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CCNA-200-301-Questions > Questions 1 > Flashcards

Questions 1 Flashcards

Various Questions for CCNA

1
Q

You have four RSTP PVST+ links between switches and want to aggregate the bandwidth. What solution will you use?

A. EtherChannel
B. PortFast
C. BPDU Channel
D. VLANs
E. EtherBundle
A

A. Cisco’s EtherChannel can bundle up to eight ports between switches to provide resiliency and more bandwidth between switches.

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2
Q 
What configuration parameters must be configured the same between switches for LACP to form a channel? (Choose three.)
A. Virtual MAC address
B. Port speeds
C. Duplex
D. PortFast enabled
E. Allowed VLAN information
A

B, C, E. All the ports on both sides of every link must be configured exactly the same between switches or it will not work. Speed, duplex, and allowed VLANs must match.

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3
Q

You reload a router with a configuration register setting of 0x2101. What will the router do when it reloads?
A. The router enters setup mode.
B. The router enters ROM monitor mode.
C. The router boots the mini-IOS in ROM.
D. The router expands the first IOS in flash memory into RAM.

A

C. 2100 boots the router into ROM monitor mode, 2101 loads the mini-IOS from ROM, and 2102 is the default and loads the IOS from flash.

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4
Q 
Which of the following commands provides the product ID and serial number of a router?
A. show license
B. show license feature
C. show version
D. show license udi
A

D. The show license udi command displays the unique device identifier (UDI) of the router, which comprises the product ID (PID) and serial number of the router.

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5
Q 
Which command allows you to view the technology options and licenses that are supported on your router along with several status variables?
A. show license
B. show license feature
C. show license udi
D. show version
A

B. The show license feature command allows you to view the technology package licenses and feature licenses that are supported on your router along with several status variables related to software activation and licensing, both licensed and unlicensed features.

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6
Q 
You need to look at past network data in DNA Center. How long can you look back into the DNA snapshot?
A. 1 Day
B. 3 Days
C. 5 Days
D. 1 Week
E. 1 Month
A

D. DNA Center stores the network snapshot for one week.

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7
Q 
You want to send a console message to a syslog server, but you only want to send status messages of 3 and lower. Which of the following commands will you use?
A. logging trap emergencies
B. logging trap errors
C. logging trap debugging
D. logging trap notifications
E. logging trap critical
F. logging trap warnings
G. logging trap alerts
A

B. There are eight different trap levels. If you choose, for example level 3, level 0 through level 3 messages will be displayed.

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8
Q 
What command is used to view the IPv6-to-MAC-address resolution table on a Cisco router?
A. show ip arp
B. show ipv6 arp
C. show ip neighbors
D. show ipv6 neighbors
E. show arp
A

D. The command show ipv6 neighbors provides the IPv6-to-MAC-address resolution table on a router.

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9
Q

An IPv6 ARP entry is listed as with a status of REACH. What can you conclude about the IPv6-to-MAC-address mapping?
A. The interface has communicated with the neighbor address and the mapping is current.
B. The interface has not communicated within the neighbor reachable time frame.
C. The ARP entry has timed out.
D. IPv6 can reach the neighbor address but the addresses has not yet been resolved.

A

A. If the state is STALE when the interface has not communicated within the neighbor reachable time frame, the next time the neighbor communicates, the state will be REACH.

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10
Q 
Which configuration management solutions require agents? (Choose two.)
A. Puppet
B. Ansible
C. Chef
D. Cisco IOS
A

A, C. Puppet and Chef require you to install an agent on the node before the configuration
server can manage it.

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11
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a Ruby-based configuration management tool that uses custom manifest files to
configure devices.
A. Ansible
B. Puppet
C. Chef
D. Manifold
A

B. Puppet is a Ruby-based configuration management tool that uses custom manifest files to configure devices.

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12
Q 
You have two OSPF directly configured routers that are not forming an adjacency. What should you check? (Choose three.)
A. Process ID
B. Hello and dead timers
C. Link cost
D. Area
E. IP address/subnet mask
A

B, D, E. In order for two OSPF routers to create an adjacency, the Hello and dead timers must match, and they must both be configured into the same area, as well as being in the same subnet.

