Question of the Day Flashcards

1
Q

Which animal is most vulnerable to severe spinal cord damage when handled improperly?
A - Boa constrictor
B - Ferret
C - Cat
D - Rabbit
E - Hamster

A

D- Rabbit
Rabbits have extremely powerful hind legs and restraint without proper control of the hind legs can cause lumbar laxation (and severe spinal cord damage). This is particularly important to keep in mind if the rabbit thrashes and kicks excessively.

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2
Q

Which opioid choice provides good long-duration analgesia for mild to moderate pain in cats and can be given IM, IV, SQ and transmucosal?
A - Oxymorphone
B - Buprenorphine
C - Naloxone
D - Morphine
E - Butorphanol

A

B - Buprenorphine
It is one of the most popular and reliable opioid analgesics for use in cats. Cats are difficult to evaluate for pain. Buprenorphine has consistently provided good analgesia for cats with mild to moderate pain. Do not use it in patients with severe pain. It is a partial mu-agonist, it does not cause many of the side effects of pure mu-agonists such as nausea, vomiting, and dysphoria. Duration is 6+ hours, onset is long (30 mins-1 hour), depending on the route of administration. It is difficult to reverse as it binds very tightly to the mu-receptor. Can give transmucosal with almost 100% absorption as the feline mouth pH is 8-9.

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3
Q

Which one of the following choices best describes what an elevation of the peripheral neutrophil count means?
A - Chronic infection with a virus
B - Chronic parasitic infestation
C - Recent reaction to an allergen
D - Recent systemic inflammatory response
E - Chronic systemic inflammatory response

A

D- Recent systemic inflammatory response
This will be reflected by increased numbers of neutrophils in the blood since these cells usually spend 5-10 hours in circulation before migrating into the tissues.

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4
Q

Hemoglobin concentration is roughly what percentage of packed cell volume (PCV) in most domestic animals?
A - 33% of PCV
B - 25% of PCV
C - 10% of PCV
D - 50% of PCV

A

A- 33% of PCV
Normal hemoglobin concentration (Hb, g/dL) is about 1/3 (33%) of the packed cell volume (PCV) in normal dogs, cats, horses, cows, sheep, goats, and pigs. In a cat with a PCV of 30%, the Hb will be roughly 10 g/dL. In a dog with a PCV of 45%, the Hb will be roughly 15 g/dL. Hb is the protein in erythrocytes that helps transport oxygen.

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5
Q

The image shown below is of the hind end of a cow following calving.
What are the raised red structures seen on this placenta?
https://ci3.googleusercontent.com/meips/ADKq_NbsbE6MqUrinSMB4_o2nryE3yfs_3tj-9l05D0yJwf_8lnrqBzjWkodlwVA17JYKzPt6NlV9xhUnX5uNoJlQAF4Rd8Hf9E1CYng_g4qzbQMBi4uR4LzWTu7Dyq9m4q2=s0-d-e1-ft#https://zukureview.com/sites/default/files/2022-05/postcaflvingretake.jpg
A - Cotyledons
B - Fungal plaques
C - Caruncles
D - Amniotic hemorrhages
E - Avillous regions

A

A- Cotyledons
This is a normal-appearing bovine placenta. Cotyledons (fetal side) and caruncles (maternal side) make up the placentome, which are the areas of attachment between the fetal membranes and the endometrium of the cow.

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6
Q

A six-month-old female spayed Labrador retriever is presented for left pelvic limb lameness for a months duration. The owner reports that the dog is slow to rise from a lying position and bunny hops when chasing a ball. Exam reveals that the dog has decreased muscle mass of the left compared to the right pelvic limb. There is a decreased weight bearing on the left pelvic limb and a positive Ortolani sign.
Which of the following statements is correct based on the top differential?
A- juvenile pubic symphysiodesis is the treatment of choice
B- Orthopedic Foundation for Animals screen will predict future development of degenerative joint disease
C- Radiographic findings correlate closely with clinical signs
D- intra and extra-capsular surgical repair have similar success rates
E- Perform a triple pelvic osteotomy if no coxofemoral osteoarthritis

