Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Missed Q Bank Q's > Questions > Flashcards

Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Splitting

A

Sorts people into categories of all good or all bad

Immature Defense Mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Projection

A

Denies unwanted feelings in the self and attributes them to others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Regression

A

Returns to an earlier developmental level of functioning to avoid unwanted feelings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Repression

A

Hides thoughts and feelings from the consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fixation

A

Partial display of more childish level of development for age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Identification

A

Adopts and models behaviors of another person (usually of authority)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Idealization

A

Only focusing on positive traits of self or others and overlooking their flaws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Acting out

A

Expressing unwanted feelings via behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Displacement

A

Transferring an unwanted feeling from one to another usually one in a neutral position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Reaction formation

A

Turns unacceptable feelings into their opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Rationalization

A

Justifying behavior to avoid difficult truths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Intellectualization

A

Focusing on non-emotional aspects to avoid distressing feelings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Humor

A

Makes light of uncomfortable thoughts or feelings

Mature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Altruism

A

Doing things for others as a way to deal with painful feelings or thoughts
Mature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sublimation

A

An uncomfortable thought or feeling goes directly from unconsciousness to consciousness in a useful or productive form
Mature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Suppression

A

A conscious and purposeful decision to put a thought or feeling out of one’s mind
Mature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Blastomycosis (Location and Clinical Features)

A

Location: Great lakes region (Michigan), Ohio River basin, Mississippi River Basin
Clinical: Constitutional symptoms (fever, night sweats)
Inflammatory lung disease (granulomas)
Verrucous skin lesions
Lytic bone lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Obturator Nerve (level, sensory area, and motor innervation)

A

L2-4
Medial thigh
Motor: obturnator externus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, gracilis, pectineus, adductor magnus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Femoral Nerve (level, sensory area, and motor innervation)

A

L2-4
anterior thigh, medial leg
quadriceps, iliacus, pectineus, sartorius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Sciatic (level, sensory area, and motor innervation)

A

L4-S3
No sensory
Semitendinosus, semimembranous, biceps femoris, adductor magnus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Common peroneal/fibular (level, sensory area, and motor innervation) Superficial branch

A

L4-S2
Superificial - innervates lateral portion of leg
Sensory dorsum of foot
Motor - peroneus longus and brevis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Common peroneal/fibular - deep branch ((level, sensory area, and motor innervation)

A

L4-S2
Deep - innervates anterior portion of leg
Web space between hallux and second digit
Tibialis anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tibial (level, sensory area, and motor innervation)

A

L4-S3
Sole of foot
Biceps femoris (long head), triceps surae, plantaris, popliteus, flexor muscle of foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia defect

A

defect in apo E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia Lab values

A

Elevated chylomicron remnants, VLDL, IDL and LDL

Normal HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fracture at midshaft of humerus results in what nerve e being damaged?

A

Radial nerve - innervates hand and wrist extensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Fracture at the surgical neck of the humerus results in what nerve being damaged?

A

Axillary nerve
Innervates the deltoid and teres minor muscles - weakness of external rotation and abduction of the arm
This can also happen with anterior shoulder dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Direct Inguinual Hernia

A

Medial to inferior epigastric vessel, transverse inguinal (Hesselbach) triangle, covered by peritneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Indirect Inguinal hernia

A

Lateral to inferior epigastric vessel, transverse deep and superficial ring, covered by peritoneum and spermatic fasciae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Femoral Hernia

A

enters anterior thigh through femoral ring, inferior to inguinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Epigastric hernia

A

near midline passing around linea alba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Migraine headaches increase the risk of what neuro thing?

A

Cerebral vascular accidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Pts with hypovolemic shock from volume depletion present with (inc/dec CO, Inc/dec cardiac index, inc/dec systemic vascular resistance, and low/high cardiac filling pressure)

A

Low CO, low cardiac index, high systemic vascular resistance, tachycardia, and low cardiac filling pressure
Remember
decreased blood volume -> dec filling pressures and CO -> dec arterial BP and volume -> inc sympathetic activity (inc peripheral resistance, HR, contractility) & inc release of ADH (inc water retention) & inc renin release (inc aldosterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hyperimmunoglobulinemia E (Job’s syndrome) triad

A

eczema, eosinophilia, and recurrent skin and pulmonary infections
Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

thrombocytopenic purpura, eczema and frequent infections. Usually see decreased IgM X-linked recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease

A

Lack of NADPH oxidase (negative nitroblue tetrazolium dye test)
Suspectible to infections by catalase positive organisms (S. aureus, E. coli, Aspergillus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Chediak-Higashi

A

Partial albinism, peripheral neuropathy, and recurrent infections by staph or strep species.
Autosomal recessive
Defect in microtubular function -> dysfunctional phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Chapmans Point for Larnyx

A

second rib near the costochondral junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

v wave on JVP waveform reflects what?

A

Right atrium

Will be accentuated v wave with tricuspid regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

when does v wave occur on JVP

A

when the RA is filling behind the closed tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Infraspinatus and teres minor do what?

A

Externally rotate the arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Subscapularis does what to arm?

A

Internally rotates arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Primary hypothyroidism labs

A

Decreased T4 and increased TSH. T3 not usually affected since it is produced by conversion from T4 in peripheral tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Dihydropridines (drug names and MOA)

A

nifedipine, amlodipine, felodipine
inhibit the L-type Ca channels on arterial smooth muscle causing vasodilation with little or no effect on cardiac conduction or contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Nondihydropyridines (drug names and MOA)

A

Verapamil, diltiazem
inhibit the L-type calcium channel, affect the myocardium slowing HR (negative chronotropic effect) and reducing contractility (negative ionotropic effect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Postpartum thyroiditis (pathophysiology and labs)

A

autoimmune destruction of thyroid follicles and release of preformed thyroid hormone
lymphocytic infiltrates +/- germinal centers
Has a brief hyperthyroid phase, then hypothyroid phase, then return to euthyroid state
DX: inc serum thyroglobulin, dec radioiodine uptake
US show diffuse thyroid enlargement with dec blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a good initial therapy for pt with DM neuropathy

A

SNRI, gabapentinoids, or tricyclic depressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Ventricular Septal defect description of defect

A

loud blowing holosystolic murmur at the mid to lower left sternal border and no symptoms. Usually not heard at birth but 4-10 days later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Kluver-Bucy syndrome (location of lesion and symptoms)

A

bilateral lesions of the amygdalae, and pts present with an absence of emotions including decreased fear and aggression, loss of facial animation, hyperoralitiy, and a marked increase in sexual drive and libido

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Actions of biceps femoris

A

knee flexion and hip extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Anterior radial head dysfunction forearm prefers pronation or supination?