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13
Q

When do two adjacent routers enter the 2WAY state?
A. After both routers have received Hello information
B. After they have exchanged topology databases
C. When they connect only to a DR or BDR
D. When they need to exchange RID information

A

A. The process starts by sending out Hello packets. Every listening router will then add the originating router to the neighbor database. The responding routers will reply with all of their Hello information so that the originating router can add them to its own neighbor table. At this point, we will have reached the 2WAY state—only certain routers will advance beyond to this.

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14
Q

You want to use the Command Runner. What is this used for?
A. Pushing OSPF configuration
B. Pushing Show commands and viewing the results
C. Pushing ACL configuration
D. Pushing Interface configurations
E. Pushing a banner configuration

A

B. The Command Runner is a useful tool for pushing show commands to devices and viewing the results.

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15
Q 
What type of switching is done in a network fabric?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 7
A

B. A fabric entirely consists of layer 3 only.

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16
Q

Which statement about GRE is not true?
A. GRE is stateless and has no flow control.
B. GRE has security.
C. GRE has additional overhead for tunneled packets, at least 24 bytes.
D. GRE uses a protocol-type field in the GRE header so any layer 3 protocol can be used through the tunnel.

A

B. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) has no built-in security mechanisms.

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17
Q 
Which QoS mechanism will drop traffic if a session uses more than the allotted bandwidth?
A. Congestion management
B. Shaping
C. Policing
D. Marking
A

C. When traffic exceeds the allocated rate, the policer can take one of two actions. It can either drop traffic or re-mark it to another class of service. The new class usually has a higher drop probability.

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18
Q

IPv6 unicast routing is running on the Corp router. Which of the following addresses would show up with the show ipv6 int brief command?
Corp# sh int f0/0
FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is AmdFE, address is 000d.bd3b.0d80 (bia 000d.bd3b.0d80) [output cut]

A. FF02::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3b:0d80
B. FE80::3c3d:2d:bdff:fe3b:0d80
C. FE80::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3b:0d80
D. FE80::3c3d:2d:ffbd:3bfe:0d80

A

B. This can be a hard question if you don’t remember to invert the 7th bit of the first octet in the MAC address! Always look for the 7th bit when studying for the Cisco R/S, and when using eui-64, invert it.
The eui-64 autoconfiguration then inserts an FF:FE in the middle of the 48-bit MAC address to create a unique IPv6 address.

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19
Q 
A host sends a type of NDP message providing the MAC address that was requested. Which type of NDP was sent?
A. NA
B. RS
C. RA
D. NS
A

A. The NDP neighbor advertisement (NA) contains the MAC address. A neighbor solicitation (NS) was initially sent asking for the MAC address.

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20
Q 
Each field in an IPv6 address is how many bits long?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 32
D. 128
A

B. Each field in an IPv6 address is 16 bits long.

An IPv6 address is a total of 128 bits.

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21
Q

What protocols are used for the following TCP/IP Layer?

Application

A

HTTP, POP3, SMTP

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22
Q

What protocols are used for the following TCP/IP Layer?

Transport

A

TCP, UDP

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23
Q

What protocols are used for the following TCP/IP Layer?

Internet / Network

A

IP, ICMP

24
Q

What protocols are used for the following TCP/IP Layer?

Data Link & Physical

A

Ethernet, 802.11 (Wi-Fi)

25
Q

To enable OSPFv3, which of the following would you use?
A. Router(config-if)#ipv6 ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0
B. Router(config-if)#ipv6 router rip 1
C. Router(config)#ipv6 router eigrp 10
D. Router(config-rtr)#no shutdown
E. Router(config-if)#ospf ipv6 10 area 0

A

A. To enable OSPFv3, you enable the protocol at the interface level, as with RIPng. The command string is area-id.
It’s important to understand that area 0 and area 0.0.0.0
both describe area 0.

26
Q

Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.

A

B, D. The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256–254). So this makes the subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254.
The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is
3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254.