A

E- perform a triple pelvic osteotomy to improve acetabular coverage of the femoral heads in dogs with hip dysplasia without evidence of coxofemoral joint osteoarthritis, aka degenerative joint disease. This decreases the probability of future development of DJD due to joint laxity.
Hip dysplasia is a developmental Dz most common in young, large and giant breed dogs. use the Ortolani sign to assess for hip joint laxity.
Orthopedic Foundation for Animals evaluation is a subjective scoring of hip dysplasia performed in dogs 24 months of age or older.
Young dogs with hip dysplasia and evidence of DJD, Tx options include medical management, total hip replacement, or femoral head and neck incision.
Juvenile public symphysiodesis is only recommended in puppies at 14-20 weeks without DJD. Radiographic findings and clinical signs often do not correlate.

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7
Q

What image problems are avoided with proper bisecting radiograph technique of teeth?
A - Overlap of soft tissue
B - Increased scatter
C - Decreased contrast
D - Elongation

A

D- Elongation
The bisecting radiograph technique minimizes the image distortion that occurs because of an inability to place x-ray film parallel to the central axis of the tooth.
If you do not use the bisecting angle technique, a tooth may appear artificially elongated or foreshortened.
The bisecting radiograph technique is generally preferred for maxillary teeth as well as mandibular canines and incisors (rostral mandibular teeth).

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8
Q

What does it mean if a cat has physiologic nystagmus?

A - Genital malformation
B - Abnormally loud gastrointestinal sounds in the absence of a recent meal
C - Normal, rapid, involuntary movement of eyes as head moves side to side
D - Head shaking related to inner ear disturbance
E - Loss of balance

A

C- Normal, rapid, involuntary movement of the eyes as head moves side to side
Nystagmus can also be abnormal due to disease processes that may cause nystagmus when the head is stationary, or the eyes move in abnormal directions as the head moves. Vestibular disease can be peripheral or central.

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9
Q

What organism causes “rabbit syphilis”?
A - Cheyletiella yasguri
B - Pasteurella multocida
C - Encephalitozoon spp
D - Treponema paraluis-cuniculi
E - Francisella tularensis

A

E - Francisella tularensis
Think of dry, crusty exudates around the perineum, vulva, nostrils, and eyes. In spite of the name, it is not a zoonotic disease.

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10
Q

Which one of the following lab abnormalities is frequently seen with acetaminophen (Tylenol) toxicity in cats?
A - Toxic neutrophils
B - Increased red blood cells (polycythemia)
C - Alkalosis
D - Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)
E - Methemoglobinuria (brown urine)

A

E- Methemoglobinuria (brown urine). Oxidative damage to RBCs causes Heinz body anemia. More frequent in cats than dogs. Cats are deficient in glucuronyl transferase, so they have a limited ability to metabolize acetaminophen and aspirin.

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11
Q

Which of the following intravenous solutions are hypotonic?

A - 0.45% saline, 5% dextrose
B - Hetastarch, Vetstarch
C - 5% dextrose in 0.9% saline
D - Lactated Ringer’s solution, Normosol-R®
E - Plasmalyte 148, Normosol-M®

A

A- 0.45% saline, 5% dextrose
The osmolality of half strength or 0.45% saline is 155 mmol/L, dextrose is 252 most/L ( and the dextrose is quickly metabolized, leaving free water).
Hetastarch and Vetstarch are colloids composed of high molecular weight starches in saline, they are isotonic.
Normosol-R and LRS are balanced isotonic crystalloids.
Normosol-M is somewhat hypertonic. It’s not typically used in vet med. it has low levels of sodium and chloride nd more potassium than replacement type fluids.

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11
Q

What is another name for a thrombocyte?
A - Platelet
B - Basophil
C - Macrophage
D - Lymph node epithelial cell
E - Red blood cell parasite

A

A- Platelet
Help clot blood

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12
Q

What is the purpose of the collimator in an x-ray machine?
A - Maintains a vacuum environment
B - Prevents beta radiation from reaching the film
C - Decreases production of scatter radiation
D - Removes less energetic x-rays from the primary beam
E - Provides electricity needed to heat the filament

A

C - Decreases production of scatter radiation
A collimator is a beam-restricting device that decreases production of scatter radiation. This improves radiation safety for personnel. and improves image quality.