A

Prefers supination and is restricted in pronation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Medial umbilical ligaments are remnants of what?

A

Umbilical arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what?

A

Urachus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ligamentum arteriosum is a remnant of what?

A

ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Ligamentum teres (round ligament of the liver) is a remnant of what?

A

Umbilical vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Ligament venosum is a remnant of what?

A

ductus venosus running in the porta hepatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Muscle used in exhalation rib ME for rib 1

A

anterior and middle scalenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Muscle used in exhalation rib ME for rib 2

A

posterior scalene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Muscle used in exhalation rib ME for rib 3-5

A

pectoralis minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Muscle used in exhalation rib ME for rib 6-8

A

serratus anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Muscle used in exhalation rib ME for rib 9-10

A

latissimus dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Muscle used in exhalation rib ME for rib 11-12

A

quadratus lumborum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Chediak Higashi syndrome

A

Autosomal recessive
affects vesicle fusion and lysosome transport that results in neurologic abnormalities, partial albinism, and immunodeficiency caused by defective neutrophil and natural killer cell function. Have recurrent pyogenic infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Letrozole MOA and effect

A

aromatase inhibitor, acts on the ovary and peripheral adipose tissue to inhibit androgen to estrogen conversion by the enzyme aromatase, the subsequent decrease in estrogen production causes the pituitary to release more FSH and LH -> stimulating ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Increases in physiologic dead space occur in what lung diseases?

A

Pulmonary embolism, emphysema, and acute respiratory distress syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Low tidal volume (increases or decreases) dead space ventilation?

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Increased levels of what substance the helps to improve oxygen carrying capacity are typically seen in COPD

A

Erythropoietin by interstitial cells in the renal medulla and cortex release erythropoietin to stimulate bone marrow to increase RBC production. Secondary polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which thyroid condition has a painful thyroid enlargement?

A

Subacute granulomatous (de Quervain) thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What does the biopsy show with subaucte granulomatous thyroiditis?

A

Mixed inflammatory infiltrate with macrophages and multinucleated giant cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does the biopsy show with Hashimoto thyroiditis

A

Lymphocytic infiltrate with well-developed germinal centers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

PCP (phencyclidine) class and intoxication symptoms

A

Hallucinogen

Violent behavior, dissociation, hallucinations, amnesia, nystagmus, ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

LSD class and intoxication symptoms

A

Hallucinogen

Visual hallucinations, euphoria, dysphoria/panic, tachycardia, HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Cocaine class and intoxication symptoms

A

Stimulant

Euphoria, agitation/psychosis, chest pain, seizures, tachycardia/HTN, mydriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Methamphetamine class and intoxication symptoms

A

Stimulant

Violent behavior, psychosis, diaphoresis, tachycardia/HTN, choreiform movements, teeth decay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Marijuana class and intoxication symptoms

A

Cannabinoid
Increased appetite, euphoria, dysphoria/panic, slow reflexes, impaired time perception, dry mouth, conjunctival injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Heroin (class and overdose symptoms)

A

Opioid

Euphoria, depressed mental status, miosis, respiratory depression, constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Most common cause of ASD is failure of closure of what?

A

Ostium secundum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Eisenmenger syndrome

A

caused by reversal of blood flow through an uncorrected ASD, VSD, or patent ductus arteriosus. Results in dyspnea, cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Fixed splitting of the S2 heart sound characteristic of what?

A

ASD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Sheehan syndrome

A

infarction of the pituitary gland, secondary to significant postpartum bleeding causing hypoperfusion of the pituitary gland - cause a decrease in hormones produced by the anterior pituitary (FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, prolactin, and GH).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

MEN2B

A

Mucosal neuromas, marfanoid body habitus, medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma
Mutation in RET (proto-oncogene)
Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

MEN2A

A

Parathyroid hyperplasia
Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Pheochromocytoma
Mutation in RET (Proto-oncogene)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

MEN1

A 
3 P's
Pituitary adenoma
Parathyroid hyperplasia
Pancreatic tumors (gastrinoma, insulinoma, vipoma, glucagonoma) 
Mutation in MEN1 gene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Pathophysiology of edema in nephrotic syndrome

A

decreased plasma protein -> leads to decreased oncotic pressure thus less force for pulling fluid back into capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Acute idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

follows a recent viral infection, seen in young kids
Antibody against GbIIb/IIIa that triggers splenic destruction of platelets. Leads to bone marrow production of platelets being increased and increased megakaryocytes in the marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Leydig cells produce what?

A

Testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

rod-shaped intracytoplasmic crystal-like inclusions with rounded ends. Describes what and what diagnosis is it associated with?

A

Reinke crystals and Leydig tumor (sex cord-stromal tumor, MC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Sickle cell disease mutation? Is sickle cell AR or AD?

A

Point mutation in hemoglobin causing glutamic acid to be replaced by valine
Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is located at the same level as the angle of Louis

A

bifurcation of the trachea (carina)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Loop diuretic (names, MOA, and where in kidney)

A

Furosemide, bumetanide, torsemide
Inhibit Na/K/2Cl at thick ascending loop of Henle
Decrease preload and Ca reabsorption in the kidney
Ethyacrynic acid can be used in pt with sulfa allergy!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Loop diuretic adverse effects (remember mnemonic)

A

OHH DANG
Ototoxicity, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, dehydration, allergy (sulfa), metabolic alkalosis, nephritis (interstitial), gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Foreign bodies are most likely to enter which lobe and why?

A

lower lobe of the R lung since the right mainstem bronchus is more vertical than the L mainstem bronchus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Supracondylar humeral fractures commonly occur after hyperextension of the elbow as a result of fall onto an outstretched arm and damage what nerve?