27
Q 
Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides?
A. 192.168.168.129–190
B. 192.168.168.129–191
C. 192.168.168.128–190
D. 192.168.168.128–192
A

A. 256 – 192 = 64, so 64 is our block size. Just count in increments of 64 to find our
subnet: 64 + 64 = 128. 128 + 64 = 192.
The subnet is 128, the broadcast address is 191,
and the valid host range is the numbers in between, or 129–190.

28
Q 
Which of the following is considered to be the inside host’s address after translation?
A. Inside local
B. Outside local
C. Inside global
D. Outside global
A

C. An inside global address is considered to be the IP address of the host on the private network after translation.

29
Q 
How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 12
A

D. Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains per port.

30
Q 
Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router?
A. line telnet 0 4
B. line aux 0 4
C. line vty 0 4
D. line con 0
A

C. The command line vty 0 4 places you in a prompt that will allow you to set or change your Telnet password.

31
Q 
Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?
A. show all access-lists
B. show access-lists
C. show ip interface
D. show interface
A

B. To see the contents of all access lists, use the show access-lists command.

32
Q

What does a VLAN do?
A. Acts as the fastest port to all servers
B. Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port
C. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork
D. Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain

A

C. VLANs break up broadcast domains at layer 2.

33
Q 
If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, choose the best answer for the Cisco objectives.
A. erase startup
B. delete running
C. erase flash
D. erase running
A

A. The command erase startup-config deletes the configuration stored in NVRAM.

34
Q 
Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts?
A. TCP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. BootP
A

C. ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send messages back to an
originating router.

35
Q 
What DNS record do you need to create for APs to automatically discover the WLC.
A. CISCO-WLC-CONTROLLER
B. WLC-CONTROLLER
C. CISCO-AP-CONTROLLER
D. CISCO-DISCOVER-CONTROLLER
E. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER
A

E. For the DNS method you need to create a A record for CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER that points to the WLC management IP.

36
Q

Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?
A. Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches.
B. VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand switches are allowed.
C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.
D. You need to have a trunk link configured between switches in order to send information about more than one VLAN down the link.

A

D. Switches send information about only one VLAN down a link unless it is configured as a trunk link.

37
Q 
Which two of the following commands will place network 10.2.3.0/24 into area 0? (Choose two.)
A. router eigrp 10
B. router ospf 10
C. router rip
D. network 10.0.0.0
E. network 10.2.3.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
F. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area0
G. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
A

B, G. To enable OSPF, you must first start OSPF using a process ID. The number is irrelevant; just choose a number from 1 to 65,535 and you’re good to go. After you start theOSPF process, you must configure interfaces on which to activate OSPF using the network
command with wildcards and specification of an area. Option F is wrong because there must be a space after the parameter area and before you list the area number.

38
Q 
What command do you use to lookup a module in Ansible?
A. Ansible-doc
B. Ansible-execute
C. Ansible-Playbook
D. Run-Playbook
A

C. Ansible uses the ansible-doc command to look up a module and how to use it.

39
Q

If routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
A. The lowest IP address of any physical interface
B. The highest IP address of any physical interface
C. The lowest IP address of any logical interface
D. The highest IP address of any logical interface

A

B. At the moment of OSPF process startup, the highest IP address on any active interface will be the router ID (RID) of the router. If you have a loopback interface configured
(logical interface), then that will override the interface IP address and become the RID of the router automatically.

40
Q 
What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN Trunking Protocol
B. VLAN
C. 802.1q
D. ISL
A

C, D. VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is not right because it has nothing to do with trunking except that it sends VLAN information across a trunk link.
802.1q and ISL encapsulations are used to configure trunking on a port.