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13
Q

Which species uses sweating as the primary method of cooling?
A - Horse
B - Mouse
C - Pig
D - Cattle

A

A- Horse
The horse is the only domestic species to sweat as a primary method of heat dissipation.

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14
Q

A vet has prescribed phenylbutazone 2.2mg/kg PO PRN (but not more than once daily) for an older quarterhorse with osteoarthritis of the pastern joint.
What does PRN mean?
A- every other day
B- as needed
C- given as a paste
D - topically
E- in the feed

A

B- as needed
QOD means every other day, and EOD also means every other day

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15
Q

You are asked to set up a non-rebreathing anesthetic circuit for the next surgery case.
What kind of patient do you expect?
A - Miniature poodle under seven kg
B - Asthmatic bulldog
C - Obese Labrador
D - Siamese cat over 20 lbs
E - Greyhound with no body fat

A

A- miniature poodle under seven kg
A non-rebreathing circuit is better for smaller animals, under 7kg

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16
Q

Which of the following patients will benefit the most from the use of pre-emptive analgesia?

A - Horse with chronic laminitis
B - Beagle with a fractured dew claw
C - German shepherd with osteosarcoma of the humerus
D - Dog presented for ovariohysterectomy
E - Cat for an amputation following hit by car

A

D- Dog presented for OVH
They would benefit the most from pre-emptive analgesia because she is not painful before surgery. You intervene before an unexpected event or experience.

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16
Q

Which of the following correctly explains triage of emergency patients?
A - Sorting of patients into groups depending on their need for immediate intervention
B - When a fireman rescues a sick cat out of a tree
C - Scheduling of patients in need of surgery – must go, should go, go if time allows
D - Evaluation of emergencies by species, age, and sex
E - This is a type of lavage fluid that can be used in many types of wounds - sterile, clean, or contaminated

A

A- Sorting patients into groups depending on their need for immediate intervention

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17
Q

Which of the following types of hay is highest in calcium?
A - Barley hay
B - Bermuda grass hay
C - Oat hay
D - Alfalfa hay
E - Orchard grass hay

A

D- Alfalfa hay
It tends to be higher in calcium, protein, and energy. Important to know because feeding alfalfa hay is associated with the formation of stones in horses

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18
Q

Which choice might explain why a radiograph comes out very light and washed out?
A - High milliampere-seconds
B - Focal distance is too long
C - Prolonged exposure time
D - High kilovoltage

A

B- focal distance too long
too long a focal distance from the x-ray tube to the patient (fewer x-rays reach the film) can underexpose a radiograph. An underexposed radiograph may also occur if mAs or kV are set too low

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19
Q

What is a lumpectomy?
A - Enema removal of impacted feces
B - Removal of a mass or lump
C - Evacuation of stomach contents
D - Another term for biopsy
E - Fine needle aspirate

A

B- removal of a mass or lump

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20
Q

A four-year-old stallion is presented with urine scald, fecal retention, tailhead rubbing, and a right head tilt.
Rectal examination reveals atonia of the anus and rectum, however, no fracture is palpated.
Which one of the following tests help provide evidence of the top differential diagnosis?
A - Cervicothoracic spinal radiography
B - Tibial muscle and nerve biopsies
C - Search the pasture for yellow star thistle
D - Immunoblot against DNA fragments from P. tenuis
E - Antibodies against P2-myelin protein

A

E- antibodies against P2-myelin protein
Top differential for this horse with cauda equina signs plus cranial nerve signs is polyneuritis equi. Can have circulating antibodies against P2 myelin protein but many false positives. Other Dz to rule out would be equine herpesvirus-1 and equine protozoal encephalomyelitis
No definitive Tx and prognosis is poor

21
Q

Pemphigus foliaceus, pemphigus vulgaris, and bullous pemphigoid are examples of which type of immune-mediated disease?
A - Delayed hypersensitivity
B - Type III - Antigen-antibody complexes deposited in tissues
C - Type IV - Antigen triggers cell-mediated cytokine release, and production of cytotoxic T cells
D - Type II - Antibody binds cell antigen and activates complement
E - Type I - Immediate IGE-mediated hypersensitivity

A

D- Antibody binds cell antigen and activates complement
The antibody binds on a cell, and then the antibody-antigen complex activates the complement, causing cell lysis.
Think of rare, autoimmune skin diseases characterized by varying presentations of ulceration, crusting, pustules, vesicles