A

Radial nerve (runs along anterolateral aspect of the elbow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Test used to compare the means of 2 groups

A

two sample t test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Majority of water reabsorption in the nephron occurs where?

A

Proximal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Medial geniculate nucleus of thalamus receives what input?

A

Auditory input and delivers it to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Pentad for thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

FAT RN

Fever, anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, neurologic symptoms (headache, confusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

APC tumor suppressor or oncogene?

A

Tumor suppressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Friedrich ataxia (mutation, symptoms, most common cause of death)

A

AR disorder caused by trinucleotide repeat GAA that causes poor mitochondrial function. Staggering gait, nystagmus, pes cavus, and hammer toes are characteristic. Most common cause of death is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Disseminated gonococcal infection symptoms and what usually causes it?

A

migratory polyarthralgia, septic arthritis, tenosynovitis, and dermatitis (vesiculopustular eruption on palms, arms, and legs)
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Tx with ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

In sacral torsion with positive spring test or backward bending is sacrum flexed or extended and is L5 following Type 1 or 2 fryettes?

A

Extended
L5 following type 2 and will be rotated and sidebent the same way as the axis so if R on L will be sidebent and rotated L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome are due to neurovascular compression between what 2 muscles?

A

Anterior and middle scalenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Celiac artery supplies what abdominal organs?

A

stomach
liver
spleen
portions of pancreas and duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Superior mesenteric artery supplies what abdominal organs?

A

Portions of the duodenum, pancreas, and ascending and transverse colone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Inferior mesenteric artery supplies what abdominal organs?

A

transverse colon, descending and sigmoid colon and rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Posterior cord of brachial plexus is composed of which nerves

A

Axillary and radial

So issues with shoulder abduction and elbow, wrist and finger extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Colchicine MOA and side effects

A

inhibits tubulin polymerization into microtubules and can be used for acute treatment and prophylaxis of gout. Important side effects of colchicine include nausea, abdominal pain, and diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema will have elevated or normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure? Examples?

A

Normal

Acute respiratory distress syndrome, high altitude pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema will have elevated or normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure? Examples?

A

Elevated

decompensated left ventricular failure, volume overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Zolpidem MOA

A

short acting nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic agent that is a GABAa agonist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Pilocystic astrocytoma in kids or adults? Benign or malignant? Where do they occur? What is on CT or MRI?

A

Most common benign in kids.
Usually occur in cerebellum
Unilocular or multiocular cyst with an associated tumor nodule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Histology seen in 2-4 hrs after MI

A

abundant granulocyte emigration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Histology seen in 4-12 hrs after MI

A

early coagulative necrosis is seen upon histologic evaluation as neutrophils begin to migrate towards the recently infarcted area to degrade tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Histology seen 5-10 days after MI

A

neutrophils replaced by macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Histology seen 7-10 days after MI

A

fibroblasts with type III collagen synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Histology seen 7-8 weeks after MI

A

dense type I scar tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Rett syndrome mutation and symptoms

A

Deletion of MECP2 gene on X chrosome

Female child presents with regression of milestones and constant midline hand movements (clapping or wringing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

APGAR (what does it stand for?)

A 
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respirations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Axillary nerve (compartment of arm and primary action)

A

shoulder
abduct, flex, extend shoulder
C5-6
surgical neck fracture or anterior humerus dislocation causes issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Radial nerve (compartment of arm and primary action)

A

C5-T1
posterior arm and posterior forearm
Extend elbow wrist, thumb digits
Axilla or midshaft fracture causes issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Musculocutaneous nerve (compartment of arm and primary action)

A 
Anterior arm (biceps, brachialis, coracobrachialis)
flex elbow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Ulnar nerve (compartment of arm and primary action)

A

anterior forearm (minor) and palm of hand
ulnar deviation of wrist, gripping, abduction and adduction of digits 2-5
C8-T1
fall on outstretched hand (damage hamate) or medial epicondylar fracture causes issues
Ulnar claw - unable to flex digits 4-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Median nerve (compartment of arm and primary action)

A

Anterior forearm and palm of hand (minor)
1/2LOAF (1st and 2nd lumbricals, opponens pollicus, abductor pollicus brevis, flexor pollicus brevis)
flex wrist, flex digits, flexion, abduction, opposition of thumb
C5-T1
Supracondylar fracture causes issues - benediction sign unable to flex first 3 digits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Von Hippel Lindua disease (AD or AR), where is deletion (what chromosome) and clinical features

A

AD
deletion of VHL gene on chromosome 3p
Hemangioblastomas, bilateral renal cell carcinomas, pheochromocytomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Nephroblastoma/Wills Tumor

A

Peak age 3-4 years
Mass seldom crosses midline
Intrinsic to kidney on imaging (claw sign)
Rings have true lumens
Calcifications and paraneoplastic effects are rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Neuroblastoma

A 
Peak age <2 yo
mass often crosses midline
extrinsic to kidney on imaging 
calcifications are common
rings contain neural filaments
paraneoplastic effects (neurologic) are common
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Becks Triad (symptoms and what they dx)

A

hypotension
jugular venous distension
distant or muffled heart sounds
Pericardial tamponade (or cardiac tamponade)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Obstructive Lung Disease PFT findings and example

A

Emphysema and COPD
Increasing airway resistance and lung compliance
decreased FEV1/FVC
Increases in TLC, FRC and RV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Thiamine is a cofactor for what enzymes (5 things)

A

transketolase, alpha-ketoglutarate, dehydrogenase, branched chain ketoacid dehydrogenase and pyruvate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Wernicke encephalopathy

what is it caused by and symptoms?

A

thiamine (vit B1) deficiency is characterized by dementia, nystagmus, and/or ophthalmoplegia and ataxia. The symptoms can be precipitated or worsened when a malnourished pt receives glucose before being supplemented with thiamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Ewing sarcoma (malignant or benign) what is translocation associated with it? Population it affects and part of bone (metaphysis, epiphysis, or diaphysis)?

A

Malignant bone tumor in young males
Affects diaphysis of long bones
t(11;22) translocation - transcription factor
Histologically - anaplastic, small blue cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Indirect coombs tests for what?

