Question of the Day Flashcards
Which animal is most vulnerable to severe spinal cord damage when handled improperly?
A - Boa constrictor
B - Ferret
C - Cat
D - Rabbit
E - Hamster
D- Rabbit
Rabbits have extremely powerful hind legs and restraint without proper control of the hind legs can cause lumbar laxation (and severe spinal cord damage). This is particularly important to keep in mind if the rabbit thrashes and kicks excessively.
Which opioid choice provides good long-duration analgesia for mild to moderate pain in cats and can be given IM, IV, SQ and transmucosal?
A - Oxymorphone
B - Buprenorphine
C - Naloxone
D - Morphine
E - Butorphanol
B - Buprenorphine
It is one of the most popular and reliable opioid analgesics for use in cats. Cats are difficult to evaluate for pain. Buprenorphine has consistently provided good analgesia for cats with mild to moderate pain. Do not use it in patients with severe pain. It is a partial mu-agonist, it does not cause many of the side effects of pure mu-agonists such as nausea, vomiting, and dysphoria. Duration is 6+ hours, onset is long (30 mins-1 hour), depending on the route of administration. It is difficult to reverse as it binds very tightly to the mu-receptor. Can give transmucosal with almost 100% absorption as the feline mouth pH is 8-9.
Which one of the following choices best describes what an elevation of the peripheral neutrophil count means?
A - Chronic infection with a virus
B - Chronic parasitic infestation
C - Recent reaction to an allergen
D - Recent systemic inflammatory response
E - Chronic systemic inflammatory response
D- Recent systemic inflammatory response
This will be reflected by increased numbers of neutrophils in the blood since these cells usually spend 5-10 hours in circulation before migrating into the tissues.
Hemoglobin concentration is roughly what percentage of packed cell volume (PCV) in most domestic animals?
A - 33% of PCV
B - 25% of PCV
C - 10% of PCV
D - 50% of PCV
A- 33% of PCV
Normal hemoglobin concentration (Hb, g/dL) is about 1/3 (33%) of the packed cell volume (PCV) in normal dogs, cats, horses, cows, sheep, goats, and pigs. In a cat with a PCV of 30%, the Hb will be roughly 10 g/dL. In a dog with a PCV of 45%, the Hb will be roughly 15 g/dL. Hb is the protein in erythrocytes that helps transport oxygen.
The image shown below is of the hind end of a cow following calving.
What are the raised red structures seen on this placenta?
https://ci3.googleusercontent.com/meips/ADKq_NbsbE6MqUrinSMB4_o2nryE3yfs_3tj-9l05D0yJwf_8lnrqBzjWkodlwVA17JYKzPt6NlV9xhUnX5uNoJlQAF4Rd8Hf9E1CYng_g4qzbQMBi4uR4LzWTu7Dyq9m4q2=s0-d-e1-ft#https://zukureview.com/sites/default/files/2022-05/postcaflvingretake.jpg
A - Cotyledons
B - Fungal plaques
C - Caruncles
D - Amniotic hemorrhages
E - Avillous regions
A- Cotyledons
This is a normal-appearing bovine placenta. Cotyledons (fetal side) and caruncles (maternal side) make up the placentome, which are the areas of attachment between the fetal membranes and the endometrium of the cow.
A six-month-old female spayed Labrador retriever is presented for left pelvic limb lameness for a months duration. The owner reports that the dog is slow to rise from a lying position and bunny hops when chasing a ball. Exam reveals that the dog has decreased muscle mass of the left compared to the right pelvic limb. There is a decreased weight bearing on the left pelvic limb and a positive Ortolani sign.
Which of the following statements is correct based on the top differential?
A- juvenile pubic symphysiodesis is the treatment of choice
B- Orthopedic Foundation for Animals screen will predict future development of degenerative joint disease
C- Radiographic findings correlate closely with clinical signs
D- intra and extra-capsular surgical repair have similar success rates
E- Perform a triple pelvic osteotomy if no coxofemoral osteoarthritis
E- perform a triple pelvic osteotomy to improve acetabular coverage of the femoral heads in dogs with hip dysplasia without evidence of coxofemoral joint osteoarthritis, aka degenerative joint disease. This decreases the probability of future development of DJD due to joint laxity.
Hip dysplasia is a developmental Dz most common in young, large and giant breed dogs. use the Ortolani sign to assess for hip joint laxity.
Orthopedic Foundation for Animals evaluation is a subjective scoring of hip dysplasia performed in dogs 24 months of age or older.
Young dogs with hip dysplasia and evidence of DJD, Tx options include medical management, total hip replacement, or femoral head and neck incision.
Juvenile public symphysiodesis is only recommended in puppies at 14-20 weeks without DJD. Radiographic findings and clinical signs often do not correlate.
What image problems are avoided with proper bisecting radiograph technique of teeth?
A - Overlap of soft tissue
B - Increased scatter
C - Decreased contrast
D - Elongation
D- Elongation
The bisecting radiograph technique minimizes the image distortion that occurs because of an inability to place x-ray film parallel to the central axis of the tooth.
If you do not use the bisecting angle technique, a tooth may appear artificially elongated or foreshortened.
The bisecting radiograph technique is generally preferred for maxillary teeth as well as mandibular canines and incisors (rostral mandibular teeth).
What does it mean if a cat has physiologic nystagmus?