22
Q

Which of the following crystalloid fluids is hypertonic?
A - Lactated Ringer’s solution
B - 0.45% saline in 2.5% dextrose
C - 7% saline
D - 5% Dextrose
E - Normosol®R

A

C- 7% saline
It is a hypertonic solution used for fluid resuscitation in patients with shock

22
Q

An adult box turtle is presented for marked swelling at the left tympanic membrane with visible caseous material. Which one of the following choices can be an underlying cause for this problem?
A - Mycoplasmosis
B - Vitamin A deficiency
C - Septicemic cutaneous ulcerative disease (SCUD)
D - Pasteurella multocida
E - Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

B- Vitamin A deficiency
This is an aural access, which can occur secondary to vitamin A deficiency.
Captive terrestrial box turtles are most at risk, usually due to diets containing little vitamin A.
Other presentations of hypovitaminosis A include froth from the nose and renal disease

23
Q

A 50-lb mixed breed dog is heavily sedated with dexmedetomine and butorphanol given intravenously for repair of a laceration.
His mucous membranes are pale, capillary refill time is 2 seconds, heart rate is 56 beats per minute [N=70-120 bpm], respiratory rate is 10 breaths per minute [N=18-34 brpm].
Which of the following is the next best step?
A - No treatment is necessary, this is normal with alpha-2 agonists
B - Give an anti-cholinergic intramuscularly for the slow heart rate
C - Place an intravenous catheter and bolus 10 ml/kg of lactated Ringer’s
D - Perform an electrocardiogram to determine the type of bradycardia
E - Administer an NSAID IV to counter surgical pain

A

A- No treatment is necessary, this is normal with alpha 2 agonists.
Bradycardia is a very common side effect of alpha 2 agonists in all species. It is a reflex, a baroreceptor response to the initial hypertension that is caused by intense vasoconstriction. The hypertension causes a reflex increase in vagal tone, which slows the heart rate.

24
Q

What is the purpose of a curette?
A - Highly absorbent surgical sponge
B - Cauterize blood vessels
C - Scrape hard tissues
D - Hold intramedullary bone pins

A

C- scrape hard tissues
Is like a tiny, sharp ice cream scooper, used to scrape hard tissues like bone or cartilage

25
Q

A large herd of finishing swine is evaluated due to reduced weight gain. On examination, many pigs have dry coughs which are more apparent when the animals are moving around.
A group of pigs recently sent to slaughter from this farm had a high incidence of pneumonic lesions ventrally in the cardiac and apical pulmonary lobes.
What is the most likely cause of pneumonia in these pigs?
A - Swine influenza virus
B - PRRS virus
C - Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
D - Mannheimia hemolytica
E - Glaesserella parasuis

A

C- Mycoplasma hypopneumoniae
Aka enzootic pneumonia. Causes mild endemic respiratory disease in pigs characterized by a dry cough and reduced weight gain.

26
Q

The intratracheal (IT) route of medication administration can be used in emergencies and during cardiopulmonary resuscitation in small patients without an intravenous catheter.
However, not all drugs are safe to give IT. “NAVEL” is an acronym that corresponds to five emergency drugs that may be given IT.
What is the correct meaning of NAVEL in this regard?
A - Nifedipine, amphotericin B, vancomycin, enrofloxacin
B - Naloxone, atropine, vasopressin, epinephrine, lidocaine
C - Neomycin, amoxicillin, vincristine, etomidate,
D - Neostigmine, atipamezole, verapamil, enalapril, lisinopril

A

B- Naloxone, atropine, vasopressin, epinephrine, lidocaine
Vasopressin and epinephrine are vasoconstrictors that promote the redistribution of blood back to the heart.
Naloxone is an opioid reversal agent. Atropine is an anti-cholinergic for bradycardia, and lidocaine is an anti-arrhythmic for ventricular tachycardia.

27
Q

In cats, at what age is normal testicular descent complete?
A - 8 weeks
B - 14 days
C - 1 year
D - At birth
E - 6 months

A

D- at birth
Normally testes descend prenatally in cats and are in the scrotum at birth. The testes can move in and out of the inguinal canal until 6 months of age, so cannot make a definitive diagnosis of cryptorchidism until that time. Cryptorchidism occurs in approx. 1.3% of cats and is more common in dogs.