A

Used to test for antibodies in a serum

antibodies to Rh+ cells test whether these antibodies are present in the maternal serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Direct coombs

A

Test for antibodies attached to red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Substances that are chemotactic for neutrophils

A

C5a, N-formyl-methionyl peptides from bacteria, leukotriene B4, fibrinopeptides, and interleukin-8

135
Q

Rate limiting step of heme synthesis?

A

Aminolevulinic acid synthase (glycine + succinyl-CoA to aminolevulinic acid in mitochondria)

136
Q

Affected enzyme in acute intermittent porphyria

A

Porphobilinogen deaminase leads to buildup of prophobilinogen during heme synthesis

137
Q

5 P’s of acute intermittent porphyria

A 
Painful abdomen
Port wine colored urine
Polyneuropathy
Psychologic disturbances
Precipitated by drugs (cyto P450 inducers, alcohol, starvation)
138
Q

Porphyria cutanea tarda - affected enzyme and symptoms

A

uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
Most common porphyria
blistering cutaneous photosensitivity and hyperpigmentation
associated with Hep C

139
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a demyelinating disease that affects what part of the spinal cord and what area of the brain?

A

Anterior horns of spinal cord (LMN symptoms)

Motor areas of cortex and brainstem (UMN symptoms)

140
Q

Hyperparathyroidism mnemonic

A

bones, stones, abdominal groans and psychologic moans (kidney stones, bone pain, GI disturbances -peptic ulcer disease, and psychiatric symptoms)

141
Q

Labs in central hypothyroidism and some common causes of it?

A

Low TSH and T4 levels
Causes: Sheehan syndrome (pituitary infarction), sarcoidosis, hemochromatosis, pituitary surgery/trauma, mass lesions (pituitary adenoma)

142
Q

RCA perfuses what part of heart?

A

inferior wall of the LV and majority of the RV. Proximal occlusion can cause right ventricular MI

143
Q

SIADH lab findings and drugs that commonly cause it

A 
hypotonic hyponatremia (low serum osmolality and serum sodium), concentrated urine (high urine osmolality) and euvolemia
Drugs - Carbamazepine, SSRI, NSAIDs, cyclophosphamide and CNS disturbances (Stroke, hemorrhage, trauma)
144
Q

What is the rate limiting enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway? What is it a major source of?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

NADPH

145
Q

Which heart failure is characterized by normal left ventricular (LV) ejection fraction, normal LV end diastolic volume and elevated LV filling pressures? What are some important causes?

A

Diastolic heart failure

Causes - hypertension, obesity, and infiltrative disorders (transthyretin-related amyloidosis, sarcoidosis)

146
Q

Severe diarrhea causes what acid/base disturbance?

A

Metabolic acidosis - loss of bicarbonate in the stool

147
Q

Name of nontender, macular, and erythematous lesions typically located on the palms and soles of pts with acute infective endocarditis?

A

Janeway lesions - result of septic embolization from valvular vegetations

148
Q

Western blotting is used to identify

A

Proteins

149
Q

Northern blotting identifies

A

Specific RNA sequences

150
Q

Southern blotting identifies

A

specific DNA sequences in an unknown sample

151
Q

Essential fructosuria (benign or life-threatening?) What enzyme is deficient?

A

Benign

Fructokinase

152
Q

Equation for sensitivity

A

TP/ (TP + FN)

Sensitivity of a test determines how well the test categorizes pts who have the disease of interest

153
Q

Equation for specificity

A

TN/ (FP + TN)

154
Q

How is dobutamine used during stress tests?

A

Dobutamine mimics the effects of exercise and increase myocardial oxygen demand. It can be used during stress testing to provoke areas of ischemic myocardium, which can be recognized on imaging by a localized and transient decrease in contractility

155
Q

Stable angina results from what?

A

Fixed coronary artery stenosis that limits blood flow to downstream myocardium, preventing the myocardial oxygen supply from increasing during exertion

156
Q

Barrett esophagus

A

esophageal squamous epithelium is replaced by columnar epithelium in response to chronic acid exposure

157
Q

Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome (AR or AD) and symptoms?

A

autosomal dominant condition marked by the presence of telangiectasias in the skin as well as the mucous membranes of the lips, oroasopharynx, respiratory tract, GI tract, and urinary tract. Rupture of these telangiectasias may cause epistaxis, GI bleeding, or hematuria.

158
Q

Failure of (blank) closure causes spina bifida

A

caudal neuropore

159
Q

Isometric muscle contraction definition

A

when the forces applied between the physician and pt are equal; this results in increased muscle tension with no approximation of origin and insertion

160
Q

Restrictive Lung disease PFT findings

A 
TLC decreased
Residual volume decreased
FEV1 decreased (dec same or less than FVC) 
FVC decreased
FEV1/FVC normal or increased
compliance decreased
161
Q

Obstructive Lung disease PFT findings

A 
TLC increased
Residual volume increased
FEV1 decreased (dec more than FVC)
FVC decreased
FEV1/FVC decreased
Compliance increased
162
Q

Pt with portal hypertension may develop esophageal varices due to increased blood flow from the (blank) vein of the portal venous system into the (blank) vein of the systemic venous system

A

Left gastric and azygous

163
Q

How do low estrogen levels in postmenopausal women lead to osteoporosis?

A

Estrogen normally inhibits osteoclast, so lack of estrogen means that osteoclast will work and have increased bone resorption

164
Q

What are the labs seen when checking for Down’s syndrome. Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein (up or down), estriol (up or down), B-hCG (up or down) and inhibin A (up or down)

A

low levels of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein and estriol and increased levels of B-hCG and inhibin A

165
Q

harsh ejection type systolic murmur heard best at the base of the heart with radiation to the carotid arteries

A

Aortic stenosis

166
Q

gastric tumor that has metastasized to the ovary and can present with unintentional weight loss, epigastric pain, and adnexal masses. What is this? What is the histology?

