavity is equal to atomspheric pressure
C) Pressure in the thoracic cavity is greater than atomspheric pressure
D) Pressure in the thoracic cavity is constant as animal breathes in and out
C) Pressure in the thoracic cavity is greater than atomspheric pressure
What age does kitten fully able to control body temp?
A) 61 days
B) 45 days
C) 28 days
D) 12 Days
C) 28 days
radiation monitoring film badge reports are submitted
A) Weekly
B) Monthly
C) Semiannual
D) Annual
B) Monthly
Suppression of flow of saliva is
A) Sialoschesis
B) Sialogen
C) Sialoadenitis
D) Sialocele
A) Sialoschesis
Which causes false positive results on feline leukemia test in test wells?
A) Reagent added in wrong order
B) Low sensitivity of the test
C) Overwashing
D) Underwashing
D) Underwashing
Hyperesthesic is
A) Abnormal sensitivity to stimuli
B) Abnormal unresponsive to stimuli
C) Abnormal sensitive to anesthesia
D) Abnormal unresponsive to anesthesia
A) Abnormal sensitivity to stimuli
which is proper dental term for tooth surface
A) Mesial - farthest from the midline
B) Mesial - nearest the front
C) Distal - nearest the midline
D) Distal - Farthest from the midline
D) Distal - Farthest from the midline
Ace causes
A) Respiratory depression
B) Tachycardia
C) Hypotension
D) Reduces salvation
C) Hypotension
Causes vasodilation
% means
g/100 ml
Lidocaine is used to control
A) Atrial bradyarrthythmias
B) Ventricular tachyarrhythmias
C) Hypertension
D) Excessive urine output
B) ventricular tachyarrthymias
What can you do to detect early signs of nephrotoxicity from aminglycosides?
A) Monitor BUN
B) Monitor CBC and TP
C) Monitor feces for change
D) Monitor urine for casts and protein
D) Monitor unrine for casts and protein
Which enrofloxcin is safest for?
A) Rabbit
B) Puppy
C) Horse
D) Cat
A) Rabbit
Doesn’t kill normal gut flora
Which is prone to trichobezoar fomation?
A) Rabbits
B) Crcetulus griseus
C) Gallus domesticus
D) Cavia porcellus
(Hairball formation)
A) Rabbits
Postprandial lipemia is caused by
A) Proteins
B) Chylomicrons
C) Carbs
D) Fatty acid
B) Chylomicrons
Hormone that regulates sodium resorption in nephron is
A) ADH
B) Estrogen
C) Progesterone
D) Aldosterone
D) Aldosterone
which is master gland
A) Thyroid
B) Adrenal
C) Pituitary
D) Thymus
C) Pituitary