28
Q

A sow farm is seeing a sudden onset of diarrhea followed by collapse and death in piglets one to five days of age in the farrowing rooms. Necropsy on one of the piglets finds the lesions shown below.
What should be done next?
A - Prevent neonates from drinking sow’s colostrum
B - Treat affected piglets with antibiotics
C - Tilmicosin IM, all piglets, isolate sick ones
D - Vaccinate dams in middle third of pregnancy with bacterin
E - Treat newborn piglets at birth with type C antitoxin

A

E - Treat newborn piglets at birth with type C antitoxin
In acute outbreak of Clostridium perfringens type C, prophylactic type C antitoxin and/or antibiotic is protective if given within 2 hours of birth.

28
Q

What is another name for triple phosphate crystals?
A - Calcium carbonate
B - Calcium oxalate
C - Amorphous phosphate
D - Struvite

A

D- Struvite
Look like coffin lids, magnesium ammonium phosphate

29
Q

Ketamine is classified as which one of the following types of anesthetic agents?
A - Inhalant
B - Barbiturate
C - Dissociative
D - Opioid
E - Synthetic codeine analogue

A

C- Dissociative
Is a mild analgesic and is typically used with other agents such as benzodiazepines, alpha 2 agonists and opioids. Side effects include tremors and muscle rigidity. Can cause increased intraocular pressure and increased cardiac output. It is contraindicated in cats with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

30
Q

A 12-year-old Belgian draft horse gelding is presented with severe hyperkeratosis and scaling on the caudal aspects of all four pasterns. The parasite shown below is found on a skin scraping of one of the lesions.
Which one of the following choices is the correct diagnosis?
A - Chorioptic mange
B - Cheyletiellosis
C - Demodecosis
D - Trombiculiasis
E - Sarcoptic dermatitis

A

A - Chorioptic mange
Characterized by long legs and short pedicles.

31
Q

Which of the following is the predominant white blood cell type seen on this peripheral blood smear from a dog?
A - Eosinophil
B - Lymphocyte
C - Progranulocytes
D - Monocyte
E - Macrophage

A

A- Eosinophil
Eosinophilia - most often sen with allergic disorders or parasitism. They have granulocytes with a pink cytoplasm.

32
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the findings on this blood smear from a cow?
A - Poikilocytosis and groups of Anaplasma organisms
B - Anisocytosis of RBCs and clumping of platelets
C - Reticulocytes and agglutinated proteins
D - Spherocytes and granules from damaged eosinophils
E - Cytoxozoan parasites and degranulated mast cell

A

B - Anisocytosis of RBCs and clumping of platelets
The RBC’s have a variation of sizes. They are macrocytic and microcytic and are mixed with normal RBC’s. Often seen in diseases that cause anemia, especially when a regenerative response is present.

33
Q

The calf shown below was presented with ataxia, intention tremors, and hypermetria; all signs were present since birth.
The second image shows a normal bovine calf brain on the left and the brain from this calf on the right.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely cause of the disorder in this calf?
A - Copper deficiency
B - Organophosphate toxicity
C - Bovine viral diarrhea virus
D - Border disease
E - Caudal occipital malformation syndrome

A

C - Bovine viral diarrhea virus
In utero infection with BVD is a common cause of cerebellar hypoplasia in cattle.

33
Q

Which one of the following choices is evident on these radiographs from a ten-year-old cocker spaniel with anemia?
A - Metastatic disease
B - Normal radiographs
C - Renomegaly
D - Aspiration pneumonia
E - Hepatomegaly

A

A- Metastatic disease
There are multiple soft tissue nodules throughout the lung fields and two masses in the abdomen.

34
Q

A 12 week old chicken from a young backyard flock is presented for evaluation because of weight loss, decreased appetite, and diarrhea.
The irises in the affected bird are lighter than normal with irregular pupillary margins, and the hen does not have a normal pupillary light reflex (bottom chicken in image). Several other young birds appear to be growing poorly compared to the rest of the flock.
Based on the presumptive diagnosis, how can this problem be prevented going forward?
A - Buy only vaccinated chicks
B - Cull birds from the same genetic line
C - Collect pharyngeal swabs from affected birds; Antibiotic Tx for entire flock based on culture and sensitivity
D - Isolate unaffected animals; Breed from survivors of the disease
E - Use only mycoplasma-resistant bloodlines for new additions to the flock

A

A- Buy only vaccinated chicks
This is Marek disease and that is evident from the eyes, there is no treatment but the problem is preventable when chicks are vaccinated at hatching or before two weeks of age.