A

Krukenberg tumor
Histology - metastatic tumor cells have large amounts of mucin with displaced nuclei, resulting in a signet ring appearance

167
Q

Anion gap equation and normal value

A

Anion gap = Na - (Cl+HCO3) normal is 10-14

168
Q

Common causes of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

due to loss of bicarbonate
Causes: severe diarrhea, renal tubular acidosis, excessive saline infusion
Will often have high chlorine levels with it

169
Q

Common causes of elevated anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

Mechanism -> accumulation of unmeasured acidic compounds

Lactic acidosis, diabetic ketoacidosis, renal failure (uremia), methanol, ethylene glycol, salicylate toxicity

170
Q

What causes left shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

Decreased H (increased pH)
Decreased 2,3-BPG
Decreased temperature

171
Q

What is the major blood supply to the femoral head and neck?

A

Medial circumflex femoral artery and its branches

172
Q

1st line therapy for pyelonephritis with flank pain and pyruria

A

fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin)

173
Q

Gerstmann syndrome (where is lesion located) and symptoms expected with lesion

A

dominant inferior parietal lobe and is characterized by agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, and left-right disorientation

174
Q

Lactose breaks down into?

A

Galactose and glucose

175
Q

What type of aphasia is Broca’s aphasia

A

expressive non-fluent aphasia

176
Q

Spinal dural attachments are at what 4 places?

A

foramen magnum, C2, C3, and S2

177
Q

Leser-Trelat sign what is it and what is it associated with?

A

explosive onset of multiple seborrheic keratoses and is most often associated with adenocarcinoma of the stomach

178
Q

In BPH will GFR (inc, dec, or no change), RPF (inc, dec or no change) and FF (inc dec or no change)

A

GFR decrease
Renal plasma flow - no change
FF - decrease

179
Q

Which nephrotic syndrome is associated with HIV infection?

A

Focal segmental glomerulonephritis

180
Q

Bilateral destruction of amygdala? What is name of disease and symptoms

A

Kluver Bucy syndrome which is characterized by visual agnosia, hyperorality, hypersexuality, and docility

181
Q

AR disorder caused by defective transportation of cystine, ornithine, argnine, and lysine across the intestinal and renal tubular epithelium. What is this and what is the only clinical symptom?

A

Cystinuria and only symptom is nephrolithiasis

182
Q

AR disorder resulting from a defect in DNA repair genes. The DNA of these pts is hypersensitive to ionizing radiation. Manifestations include cerebellar ataxia, oculocutaneous telangiectasias, repeated sinopulmonary infections, and increased incidence of malignancy

A

Ataxia-telangiectasia

183
Q

Flutamide MOA

A

nonsteroid anti-androgen that acts as a competitive inhibitor of testosterone receptors.

184
Q

Decrease in prevalence causes (increase or decrease) of positive predictive value?

A

Decreased PPV

185
Q

characterized by personality and behavioral changes, deteriorating impulse control, and atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes

A

Frontotemporal dementia

186
Q

Painful vaginal bleeding in 3rd trimester and a tender and firm uterus

A

abruptio placentae - premature placental separation from uterus

187
Q

Painless vaginal bleeding in 3rd trimester with no uterine tenderness

A

Placental previa - placental implantation over the cervix

188
Q

Metabolic alkalosis labs (pH, HCO3)

A

pH > 7.45

HCO3 high >24

189
Q

Respiratory alkalosis (pH, PaCO2)

A

pH >7.45

PaCO2 <40

190
Q

Respiratory acidosis (pH, PaCO2)

A

pH <7.35

PaCO2 >40

191
Q

Metabolic acidosis (pH, HCO3)

A

pH <7.35

HCO3 <24

192
Q

Kidney stone usually seen in woman with multiple upper UTIs

A

Struvite stone

UTI infection by urease producing organisms (Proteus, Klebsiella). Alkalinizes urine (pH >7)

193
Q

Which palsy presents with vertical diplopia when the affected eye looks down and toward the nose (walking downstairs, up close reading)? What muscle does this nerve innervate?

A

Trochlear nerve palsy

Innervates superior oblique muscle which causes the eye to internally rotate and depress while adducted

194
Q 
Epidural hematoma
vessel typically involved?
Location?
Clinical manifestation? 
Presentation on CT scan?
A

Middle meningeal artery
between skull and dura mater
lucid interval, followed by loss of consciousness
biconvex hematoma

195
Q 
Subdural hematoma
vessel typically involved?
Location?
Clinical manifestation? 
Presentation on CT scan?
A 
Bridging cortical veins
btw dura mater and arachnoid mater
acute: coma at onset
Chronic: gradual onset of headache and confusion
Crescent shaped hematoma
196
Q 
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
vessel typically involved?
Location?
Clinical manifestation? 
Presentation on CT scan?
A

Aneurysm or AV malformation of anterior or posterior communicating arteries or MCA
Between arachnoid mater and pia mater
severe headache (worst of my life), nuchal rigidity
Blood in the basal cisterns

197
Q

Where is myenteric (Auerbach) plexus located?

A

between the longitudinal and circular layers of muscularis externa in GI tract.
This is where the the ganglions are absent and lead to absence of relaxation in Achlasia

198
Q

Where is Meissner plexus?

A

Submucosal

Responsible for regulating local secretion, blood flow, and absorption

199
Q

21-B hydoxylase deficiency CAH

A 
Dec mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids
Inc androgens
Inc ACTH
Salt wasting
Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia
hypotension
Ambiguous genitalia in girls
200
Q

11-B hydroxylase deficiency CAH

A 
Inc mineralocorticoids (11-deoxycorticosterone) and androgens
Dec glucocorticoids
Inc ACTH
Hypertension
Hypokalemia
Ambiguous genitalia in girls
201
Q

17-a-hydroxylase deficiency in CAH

A 
Inc mineralocorticoids
Dec androgens and glucocorticoids
Hypertension
Hypokalemia
ambiguous genitalia in boys; absent puberty
202
Q

Trick for CAH deficiencies if it starts with a 1 (17 or 11 hydroxylase deficiency) does it have HTN or hypotension
If it ends with a 1 does it cause virilization in females or nah?

A

HTN (17 and 11)

Virilization in females (21 and 11)

203
Q

subjects are grouped by their disease status

A

Case control study

204
Q

group subjects by the exposure or risk factor

A

Cohort study

205
Q

Which Cholangitis is associated with ulcerative colitis?

A

Primary sclerosis cholangitis

206
Q

Which cholangitis occurs most commonly in middle-aged females and presents with pruritus, jaundice, and hepatosplenomegaly?