A - Genital malformation
B - Abnormally loud gastrointestinal sounds in the absence of a recent meal
C - Normal, rapid, involuntary movement of eyes as head moves side to side
D - Head shaking related to inner ear disturbance
E - Loss of balance
C- Normal, rapid, involuntary movement of the eyes as head moves side to side
Nystagmus can also be abnormal due to disease processes that may cause nystagmus when the head is stationary, or the eyes move in abnormal directions as the head moves. Vestibular disease can be peripheral or central.
What organism causes “rabbit syphilis”?
A - Cheyletiella yasguri
B - Pasteurella multocida
C - Encephalitozoon spp
D - Treponema paraluis-cuniculi
E - Francisella tularensis
E - Francisella tularensis
Think of dry, crusty exudates around the perineum, vulva, nostrils, and eyes. In spite of the name, it is not a zoonotic disease.
Which one of the following lab abnormalities is frequently seen with acetaminophen (Tylenol) toxicity in cats?
A - Toxic neutrophils
B - Increased red blood cells (polycythemia)
C - Alkalosis
D - Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)
E - Methemoglobinuria (brown urine)
E- Methemoglobinuria (brown urine). Oxidative damage to RBCs causes Heinz body anemia. More frequent in cats than dogs. Cats are deficient in glucuronyl transferase, so they have a limited ability to metabolize acetaminophen and aspirin.
Which of the following intravenous solutions are hypotonic?
A - 0.45% saline, 5% dextrose
B - Hetastarch, Vetstarch
C - 5% dextrose in 0.9% saline
D - Lactated Ringer’s solution, Normosol-R®
E - Plasmalyte 148, Normosol-M®
A- 0.45% saline, 5% dextrose
The osmolality of half strength or 0.45% saline is 155 mmol/L, dextrose is 252 most/L ( and the dextrose is quickly metabolized, leaving free water).
Hetastarch and Vetstarch are colloids composed of high molecular weight starches in saline, they are isotonic.
Normosol-R and LRS are balanced isotonic crystalloids.
Normosol-M is somewhat hypertonic. It’s not typically used in vet med. it has low levels of sodium and chloride nd more potassium than replacement type fluids.
What is another name for a thrombocyte?
A - Platelet
B - Basophil
C - Macrophage
D - Lymph node epithelial cell
E - Red blood cell parasite
A- Platelet
Help clot blood
What is the purpose of the collimator in an x-ray machine?
A - Maintains a vacuum environment
B - Prevents beta radiation from reaching the film
C - Decreases production of scatter radiation
D - Removes less energetic x-rays from the primary beam
E - Provides electricity needed to heat the filament
C - Decreases production of scatter radiation
A collimator is a beam-restricting device that decreases production of scatter radiation. This improves radiation safety for personnel. and improves image quality.
Which species uses sweating as the primary method of cooling?
A - Horse
B - Mouse
C - Pig
D - Cattle
A- Horse
The horse is the only domestic species to sweat as a primary method of heat dissipation.
A vet has prescribed phenylbutazone 2.2mg/kg PO PRN (but not more than once daily) for an older quarterhorse with osteoarthritis of the pastern joint.
What does PRN mean?
A- every other day
B- as needed
C- given as a paste
D - topically
E- in the feed
B- as needed
QOD means every other day, and EOD also means every other day
You are asked to set up a non-rebreathing anesthetic circuit for the next surgery case.
What kind of patient do you expect?
A - Miniature poodle under seven kg
B - Asthmatic bulldog
C - Obese Labrador
D - Siamese cat over 20 lbs
E - Greyhound with no body fat
A- miniature poodle under seven kg
A non-rebreathing circuit is better for smaller animals, under 7kg
Which of the following patients will benefit the most from the use of pre-emptive analgesia?
A - Horse with chronic laminitis
B - Beagle with a fractured dew claw
C - German shepherd with osteosarcoma of the humerus
D - Dog presented for ovariohysterectomy
E - Cat for an amputation following hit by car
D- Dog presented for OVH
They would benefit the most from pre-emptive analgesia because she is not painful before surgery. You intervene before an unexpected event or experience.
Which of the following correctly explains triage of emergency patients?
A - Sorting of patients into groups depending on their need for immediate intervention
B - When a fireman rescues a sick cat out of a tree
C - Scheduling of patients in need of surgery – must go, should go, go if time allows
D - Evaluation of emergencies by species, age, and sex
E - This is a type of lavage fluid that can be used in many types of wounds - sterile, clean, or contaminated
A- Sorting patients into groups depending on their need for immediate intervention
Which of the following types of hay is highest in calcium?
A - Barley hay
B - Bermuda grass hay
C - Oat hay
D - Alfalfa hay
E - Orchard grass hay
D- Alfalfa hay
It tends to be higher in calcium, protein, and energy. Important to know because feeding alfalfa hay is associated with the formation of stones in horses
Which choice might explain why a radiograph comes out very light and washed out?
A - High milliampere-seconds
B - Focal distance is too long
C - Prolonged exposure time
D - High kilovoltage
B- focal distance too long
too long a focal distance from the x-ray tube to the patient (fewer x-rays reach the film) can underexpose a radiograph. An underexposed radiograph may also occur if mAs or kV are set too low
What is a lumpectomy?
A - Enema removal of impacted feces
B - Removal of a mass or lump
C - Evacuation of stomach contents
D - Another term for biopsy
E - Fine needle aspirate
B- removal of a mass or lump