34
Q

What is wrong with this rabbit?
A - Diet too high in roughage
B - Malocclusion
C - Broken mandible, poorly healed
D - Oral damage from excessive cage chewing
E - Chronic calcium-phosphorus imbalance

A

B - Malocclusion
Needs to be carefully trimmed under anesthesia. Done with bone or wire cutters or with a grinding tool or dental burr (safer)

35
Q

A two-year-old, male neutered, sick, indoor/outdoor cat is presented with free fluid in the abdomen.
A sample of fluid is obtained and based on the high viscosity of the peritoneal fluid, feline infectious peritonitis is suspected.
What is a reliable and quick diagnostic test that can be performed on this fluid to differentiate it from effusions caused by other diseases?
A - Rivalta test
B - Coomb’s test
C - Wright’s stain
D - Nissl stain
E - Specific gravity

A

A- Rivalta test
Will rapidly distinguish feline infectious peritonitis from other causes of peritoneal effusion. Mix distilled water and a drop of acetic acid in a clear tube then add a drop of effusion, carefully layered on top. If effusion fluid does not dissolve into the solution, or forms a ball shape, it is a positive reaction. Can have false negatives.

36
Q

A 12-year-old Thoroughbred mare just moved to a barn with a stallion. The owner has noted new behaviour (see image) and is concerned.
What do these signs demonstrate?
A - Urinary tract infection
B - Pyometra
C - Mare is not cycling
D - Likely tail injury
E - Estrus

A

E- Estrus
Classic signs include raising the tail, everting the vulva to expose the clitoris, urinating, and abducting the hind legs. These signs are brought on by exposure to a stallion.
Mares in diestrus generally kick, squeal, and show animosity towards a stallion

36
Q

A 22-year-old Thoroughbred mare is presented for bilateral green nasal discharge, retching, coughing, and inappetence noted after feeding this evening.
The owner recently switched the mare to a pelleted diet because of the mare’s poor dentition.
Physical exam reveals bilateral green nasal discharge. The mucous membranes are pink and moist with a capillary refill time of 1.5 seconds.
A slight swelling is notable in the proximal-left jugular groove just caudal to the vertical ramus of the mandible.
Based on the most likely diagnosis, what initial therapy would be recommended?
Value Normal
100.6 F (38.1 C) 99.1–100.8 F, 37.3–38.2 C
HR=40 bpm 28-40 bpm
R=12 brpm 10-14 rpm
A - Administer antimicrobials, refer horse immediately for endoscopy and lavage under general anesthesia
B - Pass nasogastric tube; give atropine; lavage the esophagus until the obstruction clears
C - Withhold food and water; give sedatives and oxytocin; recheck in 2 hours
D - Cautious guttural pouch endoscopy with lavage for Streptococcus equi spp. equi PCR, quarantine horse until results are available
E - Ultrasound thorax, perform transtracheal wash for cytology and culture, begin broad-spectrum antimicrobials

A

C - Withhold food and water; give sedatives and oxytocin; recheck in 2 hours
Has acute esophageal obstruction (incorrectly called “choke”) is to withhold water and food, give sedatives and oxytocin to relax the esophagus, and recheck in a couple of hours. It is often successful if uncomplicated.

37
Q

What might happen if you push the oxygen flush button on an anesthetic machine?
A - Flow rate increases
B - The patient may start to wake up
C - Oxygen is flushed out of the system
D - The patient will go to a deeper anesthetic plane
E - Anesthetic gas concentration goes up in the breathing circuit

A

B- The patient may start to wake up
The oxygen flush sends pure oxygen into the breathing circuit, bypassing the vaporizer. Anesthetic gas concentration decreases and patients may start to wake up. Do not hit the oxygen flush button if the pop-off valve is closed or when using a non rebreathe system. It can deliver dangerously high airway pressure to the patient.