A

Primary biliary cholangitis
Autoimmune disorder that leads to lymphocytic infiltration and granulomas that destroy the bile ducts in portal triads. Have anti-mitochondrial antibodies

207
Q

Balanced ligamentous tension direct or indirect?

A

Indirect

208
Q

Still technique direct or indirect?

A

Both

Start in indirect and then take into direct (restrictive barrier)

209
Q

Blood brain barrier comprises tight junctions between?

A

non-fenestrated capillary endothelial cells, a thick basement membrane, and astrocyte processes

210
Q

What is drug of choice for hyperaldosteronism? What is a side effect?

A

Spironolactone (K-sparing diuretic)

may result in blocking androgens leading to menstrual cycle irregularities in females or gynecomastia in males

211
Q

Equation for SV

A

EDV - ESV

212
Q

Equation for Ejection fraction (EF)

A

EF = SV/EDV

213
Q

Prostaglandins dilate or constrict afferent arterioles?

A

Dilate

So if taking NSAID then it will constrict afferent arteriole and cause dec RPF and GFR

214
Q

What drug is used to treat chronic gout when the cause is under secretion of uric acids?

A

Probenecid

215
Q

Keloids result from excessive collagen formation during the remodeling phase of wound healing, which occurs due to overexpression of (blank) and excessive (blank)

A

transformation growth factor beta and excessive fibroblast proliferation

216
Q

What psychiatric disorder is characterized by magical thinking, eccentric behavior, and paranoia

A

schizotypal personality disorder

217
Q

(blank) is produced by the Sertoli cells and is a physiological inhibitor of FSH secretion

A

Inhibin B

218
Q

(blank) stimulates the release of testosterone from (blank) cells

A

LH and Leydig cells

219
Q

most common cause of encephalitis outbreaks in the US

A

Arboviruses, small RNA viruses transmitted by biting arthropods

220
Q

Leakage with coughing, lifting, sneezing? Which incontinence and etiology

A

Stress

Decreased urethral sphincter tone, urethral hypermobility

221
Q

Sudden, overwhelming urge to urinate? Which incontinence and etiology

A

Urge

detrusor hyperactivity

222
Q

Incomplete emptying & persistent involuntary dribbling

Which incontinence and etiology

A

Overflow

Impaired detrusor contractility, bladder outlet obstruction

223
Q

Hartnup disease is caused by impaired transport of neutral amino acids in the small intestine and proximal tubule of the kidney. Symptoms include (blank) and (blank), which occur as a result of (blank) deficiency. The dx can be confirmed through detection of excessive amounts of neutral amino acids in the urine

A

pellagra-like skin eruptions and cerebellar ataxia

niacin

224
Q

Which marker for HBV is seen in immunized individuals?

A

HbsAB (IgG) will also see this in resolved HBV infection with IgG HBcAB

225
Q

Which marker for HBV is seen during the window period?

A

HBcAB (IgM)

226
Q

Head and Neck sympathetic reflex

A

T1-4

227
Q

Heart sympathetic reflex

A

T1-5 (left)

228
Q

Respiratory system sympathetic reflex

A

T2-7

229
Q

Esophagus sympathetic reflex

A

T2-8

230
Q

Upper GI tract sympathetic reflex

A

T5-9

231
Q

Middle GI tract sympathetic reflex

A

T10-11

232
Q

Lower GI tract sympathetic reflex

A

T12-L2

233
Q

Appendix/Cecum sympathetic reflex

A

T10-12

234
Q

Arms sympathetic reflex

A

T2-8

235
Q

Kidneys/Upper ureters/gonads sympathetic reflex

A

T10-11

236
Q

Lower ureters sympathetic reflex

A

T12-L1

237
Q

Bladder sympathetic reflex

A

T11-L2

238
Q

Uterus/Cervix sympathetic reflex

A

T10-L2

239
Q

Erectile tissue sympathetic reflex

A

T11-L2

240
Q

Prostate sympathetic reflex

A

T12-L2

241
Q

Legs

A

T11-L2

242
Q

What consists of the portal triad? What ligament is it in?

A

Common bile duct, hepatic artery, portal vein

Hepatoduodenal ligament

243
Q

Postglomerular obstruction (kidney stone or ureteral strictures) causes (increased or decreased) hydrostatic pressures with Bowman’s space -> leads to (increase or decrease) in net ultrafiltration pressure and GFR

A

Increased

Decreased GFR

244
Q

Reactivation TB affects upper or lower lobes of lung?

A

Upper lung

245
Q

What bones come together to form the jugular foramen? What CN exit here?

A

Occipital and temporal

CN IX, X, XI

246
Q

Which CN’s course through the cavernous sinuses?

A

CN III, VI, V1, V2, VI

247
Q

DOC for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine

248
Q

Mechanism by which most indirect inguinal hernias occur is

A

patent processus vaginalis

249
Q

Mechanism by which most direct inguinal hernias occur is

A

weakened abdominal musculature

250
Q

Most sensitive marker for pancreatic cancer is

A

CA 19-9

251
Q

What marker does this describe? sialylated form of Lewis blood group antigen a

A

Ca19-9 Pancreatic cancer marker

252
Q

Ovarian cancer marker?

A

CA 125

253
Q

Medullary thyroid cancer marker?

A

calcitonin

254
Q

Colorectal cancer marker?

A

CEA

255
Q

Marcus Gunn pupil is caused by lesion to what?

A

Optic nerve (CN II), afferent pupillary response defect

256
Q

Classic position to treat anterior lumbar tenderpoints AL2,4,5 is to

A

stand on opposite side of table, flex knees to 90 degrees, sidebend the ankles away, and rotate torso toward the tenderpoint

257
Q

BRCA1 (tumor suppressor or proto oncogene) and function?

A

Tumor suppressor

homologous recombination mediated repair

258
Q

Addison Disease

A

insufficiency of adrenal cortex, leads to low levels of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. In response to low production of adrenal cortex hormones, the pituitary increases production of ACTH and melanocyte stimulating hormone leading to increased pigment production

259
Q

Cholinergic Toxicity Mnemonic

A 
DUMBBELS
Diarrhea/diaphoresis
Urination
Miosis
Bronchospasm
Bradycardia
Emesis
Lacrimation
Salivation
260
Q

Anesthetics with (high or low) tissue solubility are characterized by large arteriovenous concentrations gradients and (slower or faster) onsets of action?