41
Q 
What’s the default QoS queue for a WLAN?
A. Gold
B. Platinum
C. Bronze
D. Silver
E. Diamond
A

D. WLANs default to silver queue, which effectively means no QoS is being utilized.

42
Q 
Which port does TACACS+ use for accounting?
A. UDP 49
B. UDP 1645
C. UDP 1812
D. UDP 1813
E. TCP 49
A

E. TACACS+ uses port TCP 49 for all operations.

43
Q 
What command is used to create a backup configuration?
A. copy running backup
B.copy running-config startup-config
C. config mem
D. wr net
A

B. The command to back up the configuration on a router is copy running-config startup-config.

44
Q 
1000Base-T is which IEEE standard?
A. 802.3f
B. 802.3z
C. 802.3ab
D. 802.3ae
A

C. IEEE 802.3ab is the standard for 1 Gbps on twisted-pair.

45
Q 
Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ARP
A

C. User Datagram Protocol is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and DHCP uses this connectionless service.

46
Q

Which of the following best describes a Resource in Restful API?
A. The specific path to the resource you’re trying to access through the API
B. The security token for the request.
C. Filtering options for the request
D. The full URL

A

A. The resource section of the URI points to the specific.

47
Q 
Which command is used to determine if an access list is enabled on a particular interface?
A. show access-lists
B. show interface
C. show ip interface
D. show interface access-lists
A

C. The show ip interface command will show you if any interfaces have an outbound or inbound access list set.

48
Q

Which of the following statements is true with regard to ISL and 802.1q?
A. 802.1q encapsulates the frame with control information; ISL inserts an ISL field along
with tag control information.
B. 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
C. ISL encapsulates the frame with control information; 802.1q inserts an 802.1q field
along with tag control information.
D. ISL is a standard.

A

C. Unlike ISL, which encapsulates the frame with control information, 802.1q inserts an 802.1q field along with tag control information.

49
Q 
The protocol data unit (PDU) encapsulation is completed in which order?
A. Bits, frames, packets, segments, data
B. Data, bits, segments, frames, packets
C. Data, segments, packets, frames, bits
D. Packets, frames, bits, segments, data
A

C. The PDU encapsulation method defines how data is encoded as it goes through eachlayer of the TCP/IP model. Data is segmented at the Transport later, packets created at the Network layer, frames at the Data Link layer, and finally, the Physical layer encodes the 1s and 0s into a digital signal.

50
Q

Based on the configuration shown below, what statement is true?
S1(config)#ip routing
S1(config)#int vlan 10
S1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
S1(config-if)#int vlan 20
S1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0

A. This is a multilayer switch.
B. The two VLANs are in the same subnet.
C. Encapsulation must be configured.
D. VLAN 10 is the management VLAN.

A

A. With a multilayer switch, enable IP routing and create one logical interface for each VLAN using the interface vlan number command and you’re now doing inter-VLAN
routing on the backplane of the switch!

51
Q

Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP transport layer protocols? (Choose two answers.)

a. Ethernet
b. HTTP
c. IP
d. UDP
e. SMTP
f. TCP

A

D and F

52
Q

Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP data-link layer protocols? (Choose two answers.)

a. Ethernet
b. HTTP
c. IP
d. UDP
e. SMTP
f. TCP
g. PPP

A

A and G

53
Q

The process of HTTP asking TCP to send some data and making sure that it is received correctly is an example of what?

a. Same-layer interaction
b. Adjacent-layer interaction
c. OSI model
d. All of these answers are correct.

A

B - Adjacent-layer interaction.

54
Q

The process of TCP on one computer marking a TCP segment as segment 1, and the receiving computer then acknowledging the receipt of TCP segment 1 is an example of what?

a. Data encapsulation
b. Same-layer interaction
c. Adjacent-layer interaction
d. OSI model
e. All of these answers are correct.

A

B - Same-layer interaction.

55
Q

The process of a web server adding a TCP header to the contents of a web page, followed by adding an IP header and then adding a data-link header and trailer, is an example of what?

a. Data encapsulation
b. Same-layer interaction
c. OSI model
d. All of these answers are correct.

A

A - Data encapsulation.

56
Q

Which OSI encapsulation term can be used instead of the term frame?

a. Layer 1 PDU
b. Layer 2 PDU
c. Layer 3 PDU
d. Layer 5 PDU
e. Layer 7 PDU

A

B - Layer 2 PDU

CCNA-200-301-Questions (1 decks)

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