38
Q

A 12-year-old male neutered West Highland White terrier is presented after he disappeared from home for six hours and returned with a left hind limb lameness.
Pelvic radiographs taken on presentation are shown below.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
A - Femoral head and neck excision
B - Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication and rest
C - Tibial tubercle transposition and Robert-Jones bandage
D - Triple pelvic osteotomy
E - Closed reduction and Ehmer sling

A

E- Closed reduction and Ehmer slings

39
Q

What is the normal depth of the gingival sulcus in cats?
A - 2-5 mm
B - 4-6 mm
C - 0 mm
D - 1-3 mm
E - 0.5-1 mm

A

E - 0.5-1 mm

40
Q

What fresh gas flow rate is typical of a non-rebreathing anesthetic circuit?
A - 150 ml/lb/hr
B - 200-300 ml/kg/min
C - 30-50 ml/kg/min
D - 50-150 ml/kg/min
E - 450 ml/kg/min

A

B - 200-300 ml/kg/min

41
Q

A couple of days ago a client brought an 18-month-old filly home from a “kill pen” (was headed for Mexico for slaughter). She just sent you photos of the horse showing thick bilateral mucopurulent nasal discharge and a swollen throat latch. She says that the horse’s breathing is stertorous and loud.
You are on your way to see the horse, thinking you will need to do an emergency tracheotomy first thing.
What are additional preliminary recommendations based on the top differential?
A - Start antimicrobials; limit iodine intake and measure thyroid levels for goiter
B - Will need to biopsy the mass if owner wants to proceed with chemotherapy
C - Refer for laser ablation treatment for guttural pouch tympany
D - Quarantine the horse; take temps on all other horses
E - Pass a nasogastric tube to treat esophageal obstruction

A

D - Quarantine the horse; take temps on all other horses
Characteristic of Strangles, a highly contagious respiratory disease

42
Q

How early is it possible to determine pregnancy in horses by ultrasonic transrectal examination?
A - 28 days of gestation
B - 10 days of gestation
C - 45 days of gestation
D - 20 days of gestation

A

B- 10 days after gestation
Use a 5-10 MHz linear array transducer transrectally.

43
Q

What are the three most important factors to remember for radiation safety?
A - Time, distance, shielding
B - Positioning, angle of tungsten target, temperature of filament
C - Power, restraint, x-ray tube length
D - kVp setting, focal-film distance, grid type

A

A - Time, distance, shielding

44
Q
A
45
Q

Several 12-month-old sheep and goats are sick at a petting zoo that has cows, horses, pigs, bison, and white-tailed deer. One of the deer is also affected. The rest of the animals appear well.
Affected sheep are febrile, listless and off-feed, with serous or mucopurulent nasal discharge and rectal temperatures ranging from 105-107.5°F (40.5-42°C) [N=100.9–103.8°F (38.3–39.9°C)].
Physical exam shows swollen muzzles with edema and congestion of the lips, nose, and face with small hemorrhages and ulcers on the mucous membranes. The ulcers appear where the teeth contact the swollen lips and tongue.
Two affected animals are lame.
What is the diagnosis?
A - Bluetongue
B - Ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP)
C - Caprine arthritis encephalitis (CAE)
D - Contagious ecthyma
E - Peste des petits ruminants (PPR)

A

A - Bluetongue
Swollen sore muzzles with mucous membrane erosions, high fevers, and lameness suggest infection with bluetongue virus
Seen almost exclusively in sheep, though white-tailed deer, pronghorn antelope and desert bighorn sheep in North America can be severely affected. It is rare in cows but is reportable

46
Q

Which choice might explain why a radiograph comes out very light and washed out?
A - Prolonged exposure time
B - High kilovoltage
C - Focal distance is too long
D - High milliampere-seconds

A

D- Focal Distance is too long
Too long a focal distance from the x-ray tube to the patient (fewer x-rays reach the film) can underexpose a radiograph

47
Q

What do significantly increased reticulocytes on a complete blood count (CBC) indicate?
A - Autoimmune hemolytic disease
B - Regenerative anemia
C - Early sign of leukemia or bone marrow dysfunction
D - Inflammatory response
E - Disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

B- Regenerative anemia
The bone marrow is responding to a need for more RBC’s by releasing immature RBC’s