A

High

Slower

261
Q

Dorsal interossei are responsible for (blank) the fingers

A

abducting

262
Q

Meissner corpuscle

A

detection of light discrimatory touch by the palms and digits of the hands and the soles of the feet

263
Q

Bosentan treats pulmonary HTN by competitively (antagonizing or agonizing) (blank) receptors, thus, decreasing pulmonary vascular resistance

A

antagonizing endothelin-1 receptors

264
Q

Blank is the most common breast tumor in women under age 25. Histology findings?

A

Fibroadenoma

firm, rubbery, motile, well-demarcated mass

265
Q

thoracic duct is responsible for draining what?

A

lower limbs, pelvis, abdomen, left thorax, left upper limb, and L side of the head and neck

266
Q

Drug Half life (t1/2) equation

A

(0.7 * Vd) / Cl
Vd is volume of distribution
Cl is clearance

267
Q

(Blank) carcinoma is the most common skin cancer, but fortunately has low risk of metastasis

A

Basal cell

268
Q

Characteristic of basal cell carcinoma

A

incidence of sun exposure, rolled edges, central umbilication, telangiectasia, and friability, pearly

269
Q

Medial ankle (eversion) sprains cause damage to what ligament?

A

Deltoid ligament group

270
Q

Danazol MOA and what condition does it treat?

A

synthetic steroid that acts by negatively inhibiting the anterior pituitary, leading to suppression of FSH and LH release
Endometriosis

271
Q

unilateral, sudden loss of vision described by pts as “window shade coming down on the eye”

A

Retinal detachment involves separation of the retinal layer from the epithelial layer
Associated with Marfan Syndrome

272
Q

Specificity equation

A

SPIN -> rule in

TN/ (TN+FP)

273
Q

Sensitivity equation

A

SNOUT -> rule out disease

TP/ (TP+FN)

274
Q

Kallman syndrome (pathophysiology, symptoms)

A

form of hyopgonadotropic hypogonadism caused by decreased synthesis and impaired migration of gonadotropin-releasing hormone in the hypothalamus -> dec synthesis GnRH -> decreased FSH and LH from anterior pituitary
Absent or delayed puberty
Lack of sense of smell

275
Q

What is used to treat TCA overdose?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

276
Q

Whipple disease (what is it caused by and what are symptoms)

A 
Tropheryma whippelii
 malabsorption syndrome (steatorrhea), joint pain, and CNS symptoms. Small intestinal biopsy shows PAS positive staining
277
Q

R sided heart murmurs (increase or decrease) in intensity during inspiration?

A

Increase

and they decrease during expiration

278
Q

P53 tumor suppressor or oncogene? Which part of cell cycle does it affect?

A

Tumor suppressor

arrests the cell cycle at the G1/S point in order for repair or apoptosis to occur

279
Q

RAS tumor suppressor or proto-oncogene?

A

Protooncogene

Activation encourages cell growth -> continuous activation leads to uninhibited cell growth

280
Q

Rb tumor suppressor or proto-oncogene?

A

tumor suppressor

during G1 phase of cell cycle

281
Q

Antibody seen in Graves disease?

A

Anti-thyroid stimulating hormone receptor antibodies

282
Q

Which CN’s are responsible for the afferent and efferent part of corneal reflex

A

Afferent -> CN V1

Efferent -> CN VII

283
Q

Hemiballismus What is it? Where is the lesion? Most common cause?

A

unilateral flailing of a limb
caused by disruption of the contralateral subthalamic nucleus (which is part of Basal Ganglia)
The MCC of hemiballismus is lacunar infarct

284
Q

(blank) artery and (blank) nerve run together along the posterior aspect of the humerus. Midshaft fractures of the humerus risk injury to these structures

A

Deep brachial and radial

285
Q

Mnemonic for normal pressure hydrocephalus symptoms?

A

Wet, wacky/weird, and wobbly

Normal pressure hydrocephalus presents classically with gait difficulty, cognitive disturbance, and urinary incontinence

286
Q

Mnemonic for multiple myeloma defining symptoms?

A

CRAB

hypercalcemia, renal dysfunction, anemia, bone pain or fracture

287
Q

(Irreversible or reversible) inhibition decreases Vmax, while (competitive or noncompetitive) inhibition increases Km

A

Irreversible

Competitive

288
Q

Starling equation for net filtration

A 
Net filtration = (Pc - Pi) - (Oc -Oi)
Pc is capillary hydrostatic pressure
Pi is interstitial hydrostatic pressure
Oc is capillary oncotic pressure
Oi is interstitial oncotic pressure
289
Q

Ehlers Danlos syndrome (what collagen does it affect? Symptoms?)

A

Types III and V
presents with hypermobile joints, elastic skin, and frequent bruising. Also causes weakness of vessels, leading to aneurysm formation and rupture

290
Q

Posterior S1 TP (location and tx position)

A

medial to PSIS at S1 level

Posterior to anterior pressure on opposite ILA

291
Q

Posterior S2,3,4 midline TP (location and tx position)

A

Midline on sacrum at corresponding level
PS2: posterior to anterior pressure midline to the sacral apex
PS3: flexion or extension
PS4: posterior to anterior pressure midline on sacral base

292
Q

PS5 TP (location and tx position)

A

Medial and superior to ILA

Posterior to anterior pressure on opposite sacral base

293
Q

Thyroglossal ducts cysts are derived from the epithelial remnants of the thyroglossal duct that forms during gestation from the (blank) and (blank) pharyngeal pouches

A

1st and 2nd

294
Q

Meiniere disease (symptoms)

A

causes episodic vertigo, unilateral hearing loss, ear fullness or pressure, and tinnitus. It is thought to be result from excess endolymphatic fluid

295
Q

(Blank) casts on UA are associated with chronic renal failure

A

Broad waxy

296
Q

Tx of choice for nocturnal enuresis is (blank) which is an ADH analog and (increases/decreases) urine osmolarity (concentrates urine)

A

Desmopressin

increases

297
Q

Drugs with (high or low) blood/gas partition coefficients are more soluble in the blood, demonstrate slower equilibration with the brain and have longer onset times

A

High

298
Q

Leukemoid reaction is a significant leukocytosis (>50,000) that occurs in response to an underlying condition, commonly severe infection. Blood smear often shows (blank) as well as increased neutrophil precursors (bands, metamyelocytes, myelocytes). The leukocyte alkaline phosphate score is normal or decreased

A

neutrophilia with reactive features (Dohle bodies -basophilic oval inclusions in mature neutrophils)

299
Q

HVLA is a (direct or indirect) and (passive or active) technique

A

Direct and passive

300
Q

MC form of testicular cancer? What is a risk factor for it?

A

Seminoma

cryptorchidism

301
Q

Plummer-Vinson syndrome is characterized by (blank), and (blank) anemia. Findings associated with (blank) deficiency include koilonychia (spoon shaped nails) and shiny red tongue

A

dysphagia (esophageal web formation), and iron deficiency

Iron

302
Q

SLE renal pathology?

A

diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (Class IV lupus nephritis)
Wire loop lesions

303
Q

Aspirin can increase (blank) production, leading to bronchospasm in pts prone to allergies or asthma

A

leukotriene

304
Q

Charcot triad and what disease it is associated with?

A

Fever, jaundice, and RUQ pain
Acute ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection of the biliary tree, occurring most often as a result of a stone in the common bile duct,

305
Q

Treatment Position for Posterior rib 2-10 TP

A

sidebend away, rotate away, and minimal flexion

306
Q

Treatment position for anterior rib 2-10 TP

A

sidebending toward, rotate toward, and varying degrees of flexion

307
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Systolic or diastolic murmur?
Louder or softer with squatting/leg raising?
Louder or softer with valsalva?

A

Systolic
Softer (inc preload)
Louder (dec preload)

308
Q

(Blank) is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in children with sickle cell disease

A

Salmonella

309
Q

Commonly tested reportable diseases:

A 
STD (HIV, gonorrhea, syphilis)
Hepatitis - A,B,C
Childhood (mumps, measles, rubella, chicken pox)
diarrhea (Salmonella, Shigella)
Tuberculosis
310
Q

Caloric restriction leads to increased (blank) levels along with decreased (blank) and (blank) levels

A

Ghrelin
Insulin and leptin
Ghrelin stimulates appetite and promotes weight gain. Leptin and insulin act in the CNS to decrease appetite.

311
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism causes increased (blank) reabsorption in the renal collecting tubules, leading to increased urinary excretion of (blank and blank). Pts typically have secondary hypertension as well as hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis. The serum Na concentration remains normal due to aldosterone escape

A

Na

K and H

312
Q

The normal V/Q ratio at the apex of the lung is (blank) and at the base of the lung it is close to (blank). Increases in ventilation or decreases in perfusion will (increase or decrease) V/Q

A

3.0
0.6
Increase

313
Q

Tx position for posterior C1 inion TP and location

A

inferior nuchal line, just lateral to inion

Flexion of OA

314
Q

PC1 TP occiput location and treatment position

A

inferior nuchal line midway btw inion and mastoid on splenius capitis
Extension of OA

315
Q

PC2 occiput TP location and treatment position

A

Inferior nuchal line within semispinalis capitis muscle

Extension of OA

316
Q

Treatment of PC2- 8 midline and lateral TP

A

Extension SARA

317
Q

Treatment of PC3 midline TP

A

Flexion SARA

318
Q

Brown-Sequard syndrome involves spinal cord (blank) injury that results in (ipsilateral/contralateral) hemiplegia, (ipsilateral/contralateral) loss of vibration light touch and proprioception, and (ipsilateral/contralateral) loss of pain and temp sensation

A

hemi-section
Ipsilateral
Ipsilateral
Contralateral

319
Q

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include

A

hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized behavior

320
Q

Tx position for posterior rib 1 TP

A

sidebend away, rotate towards, and slight extension

321
Q

The (blank) vein of the portal venous system anastomoses with the (blank) veins of the systemic venous system. Portal HTN may lead to engorgement of these vessels, causing caput medusae.

A

paraumbilical

epigastric

322
Q

darkening of urine after exposure to air, blue-black discoloration of cartilage and skin, and debilitating osteoarthropathy (pigment deposition in spine and large joints)? What disease is this? What is the deficiency?

A

Alkaptonuria is an AR disorder due to a defect in homogenitisic acid dioxygenase (impaired tyrosine metabolism)
DX by inc homogenitisic acid levels in urine

323
Q

Why is heparin preferred over warfarin for anticoagulant in pregnancy?

A

Heparin has a high molecular weight and cannot cross the placenta

324
Q

Tx position of inguinal TP

A

flexion, adduction, and internal rotation

325
Q

Leads V1-4 -> location of MI and artery

A

Anterior

LAD

326
Q

Leads V1-2 -> location of MI and artery

A

Septum

LAD

327
Q

I, aVL, V5, V6 -> location of MI and artery

A

Left lateral

Left circumflex

328
Q

II, III, aVF -> location of MI and artery

A

Inferior

RCA

329
Q

aVR and V1 -> location of MI and artery

A

right atrium

RCA

330
Q

MC thyroid cancer? What mutation does it have?

A

Papillary thyroid cancer

BRAF

331
Q

(What immunoglobulin) can cross the placenta, directly opsonize pathogens, and indirectly enhance phagocytosis by activating complement

A

IgG

332
Q

(Blank) causes destruction of oligodendrocytes, cell located in the (CNS or PNS) that produce myelin

A

Multiple sclerosis

CNS

333
Q

Grave’s disease will have serum that has (high/ow) T4, (high/low) free T4, (high/low) TSH, and (high/low) I-123 uptake

A

High T4
High free T4
Low TSH
High I-123 uptake

334
Q

During craniosacral flexion does AP diameter of the head increase or decrease? What do paired cranial bones do? Does transverse diameter increase or decrease? Sacrum movement?

A

AP diameter decrease
Externally rotate
Transverse increase
Sacrum moves posterior and counternutates

Missed Q Bank Q's (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions